random Q&A Flashcards

1
Q

most common initial presentation of rheumatic fever

A

polyarthritis

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2
Q

most specific presentation of rheumatic fever

A

seydenham chorea

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3
Q

reversibilit in asthma is demonstrated by

A

> 12% and 200mL increase in FEV1: 15min after an inhaled short acting b2-agonsit or;
after a 2 to 4week trial of oral corticosteroids (prednisone or prednisolone 30-40mg daily)

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4
Q

putative mediators of asthma

A

SRS-A made up of leukotrienes C4, D4, E4

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5
Q

most common side effect of theophylline

A

nausea, vomiting and headaches

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6
Q

need for regular controller therapy

A

use of reliever medication >3x a week

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7
Q

most common reason for non control of asthma

A

noncompliance with medication, usually ICS

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8
Q

drugs that are safe for asthma in pregnancy

A

short acting B2- agonist
ICS
theophylline

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9
Q

ratio if granular layer thickness VS thickness of the wall between the epithelium and the cartilage of the trachea and bronchi

A

Reid’s index (>0.4 in Chronic Bronchitis)

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10
Q

most highly significant predictor of FEV1 (COPD)

A

pack years of cigarette smoking

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11
Q

most typical finding in COPD

A

persistent reduction in forced expiratory flow rates

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12
Q

type of emphysema most commonly associated with smoking

A
  • centriacinar emphysema
  • characerized by enlarged spaces found (initially) in association with respiratory bronchioles
  • prominent in upper lobes and superior segments of lower lobes and often focal
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13
Q

type of emphysema usually in pts with a1-AT deficiency

A
  • panacinar emphysema
  • char. by abnormally large air spaces evenly distributed within and across acinar units
  • predilictions for lower lobes and involves the entire respiratory unit (resp bronchiole, alveolar duct and alveoli)
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14
Q

newly develop clubbing of digits (NOT A SIGN OF COPD)

should alert an investigation

A

lung CA

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15
Q

most common pathogenesis of pneumonia

A

aspiration

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16
Q

main purpose of gram stain

A

ensure suitability sample for culture

17
Q

LIGHT’S CRITERIA

A

for diagnosis of exudate

  • one or more of the ff:
  • pleural fluid/serum protein ratio >0.5
  • pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio >0.6
  • pleural fluid LDH>2/3 the upper limit of the normal for serum LDH
18
Q

indications for CT insertion:

A

-gross pus on thoracentesis
presence of organisms on G/S on pleural fluid
pleural fluid glucose <60mg/dl
pleural fluid pH below 7.2 in a setting of pneumonia

19
Q

to be adequate for culture, a sputum sample must have

A

> 25neutrophil and

<10 squamous cells per lpf

20
Q

leading cause of transudate pleural effusion

A

LV failure, cirrhosis

21
Q

leading cause of exudative pleural effusion

A

bacterial pneumonia, malignancy, viral infection, pulmonary embolism

22
Q

most common cause of chylous pleural effusion

A

malignancy

23
Q

3 tumors that cause ~75% of all malignant pleural effusion

A

lung CA
breast CA
lymphoma

24
Q

classic signs of PE

A

tachycardia, low grade fever, neck vein distention

25
Q

useful rule out test >95% of pts with normal levels (<500ng/mL) do not have PE

A

quantiative plasma D-dimer ELISA

26
Q

most frequently cited ECG abnormality in PE (in addition to sinus tachycardia)

A

S1Q3T3 sign (specific but insensitive)

27
Q

most common ECG abnormality in PE

A

T-wave inversion in leads V1 to V4

28
Q

ards

A

acute onset <24hours
bilateral patchy airspace disease
absence of left atrial hypertension (PCWP <18mmHG)
profound shunt physiology (PaO2/FiO2 <200)

29
Q

top 3 causes of ARDS:

A

gram (-) sepsis
gastric aspiration
severe trauma