Random Pharm (Quizzes, Review Slides)

Question 1

osteoporosis or cataracts

impaired glucose tolerance

Answer 1

systemic corticosteroids (prednisone)

Question 2

Tramadol MOA

Answer 2

weak agonist of the mu-opioid receptor

Question 3

___ inc risk of toxicity due to elevated levels of acetaminophen

Answer 3

enzyme inducers of the CYP450 system (eg, alcohol, carba- mazepine, phenytoin, rifampin)

Question 4

acetaminophen OD antidote

Answer 4

N-acetylcysteine (glutathione precursor)

Question 5

celecoxib

Answer 5

COX-2 selective

Question 6

no ceiling effect

Answer 6

opioid analgesics

Question 7

ceiling effect

Answer 7

NSAIDs

Question 8

topical patch fentanyl onset of action

Answer 8

delayed

Question 9

_____, a synthetic opioid, would generally be safe to use in someone with a history of hypersensitivity to a naturally derived opioid such as morphine.

Answer 9

fentanyl

Question 10

opioid GI AE

Answer 10

nausea and loss of appetite due to a combined effect of stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the medulla and slowing gastric emptying in the GI tract (constipation)

Question 11

to avoid GI AE, opioids are usually rx’d w/

Answer 11

laxatives and stool softeners

Question 12

misoprostol

Answer 12

prostaglandin E analog

minimizes risk for NSAID-related GI ulceration

Question 13

NSAIDs and body temperature

Answer 13

Due mainly to inhibition of fever-promoting prostaglandins, NSAIDs will LOWER body temperature if abnormally elevated.

Question 14

T/F

An extended release formulation of NSAIDs mitigates risk of GI side effects

Answer 14

F

The risk for NSAID-related GI side effects is dose related.

Question 15

synthetic opioids

Answer 15

methadone
meperidine
fentanyl

Question 16

Cross-sensitivity will result if ____ is used in someone w/ hx of HS to codeine.

Answer 16

morphine

a metabolite of codeine

Question 17

cyclophosphamide

Answer 17

• an alkylating agent that stops cell growth

- reduces risk of renal failure in SLE

Question 18

mycopenolate

Answer 18

• depletes guanosine NTs in T and B lymphocytes and inhibits their proliferation
• prevents transplant rejection, tx of choice for proliferative lupus nephritis

Question 19

hydroxychloroquine

Answer 19

use in SLE, dec flares

Question 20

biologics for SLE

Answer 20

belimumab

rituximab

Question 21

epistaxis

Answer 21

NSAIDS

thromboxane inhibition

Question 22

miosis

Answer 22

opioids

Question 23

myoclonus

Answer 23

opioids

Question 24

selective COX-2 inhibitor

Answer 24

celecoxib

Question 25

irreversible COX inhibitor

Answer 25

aspirin

Question 26

celecoxib AE

Answer 26

MI

Question 27

QT interval prolongation

Answer 27

methadone

Question 28

long-acting opioid agonist

Answer 28

methadone

Question 29

opioid agonist with neurotoxicity

Answer 29

merperidine

Question 30

partial anti-depressants partial opioid

Answer 30

tramadol

Question 31

CYP3A4 alteration that would lead to morphine OD

Answer 31

inhibition

Question 32

CYP2D6 alteration that would lead to morphine OD

Answer 32

overexpression

Question 33

Cl of morphine

Answer 33

renal

Question 34

abatacept

Answer 34

T cell modulator targets CD80/86 on APC to prevent attachment to CD28 on T cell

Question 35

Entanercept

Answer 35

anti-TNF

Question 36

hydrocholoroquine

Answer 36

DMARD anti-malarial poorly understood MOA

Question 37

methotrexate use/MOA/AE

Answer 37

DMARD use: 1st line for RA MOA: folate inhibition (not likely MOA for arthritis suppression) AE: - liver tox (EtOH abstinence) - BM suppression - teratogen (BIRTH CONTROL) - pneumonitis/pulm fibrosis

Question 38

DMARDs general principles

Answer 38

- slow onset - immunosuppressive - no effect on wound healing - req reg f/u - TERATOGENIC - malignancy risk (lymphomas) - not curative - better in combo

Question 39

MTX administration

Answer 39

WEEKLY (daily is highly toxic) admin w/ folic acid to lim AE

Question 40

leflunomide use/MOA/AE

Answer 40

DMARD use: 1st line for arthritis when MTX contraindicated MOA: inhib pyrimidine synthesis by inhibiting dihydroorotate dehydrogenase AE: sim to MTX (no EtOH)

Question 41

leflunomide administration

Answer 41

daily medication, no req for folic acid (unlike MTX)

Question 42

sulfasalazine use/MOA/AE

Answer 42

DMARD use: 1st line for arthritis when MTX contraindicated MOA: unclear AE: BM suppression, esp w/ G6PD deficiency

Question 43

sulfasalazine administration

Answer 43

often used in combo w/ MTX and/or hydrochloroquine (triple therapy)

Question 44

hydroxycholoroquine use/MOA/AE

Answer 44

DMARD use: 1st line for SLE, often used for RA and other arthritides MOA: poorly understood, originally an antimalarial AE: mostly SAFE. Possible retinopathy (irreversible, "bull's eye)

Question 45

hydroxycholoroquine administration

Answer 45

- SAFE during pregnancy | - yearly retinal exams

Question 46

Azathioprine use/MOA/AE

Answer 46

DMARD use: 2nd line therapy for many non-life threat manifestations of SLE, vasculitides, others. Occasional RA. MOA: antagonizes purine metab (inhib DNA synth) AE: - BM suppression - infection risk

Question 47

Azathioprine administration

Answer 47

-SAFE during pregnancy

Question 48

biologics clearance

Answer 48

reticuloendothelial system | don't need to worry about organ related damage

Question 49

biologics administration

Answer 49

-IM, subQ, or IV

Question 50

biologics general principles

Answer 50

- newer DMARDs - parenteral admin - admin rxns - infections - cost - CHF (fluid retention) - neuro dz (MS) - malignancy

Question 51

etanercept

Answer 51

anti-TNF

Question 52

prednisone AE

Answer 52

- infections - hypERglycemia - osteoporosis - weight gain

Question 53

T/F Prednisone commonly causes bronchospasm.

Answer 53

F relieves leukotrienes

Question 54

targets CD20

Answer 54

rituximab

Question 55

IL-6 inhibitor

Answer 55

tocilizumab

Question 56

JAK kinase inhibitor

Answer 56

tofacitinib

Question 57

duloxetine

Answer 57

SNRI use: fibromyalgia

Question 58

tx of type III glomerulonephritis

Answer 58

mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide