Random Facts to memorize Flashcards

1
Q

Anterior triangle border

A

Superior-Mandible
Medial-Midline of the Neck
Lateral-Sternocleidomastoid muscle

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2
Q

Posterior Triangle

A

Inferior-Clavicle
Posterior-Trapezius Muscle
Anterior-Sternocleidomastoid Muscle

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3
Q

Where does most cervical lymphatic drainage occur?

A

Deep nodes are deep to sternocleidomastoid muscle and normally not palpable except the supraclavicular node

Virchow’s Node-supraclavicular node of the deep chain that is sometimes palpable in thoracic or abdominal malignancies

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4
Q

Spurling’s Maneuver?

A
  • Tests for radicular nerve pain

Cervical foarminal compression test

  • Side bending to the affected side with compression down along the spinal axis- produces radicular symptoms

Maximum cervical compression test

  • Add extension and rotation to the same side as the head is side bent
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5
Q

Distraction test

A

pulling superior on the head: used to alleviate radicular symptoms and support a diagnosis of radiculopathy

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6
Q

what does testing the strength of the SCM and trapezius also assess?

A

functionality of cranial nerve XI

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7
Q

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

A
  • Occurs when there is compression of vessels and nerves in the area of the clavicle.
  • Happens when there is an extra cervical rib or because of a tight fibrous band that connects the spinal vertebra to the rib.

Symptoms include:

  • pain in the neck and shoulders
  • numbness in the last 3 fingers and forearm.

Thoracic outlet syndrome is usually treated with physical therapy which helps strengthen and straighten the shoulders.

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8
Q

Roo’s Test

A
  • tests for thoracic outlet syndrome
  • Arms abducted to 90°, externally rotated
  • Elbows flexed at 90°
  • Patient slowly opens and closes his hands for 3 minutes.
  • If there is weakness, numbness or tingling of the hand or arm the test is positive.
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9
Q

Apley’s scratch test

A

gross measurement of shoulder range and motion - tests external rotation and abduction with hand over the - internal roation and adduction

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10
Q

Adson’s Test

A
  • evaluates for any compression on the subclavian artery by a cervical rib or tight scalene muscle
    • palpate radial pulse with elbow and shoulder in extension- then move arm into abduction and external rotation and flex elbow. Have patient turn their head away from the side being tested
  • if pulse diminishes, then test is positive
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11
Q

Rotator Cuff Muscles

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

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12
Q

Winging of scapula

A

due to long thoroacic nerve injury causing a weak serratus anterior muscle

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13
Q

Shoulder ROM: Rotator Cuff muscles???

A
  • Abduction- 180°
  • Adduction- 75°
  • Flexion- 180°
  • Extension- 60°
  • External Rotation90°
  • Internal Rotation- 100°

Supraspinatus: abducts *** most often injured ***

Infraspinatus, Teres Minor: externally rotate

Subscapularis: internal rotation

Thoracohumeral group: adduction of forearm

Rotator Cuff Injuries:

  • Lifting heavy objects or repetitive abduction or overhead use of the arm.
  • Symptoms: pain inferior to the anterior border of the acromion or referred pain to the anterior deltoid insertion on the humerus
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14
Q

Drop Arm Test

A

abduct patient’s arm to 90 degrees, then gently push down on the arm - pain or weakness suggest rotator cuff tear

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15
Q

Empty Can Test

A
  • hold arms out in front of patient with thumbs down - put pressure downward on both arms - pain or weakness shows a tear in the supraspinatus muscle
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16
Q

Lift-Off Test

A
  • tests subscapularis injury
  • With arm internally rotated so dorsum of hand rests on low back, have patient lift the hand off their low back posteriorly against your resistance.
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17
Q

Crossover Test

A
  • adduct arm across the chest - compresses the acromioclavicular joint and causes pain if there has been disruption of the AC joint or arthritis.
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18
Q

Apprehension Test

A
  • put patient’s arm in the surrender position (Arm is abducted to 90° and externally rotated)
  • put one hand on forearmand other on back of shoulder and push gently forward
  • any look of alarm on patients face is positive test for a loose joint capsule and potential subluxation of shoulder or dislocation.
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19
Q

O’Brien’s Test

A
  • adduct arm across chest with flex armed at 90 degrees - internally rotate with the thumb pointing down and push down on the arm
  • pain is positive test for glenoid labrum tear (SLAP - superior labrum anterior to posterior)
  • confirmed by repeating with thumb pointing up with no pain
  • different from crossober test due to internal rotation of the arm with downward pressure
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20
Q

Speed’s Test

A
  • Tests biceps tendon
  • Flex straight arm to 90° with the palm facing upward. The patient resists the student pushing down. If pain occurs in the area of the bicipital groove the test is positive indicating biceps tendonitis
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21
Q

Hawkin’s Impingement Sign

A

Examiner grasps patients elbow with one hand and their distal forearm with the other

Examiner passively externally rotates the shoulder

  • Impinges subscapularis muscle

Examiner passively internally rotates the shoulder

  • Impinges supraspinatus muscle, teres minor muscle, and Infraspinatus muscle

Examiner internally rotates the arm by applying upward force at the elbow and downard force on teh forearm

  • this compresses the greater tuberosity against the coracoacromial ligament
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22
Q

how to test for subacromial bursitis?

A

Stabilize the shoulder and extend the humerus. Pain may indicate subacromial bursitis although the problem may the rotator cuff.

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23
Q

Lateral epicondylitis/ Extensor Tendinitis

A
  • Tennis Elbow

Symptoms: Pain in the lateral elbow and dorsal region of the forearm. Worse with wrist extension, gripping or lifting.
Cause: Repetitive use of forearm extensors

Test: Palpate the lateral epicondyle while resisting the patients wrist extension. Pain is a positive test.

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24
Q

Medial Epicondylitis/ Flexor Tendinitis

A
  • Golfer’s Elbow/ Climber’s elbow

Symptoms: Pain in the medial elbow and volar region of the forearm. Worse with wrist flexion, gripping or lifting.
Cause: Repetitive use of forearm flexors

Test: Palpate the medial epicondyle while resisting the patient’s wrist flexion. Pain is a positive test.

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25
Q

Valgus and Varus Stress Tests

A
  • test for collateral ligament disruption
  • For valgus stress test: push on lateral side of elbow while abducting the distal forearm away from the body (medial glid and abduction)
  • For Varus stress test push on medial elbow while adducting the distal forearm (lateral glide and adduction)
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26
Q

Tinel’s Sign

A
  • Sharply tap over the location of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, on the palmar surface of the wrist, using your index and middle finger, or a reflex hammer.
  • A positive test is noted by reproduction of the patient’s pain typically a shooting pain or paresthesias in the distribution of the median nerve.
  • Tinel’s sign is not specific for carpal tunnel syndrome. It can be used in the diagnosis of any compression neuropathy.
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27
Q

Phalen’s Test

A
  • upside down prayer test: flex both wrists at 90 degrees with dorsal aspect of the hands together. pain is positive.
  • can indicate carpal tunnel - more sensitive than tinel’s sign
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28
Q

Prayer test

A
  • dorsiflexing wrists - positive pain is indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome
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29
Q

Colle’s Fracture

A

Distal radius fracture with distal fracture fragment displace dorsally.
Often due to falling on an outstretched hand.

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30
Q

Boxer’s Fracture

A

Distal 5th metacarpal fracture with volar angulation.
Often due to punching something like a wall

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31
Q

Finkelstein test

A

Put the patient’s thumb inside their fist, and then gently ulnar deviate the wrist.

If pain occurs along the thumb or wrist, the test is positive for tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus (De Quervain’s Disease).

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32
Q

Hand special tests

A

Varus/Valgus ligament stress

  • Stabilize the proximal bone with one hand while using the other hand to deviate the distal bone to the ulnar and radial sides checking for ligamentous instability.

Thumb/Ulnar collateral ligament stress

  • Put stress on the upper thumb joint, by pushing the thumb away from the hand.
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33
Q

Intradermal injections (ID)

A

10-15 degrees; directly under epidermis

  • primarily used for diagnostic purpose
  • use small syringes (1 cc) and small gauge (27 gauge, 1/2’’)
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34
Q

subcutaneous (SQ)

A

administred at a 45 degree angle

use a variety of syringes (1-3 cc) and needle sizes (23-25 guague, 1/2 - 5/8’’ needle)

  • allows for slow sustained absorption of medications (insulin, hormones, opiates)
  • done wherever there is a good layer of SQ fat (i.e. posterior upper arm)
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35
Q

Intramuscular Injections (IM)

A

administered into a well perfused muscle at 90 degree angle along with aspiration

  • uses a variety of syringes (3 cc) and 21-25 gauge with 1- 1.5 ‘’ needle.
  • provides rapid systemic acttivation of large doses with least amount of tissue damage
  • injection site at deltoid
  • Includes vaccines such as Hep A/B, MMR,DPT Pentacel, tetanus, B12, epinephrine, opiates, promethazine.
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36
Q

complications of injections?

A

Vasovagal syncope
Skin infection
Toxic rxn. to local anesthetics
Hematoma formation
Neuritis
Rebound pain
Pneumothorax or Compartment syndrome

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37
Q

Contraindications for Joint Injections

A

Absolute

  • Local cellulitis
  • Septic arthritis
  • Acute fracture
  • Bacteremia
  • Joint prosthesis
  • Achilles or patella tendinopathies
  • History of allergy or anaphylaxis to injectable pharmaceuticals or constituents
  • More than 3 previous corticosteroid injections within the past year in a single joint*.

Relative

  • Minimal relief after 2 previous corticosteroid injections
  • Underlying coagulopathies
  • Anticoagulation therapy
  • Evidence of surrounding joint osteoporosis
  • Anatomically inaccessible joints
  • Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
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38
Q

What are common local anesthetics?

A

Lidocaine - 1 min onset (.5-1 hour duration)

  • can cause vasodilation
  • use in contaminated wounds
  • safe in figers, nose, penis, toes and ear lobes

lidocaine w/ epi - 1 min onset (2-4 hours)

  • causes vasoconstriction
  • use in highly vascular areas
  • use in clean wounds

Bupivacaine w/ epi - 5 min onset (2-4 hours)

Bupivicaine - 5 min onset (3-7 hours)

  • longer duration - fore nerve blocks

Use epi (vasoconstrictor) when have area that is extremely vascular and need to control the bleeding , it also makes the wound longer. Want to make sure wound is clean in order to use epi

Do not use epi in finger, toes, penis, nose and earlobes (not vascular – could cause necrosis)

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39
Q

Spinous Process Landmarks

A

T3 spine of scapula
T7 inferior angle scapula
L4 located at level of Iliac crest

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40
Q

Dermatomes on lower body

A

Patella tendon reflex: L4

  • middle of foot

Achilles tendon reflex: S1

  • lateral portion of foot

** note: L5-S1 is most common area of injury and source of lower back pain

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41
Q

Viscero-Somatic Reflexes

A

Small Intestine T10-11
Colon and Rectum T12-L2
Bladder T12-L2
Ovaries/Testes T10-11
Uterus T12-L2
Prostate T12-L2

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42
Q

Straight Leg Raise

A

Raise leg, if reproduce leg pain radiation, lower leg just to point of no pain then dorsiflex foot. This stretches sciatic nerve so if dermatomal pain reproduced again, more likely is sciatic nerve. Most commonly positive for sciatica if pain found between 40-60 degrees of extension

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43
Q

Trendelenburg test

A

Evaluates gluteus medius muscle
Observe PSIS dimples standing on both legs
Next have patient stand on one leg
Gluteus medius on supported side should contract elevating pelvis on opposite side (“negative” normal test)
If pelvis descends shows weakened muscle (“positive” test)
Gluteus medius keeps hips stable during gait

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44
Q

Ober Test

A

Evaluates iliotibial tract (ITB syndrome)
Patient lies on side opposite side being tested
Flex knee to 90˚ and abduct leg at hip as far as possible
Release leg in question, patient to relax leg

  • Normal test = leg returning to normal position
  • Abnormal test = leg remaining in abducted position
45
Q

Thomas Test

A

For flexion contractures of the hip due to tight Psoas (Iliopsoas)
Flex hip(s) with patient supine so thigh touches abdomen
Upon extending one hip should lie flat on table
Positive test if hip does not fully extend

46
Q

Patrick or Fabere Test

A

tests hip joint

  • patient lies supine - the foot of involved sie is placed on opposite knee
  • hip is now flexed, abducted and externally rotated
  • press down
  • pain may represent sacroiliac joint pathology
47
Q

Psoas Test

A

push up against resistance with hand placed on knee - this will also engage the quads

48
Q

Prepatellar Bursitis

A

Anterior: dome swelling over patella associated with tenderness

from excessive kneeling

49
Q

Anserine Bursitis

A

Medial aspect of knee - tibial plateau

  • excessive running is the gcommon cause
  • also from valgus knee deformity
50
Q

Patellofemoral grind test

A
  • Patient supine with knee extended
  • Compress patella against femur
  • Instruct patient to tighten quads.
  • Assess for roughness of motion, crepitus, pain
  • Pain associated with going up stairs or rising from chair consider Chondromalacia or patellofemoral syndrome
51
Q

Apprehension test

A
  • Tests for dislocation or subluxation of patella
  • Attempt to manually dislocate patella laterally
  • Observe patient’s facial expressions
52
Q

Anterior drawer test

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament:

Anterior Drawer Sign:

  • Patient supine flex knees and hips 90˚
  • Pull tibia forward to check for movement anteriorly
  • Compare to opposite side. Positive test = ACL tear

Lachman test: only good for ACL

  • Knee flexed 15˚ and externally rotated if possible
  • Grasp femur with one hand and tibia with other
  • Move femur and tibia in opposite directions
  • Asymmetric, forward movement of tibia against femur suggests positive test = ACL tear
53
Q

Posterior drawer test

A

Posterior Cruciate Ligament: (post attachment)

Posterior Drawer Sign:

  • Patient supine with hip and knee flexed to 90˚
  • Push tibia posteriorly checking for movement against femur
  • Compare to opposite side. Positive test = PCL tear
54
Q

McMurray test

A
  • not a very specific test that tests for injury of the mmenisci of the knee
  • Patient supine grasp heel and fully flex the knee
  • Hold knee joint with other hand palpating along joint line
  • Rotate the lower leg internally to engage the lateral meniscus and extend the leg. Note pain; “pop” or “click” during the motion.

Medial Meniscus:

  • Externally rotate tibia = heel points in/toward midline
  • Extend knee feeling for click, looking for pain

Lateral Meniscus:

  • Internally rotate tibia = heel points out/away from midline
  • Extend knee feeling for click, looking for pain
55
Q

Apley’s Compression Test

A

Apley’s Compression Test: testing meniscus

Patient prone with knee flexed to 90˚
Stabilize thigh with one hand while leaning onto heel compressing medial and lateral menisci. Rotate heel during compression noting any pain

56
Q

Thessalys Test

A
  • more sensitive meniscal test than mcmurray
  • with patient standing and holding on to you for balance, lift the affected leg and bend the leg standing on about five degrees. Apply internal and external rotation through the hips creating a standing grind onthe meniscus
  • then test the affected side.
57
Q

Valgus and Varus stress test

A

Medial Collateral Ligament

  • **Valgus Stress Test: ** (Abduction Stress Test)
  • Patient supine and flex knee slightly
  • One hand against lateral knee the other around medial ankle
  • Push medially against knee while laterally against ankle

Lateral Collateral Ligament

  • Varus Stress Test: (Adduction Stress Test)
  • Position patient same as for Valgus test
  • Hands against medial knee and lateral ankle
  • Push laterally against knee while medially against ankle
58
Q

Homan’s Sign

A

Evaluates for DVT (deep venous thrombosis)
Dorsiflex patient’s ankle with leg extended at knee. Pain in calf is a positive sign.

59
Q

Thompson Test

A
  • evaluates achille’s rupture

Patient prone, leg bent 90 deg, squeeze calf and observe for normal passive plantar flexion. Best to determine achilles rupture if done in 48 hrs.

60
Q

what are most injured in sprains?

A

lateral ankle

Anterior Talofibular and Calcaneofibular are most injured in sprains

–> cause by inversion force

Ankle

dorsiflex/plantar flex (Tibiotalar joint)
Inversion/eversion (Talocalcaneal joint = Subtalar Joint)

61
Q

Ankle Anterior Drawers test

A
  • used to evaluate joint stability of the ankle involving the talo-fibular ligament
  • with patient sitting at edge of talbe, grip the calcaneus in the palm and pull the calcaneus forward while pushing tibia posterior. in normal ankle, there should be no movment
62
Q

Talar tilt test

A
  • patient sits with foot hanging
  • doc inverts the calcaneous

If the talus gaps or rocks in the ankle mortise, the ATF & calcaneofibular ligs are torn and the test is positive

63
Q

Kleiger Test

A
  • external rotation stress test
  • patient sitting. stabilize leg with one hand and hold foot at 90 degrees. apply passive external rotation stress to foot and ankle

pain or instability at deltoid ligament of interosseous membrane is a high ankle sprain

Ottowa Rules (age >18 yr): inability to bear weight after four steps or tenderness over posterior aspect of either malleolus

64
Q

Major components of the knee exam?

A
65
Q

characteristics of a fixed drug reaction

A

One or more sharply demarcated, erythematous lesion(s), sometimes with blisters.
Lesions reoccur in the same (fixed) location.
Lips, hands, legs, face, genitalia and oral mucosa.
Drugs: sulfonamides, cyclines, dipyrone, NASIDS, barbiturates and phenolphthalein.
Burning sensation.

66
Q

Renal function tests

A

Renal function test: BUN/Cr - high levels indicate kidney failure

  • pre-renal: BUN/Cr > 20
  • Renal and post-renal: BUN/Cr = 10-20
67
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase

A
68
Q

erythrocyte sedimentation rates

A

Can be caused by:

A; Rheumatoid Arthritis
B. Acute Myocardial Infarction
C. Colon Cancer
D. Tuberculosis

ESR: indicates the presence of an inflammatory process - associated with AI process, infectious process, neoplastic process

69
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Definition: Malignant mesecnhymal tumor in which cancerous cells produce bone matrix.

Most common primary malignant tumor of the bone.

Makes up 20% of all bone cancers.

75% of osteosarcomas occur in patients younger than 20 years old.

Smaller second peak in elderly d/t Paget’s disease, bone infarct and prior irradiation.

Associated with patients with previous retinoblastoma.

  • most common sites: distal femur, proximal tibia, hip and pelvis, proximal humerus, jaw

75% Classic
A. Osteoblastic
B. Chondroblastic
C. Fibroblastic

25% Variant
A. Clinical characteristics, post radiation, Paget’s disease
B. Morphologic characteristics
C. Location - periosteal

70
Q

high levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP)?

A

Paget’s disease, Osteoblastic bone tumors, liver disease, hyperparthyroidism (excess bone growth)

ALP: Enzyme that catalyzes hydrolysis of organic phosphate esters. (seen in bone growth)

71
Q

Ankle-Brachial Index

A

Normal

  • A resting ankle-brachial index of 0.9 to 1.3 less than 0.9 is normal and suggests no significant narrowing or blockage of blood flow.

Abnormal

  • A resting ankle-brachial index of less than 0.9 is abnormal. If the ABI is 0.41 to 0.9, there is mild to moderate peripheral arterial disease. If ABI is 0.4 or below, there is severe peripheral arterial disease.
72
Q

Allen’s Test

A

Have the patient open and close the fist several times quickly, then will hold it closed tightly. Apply firm pressure over the radial and ulnar arteries. Ask the patient to open the hand slowly. Release the pressure on one of the arteries and observe the return of pink coloration of the hand. Repeat the process to test the collateral artery supply.

* determines arterial insufficiency in the hand

73
Q

Postural Color Change Test

A

Tests for chronic peripheral arterial disease
With the patient lying on their back, elevate the affected extremity for at least 1 minute
If the color becomes pale, lower the extremity to watch for return of pinkness which should occur within 10 seconds

Common symptoms of PAD:

  • Pain
  • Coldness
  • Numbness
  • Hair loss (Chronic)
  • Color change (Chronic)
  • Loss of pulse
  • 3 P’s-Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness
74
Q

Acute Arterial Occlusion

A
  • Occlusion of the artery by embolus often a thromboembolus
  • Sudden onset of very severe extremity pain
  • Unilateral
  • Not aggravated by movement or position change

Associated sx: Cold, weak, numb distally
Physical findings: Extremity is pallid, cool and pulseless

5 P’s:

  • pain
  • paresthesia
  • paralysis
  • pallor
  • pulseless
75
Q

PAD

A

peripheral arterial disease

  • Chronic inadequate arterial flow
  • Intermittent claudication while walking, relived by rest
  • Associated symptoms: muscle fatigue, numbness, cold feet
  • Physical findings: decreased distal pulses, pallor on elevation, ulcers/gangrene
  • Ankle Brachial Index is the ratio of the dorsal pedis and brachial arterial pressures : An index of less than 0.9 indicates PAD.
76
Q

Venous Valve competency test

A

With patient supine, raise one leg as high off the table to 90 degrees and let the venous blood drain from the leg
Occlude the great saphenous vein with one hand in the inner thigh and then lower the leg and ask the patient to stand up
Watch for normal slow venous filling of the leg veins while maintaining pressure on the great saphenous vein from above
If rapid filling occurs during this time there is incompetent valves of the communicating veins.
After 20 seconds release the pressure on the great saphenous vein
If sudden venous distension occurs , it indicates rapid venous filling and incompetent valves of the great saphenous vein.

77
Q

DVT

A

Clot formation in one of the larger veins usually the leg

Virchow’s triad

  • Stasis
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Endothelial injury

Symptoms

  • Often painless, but may complain of discomfort secondary to swelling
  • Almost always unilateral
  • Not aggravated by movement, may be mild relief by non-weight bearing

Physical findings

  • Swelling
  • Pitting edema
  • Homan’s sign
  • Discoloration of the distal limb from venous congestion

Pulmonary Embolus: major complication of DVT: large clot breaks off the leg and travels to lungs, resulting in hypoxemia and necrosis of the lung

78
Q

Superficial Thrombophlebitis

A
  • Same mechanism as deep vein thrombophlebitis but in one of the smaller veins in the leg
  • Pain is a much more common complaint
  • Physical findings: may be redness and tenderness over the affected vein, usually much less swelling than with DVT
79
Q

Varicose Veins

A
  • Valves in veins of lower extremities become incompetent so that blood begins to pool in veins
  • Early the patient has few complaints and usually seeks care for cosmetic reasons. As the disease progresses, patients show signs of chronic venous insufficiency
  • Physical findings: engorged lower extremity veins very often the greater saphenous

Venous Disease: can be the result of DVT, Varicose veins and superficial thrombophlebitis, all causing venous valve damage from the high venous pressures

80
Q

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

A

Venous Disease: can be the result of DVT, Varicose veins and superficial thrombophlebitis, all causing venous valve damage from the high venous pressures

Risk factors

  • Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
  • Varicose veins or a family history of varicose veins
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Extended periods of standing or sitting
  • Age over 50

Symptoms

  • Diffuse ache in legs
  • Gradual onset over months
  • Aggravated by prolonged standing
  • Alleviated by elevation of the legs

Signs

  • Pitting edema
  • Rust colored skin with chronic disease
  • Thickened skin hair
  • Moist reddened ulcers
81
Q

Lymphedema

A
  • Lymph channel obstruction or damage
  • Gradual onset
  • Unilateral or bilateral depending on cause
  • Aggravated by pressure on lymphatics
  • Alleviated by elevation and pressure release
  • Examination: non-pitting edema, thickened skin, often no pigmentation change
82
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

Often palpable in children
More often palpable in cervical region in children
More often palpable in inguinal region in adults
More often palpable in cervical region in adult smokers
Characteristics to note:

  • Size
  • Tenderness
  • Firmness
  • Mobility
  • Borders

Benign Disease:

  • Less than 1 cm
  • Tender
  • May be firm but not hard
  • Freely movable
  • Discreet borders

Malignant Disease:

  • Greater than 1 cm
  • Non tender
  • Rock-hard
  • Fixed to surrounding tissue
  • Difficult to palpate borders
83
Q

Lymphangitis

A
  • Localized bacterial infection of lymphatics
  • Acute onset
  • Usually secondary to skin injury
  • Associated symptoms: pain and fever
  • Physical findings: Tender red streaks in the skin, tender and enlarged lymph nodes.
84
Q

Pitting vs. non-pitting edema

A

Pitting is usually fluid overload or a cardiac problem
Non pitting is usually a lymphatic problem

Grade 1 = 2 mm pit and resolves quickly
Grade 2 = 4 mm pit and resolves in less than 1 minute
Grade 3 = 6 mm pit lasts from 1-2 minutes
Grade 4 = 8 mm pit and lasts from 2- 5 minutes

85
Q

Cellulitis

A
  • Inflammation of the skin and/or subcutaneous tissues
  • Almost always a bacterial infection usually strep or staph
  • Acute onset
  • Usual presenting symptoms: pain, redness and warmth (dolor, rubor and calor)
  • Physical findings: well demarcated area that is exquisitely tender to palpation
  • Frequently accompanied by localized lymphadenopathy
86
Q

Erythema Nodosum

A
  • Inflammation of the skin of the shins,
  • Gradual onset over weeks and often associated various systemic infections or immune reactions, not a vascular disease
  • Recurrent and bilateral
  • No aggravating or alleviating factors
  • Associated symptoms: fatigue, joint pain, fever
  • Examination: Raised red inflammatory nodules commonly found in crops
87
Q

Cardinal Symptoms of Cardiovascular Disease

A

Chest pain or discomfort
Dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, wheezing
Palpitations, dizziness, syncope
Cough, hemoptysis
Fatigue, weakness
Pain in extremities with exertion (claudication)

88
Q

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide

A

BNP
Hormone secreted by myocytes in the ventricles d/t pressure overload and stretch.
Works as potent diuretic, natriuretic (Na excretion), vascular smooth muscle relaxer.
Sensitive marker for LV dysfunction, but not specific for a particular disease.
Can be used to follow response to therapy.

89
Q

Nystagmus, Strabismus, amblyopia

A

Involuntary rapid, rhythmic movement of eye in any direction

Strabismus: : Misalignment of eyes relative to each other. If untreated can cause amblyopia (visual loss) of one eye

90
Q

Cover Test

A
  • used to test for strabismus

Stare at one spot
Cover one eye
Holding gaze, cover other eye
If eye uncovered moves, some degree of strabismus exists

91
Q

Subconjunctival Hemmorrhage

A
  • hemmorhage in eye that stops at limbus. no pain
  • exopthalamos = wide eyes due to fat pad hypertrophy and hyperthryoidism
92
Q

Weber vs. Rinne test

A

Weber: tests lateralization

  • place above head, on medial scalp
  • may be normal in equal bilateral hearing loss
  • if lateralization occurs, use Rinne to further define the problem

Rinne: compares time of air vs. bone conduction, normally air is better: AC > BC

  • Conductive hearing loss: can hear bone better than air- sounds not reaching or being conducted through the middle ear bone apparatus
  • Sensorineural hearing loss: both bone and air conduction is poor

Sensorineural- If ear that sound lateralizes to/heard better can hear AC>BC - then it is the good ear. If ear that sound does not move to can hear AC>BC, then it is bad ear.

  • Inner ear disorder involves cochlear nerve and neuronal impulse transmission to the brain.
  • Causes include loud noise exposure (>85 db), inner ear infections, trauma, tumors, congenital and familial disorders, and aging

Conductive loss: if the ear that the sound lateralizes to can hear BC>AC, then it is the bad ear. If ear that can’t hear it as well hears AC>BC, then it is the good ear.

  • External or middle ear disorder impairs sound conduction to inner ear.
  • Causes include foreign body, otitis media, perforated eardrum, and otosclerosis of ossicles
93
Q

Nose and Sinus inspection

A

Inspection of :

  • Turbinates – use otoscope or nasal speculum to view middle and inferior turbinates (not superior)
  • Septum
  • Mucosa

Palpation of:

  • sinuses: frontal, maxillary, ethmoid
94
Q

What nerve evaluates auditory acuity? olfaction??? gag reflex? tongue protrusion?

A

hearing : CN VIII

olfaction: CN I

Gag reflex: CN IX, X

Tongue Protrusion: CN XII

95
Q

Transillumination of the Sinuses

A

Maxillary sinus: direct light downward from under the medial aspect of the eye. ask patient to open their mouht and observe the glow in the hard palate. … or can direct light from inside the mouth upward on the hard palate

frontal sinus: shine light upward from the medial aspect of the eyebrow, observing the glow above the eye

96
Q

Murmur grading

A

3: moderately loud

4: loud with palpable thrill

5: very loud with thrill may be heart with stethoscope off chest
6: very loud with thrill

97
Q

Jugular venous pressure (JVP)

A

Reflects right atrial pressure

JVP is highest point of jugular venous pulsations

Best estimated from right internal jugular vein
More direct anatomical channel to right atrium

Measuring JVP:

  • highest point of oscillation. extend ruler from sternal angle vertically. Add this number to 5 cm
  • If JVP > 9cm RA is abnormal

Elevated JVP is because of increased RA pressure.

abnormalities:

  • Prominent a wave-increased resistance to RA contraction
  • Tricuspid stenosis, 1st degree AV bock, SVT, junctional rhythms, pulm. HTN and pulm. stenosis
  • Absent a waves-in atrial fibrillation
  • Large v waves in tricuspid regurgitation
98
Q

hepatojugular reflex

A

apply firm pressure on liver - if jugular veins in neck distend for more than 8-10 seconds - indicates problem with atria and excessive fluid in RA

99
Q

What is diaphragm best for? bell?

A

Diaphragm
High pitched sounds of S1/S2, certain murmurs
Firm pressure

Bell
Low pitched sound of S3/S4, bruits/thrills, & certain murmurs
Lightly to skin

100
Q

Fremitus

A

Palpable vibrations transmitted through bronchopulmonary treet o chest wall when pt. speaks

Abnormalities

Inc. as vibration from larynx to chest in enhanced as when consolidation is present (ie. pneumonia)

Dec. or absent when vibration from larynx to chest surface impeded (ie. COPD, obstruction, pleural effusion or pneumothorax)

101
Q

Percussion notes? Tympany, hyperresonance, resonance, dullness, flatness???

A

Flatness: soft with high pitch, muscle (thigh)

Dullness: medium pitch and intensity (liver)

Resonance: Loud intensity, low pitch, long duration (normal lung)

Hyperresonance: High intensity and loud (abnormal)

Tympany: Loud intensity, high pitch (gastric bubble)

difference between dullness and resonance indicates where diaphragm is - normally 5-6 cm: abnormally high indicates pleural effusion or high diaphragm

102
Q

Normal lung sounds: vesicular? bronchovesicular? bronchial? tracheal?

A

Vesicular: heard more on inspiration: soft sound, low pitch: heard over most of lungs

Bronchovesicular: inspir = expir:intermediate pitch and intensity: heard over 1st/2nd ICS anterior and between scapulae

Bronchial: Expiration is loudest: loud intensity and high pitch: heard over manubrium

Tracheal: inspir = expir: very loud intensity, high pitch. heard over trachea

  • breath sounds are usually louder in lower posterior fields
  • Decreased breath sounds occur due to obstructive lung disease or muscle weakness
  • transmission is poor due to pleural effusion, pneumothorax and emphysema
103
Q

Stridor

A

Wheeze that is predominately or entirely in inspiration
Louder in neck than chest wall
Indicates partial obstruction of larynx or trachea

  • heard more in children
104
Q

Crackles/Rales

A

Discontinuous
Intermittent, nonmusical, & brief
Fine crackles-soft, high pitched, very brief (5-10msec)
Coarse crackles-somewhat louder, lower pitched, brief (20-30 msec)

ex. pneumonia, congestive heart failure, fibrosis

105
Q

Pleural Rub:

A
  • similar to crackles
  • but heard in end of inspiration, beginning of expiration

“creaking leather”

heard when pleural surfaces are inflamed or thickened

106
Q

Wheezes

A

musical sounds, mostly heard during expiration when airflow goes througha narrowed bronchi. All that whezes is not astham

Ex. Asthma, COPD, bronchitis

107
Q

Rhonchi:

A

lowered pitch; bubbly sounds heard in inspiration or expiration (due to air over fluid due to inflammation or airway secretions)

ex. secretions in the large airways

108
Q

Bronchophony, Egophony, Whispered pectoriloquy

A

-these three abnormalitiescan be found over a lung consolidation (pneumonia) or pleural effusion

Bronchophony: normally 99 is muffled and indistinct; abnormal is when 99 is heard louder, clear voice sounds

Egophony: “ee” heard as a muffled long E sound is normal. When “ee” is heard as “ay” (an E to A change) with a nasal quality it is abnormal

Whispered pectoriloquy: Whispered “99” or “1-2-3” heard faintly and not at all is normal. If is it heard clear and loud, it is abnormal