Random Q set 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best way to visualize spirochetes, such as treponema pallidum, for diagnosis?

A

with dark field microscopy

will show helical motile organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is effect modification?

A

when the outcome of the main exposure is modified by another variable
NOT a confounder or a bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do the elderly on the tea & toast diet sometimes get?

A

Scurvy–vit C deficiency
Vit C is needed as cofactor for the hydroxylation of proline & lysine residues of collagen in the Rough ER
Symptoms–gingival bleeding, petechiae, ecchymosis, corkscrew hairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When endometrial cells die off…which death process do they undergo?

A

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are patients with silicosis at increased risk for TB?

A

macrophages take in silica particles that damage them

more susceptible to TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference b/w empathy & support?

A

empathy–try to walk in their shoes & really understand

support–acknowledge the difficulty for the person, be there for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the presentation of congenital hypothyroidism?

A
hypotonia-floppy
poor feeding
jaundice
macroglossia
constipation
umbilical hernia
can develop into MR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the site of protrusion, lower border, medial border for direct & indirect inguinal hernias?

A
Direct: 
Site--Hesselbach Triangle
Lower--inguinal ligament
Medial--rectus abdominis
Lateral--inferior epigastric vessels
Indirect:
Site--deep inguinal ring
Lower--inguinal ligament
Medial--inferior epigastric vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of hernia can be felt with deep palpation of the external inguinal ring w/ the tip of the finger? Or they can be in the scrotum…

A

Indirect Inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of injury does ulnar nerve damage cause? What are 2 ways to damage the ulnar nerve?

A

claw hand

  • *thru Guyon’s canal
  • *hook of the hamate & pisiform bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does chloroquine & primaquine treat malaria?

A

chloroquine–works on erythrocytic forms of plasmodium

primaquine–fights the latent stage of Pvivax & Povale in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do central chemoreceptors respond to? Peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

Central–medulla, respond to pH

Peripheral–carotid & aortic bodies, respond to hypoxemia or hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe some of the symptoms that can occur with large vessel arteritis.

A

headache
craniofacial pain
polymyalgia rheumatica
sudden vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is mucormycosis?

A

opportunistic infection
caused by Rhizopus, Mucor, or Absidia
paranasal sinuses infected
fungi are broad nonseptate hyphae that branch at right angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

A
hypotension
tachycardia
elevated central venous pressure--JVD
muffled cardiac sounds
systolic drops 10 mmHg during inspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does anorexia affect the cardiovascular system?

A
hypotension
hypothermia
bradycardia
cardiac atrophy
cardiomyopathy
arrhythmias
17
Q

What is the only safe place to make an injection into the buttocks?

A

the superolateral quadrant, miss the superior gluteal nerve & the sciatic nerve.

18
Q

Give the important characteristics of multiple myeloma.

A

plasma cells in bone marrow
amyloid formation b/c of monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains
normocytic & normochromic anemia
hypercalcemia & bone resorption
Renal failure b/c of amyloid & plasma cells
Lytic lesions, Bence-Jones proteins, apple-green birefringence on Congo red stain

19
Q

What is the concept of heteroplasmy?

A

the coexistence of mutated & wild type versions of mitochondrial genomes in a given cell
Diseases of mitochondrial inheritance can be expressed differently in different people.

20
Q

What is the MOA of acyclovir in the treatment of herpes?

A

activated by viral thymidine kinase
viral DNA pol takes it up to make more DNA & synthesis is terminated
nucleoside analog

21
Q

What is a good initial treatment for alcohol withdrawal?

A

benzodiazepines that are long-acting stimulate the inhibitory action of GABAa receptors (the same as alcohol)
Ex: diazepam, chlordiazepoxide

22
Q

What are the characteristics of syringomyelia?

A

central cystic dilation in cervical spinal cord at the level of C8-T1 usually.
causes upper extremity loss of pain & temp sensation & weakness & hyporeflexia
lower extremity hyperreflexia & weakness

23
Q

What is the MOA of thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone? Side effects?

A

PPAR gamma activated

side effect: fluid retention, can exacerbate CHF

24
Q

What are the things that warfarin therapy inhibits?

A

factors 2, 7, 9, 10

Protein C & S (bad b/c these are naturally anticoagulant)

25
Q

Statins are metabolized by CYP 450 3A4. What are some inhibitors of this?

A
cimetidine
ciprofloxacin
erythromycin (a macrolide)
azole antifungals
grapefruit juice
isoniazid
ritonavir