Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMHNP Prep > Random Facts > Flashcards

Random Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What meds should not be given with metoprolol and why

A

Paroxetine, fluoxetine, and Wellbutrin
Metabolized by same CYP450 enzyme; the antidepressants can increase the effects of metoprolol leading to SE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s susto & sx

A

Cultural syndrome (Spanish). Frightening/shocking event causes soul to leave body.

Symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, muscle pains, headache, diarrhea, unhappiness, troubled sleep, lack of motivation, and low self-esteem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Kava kava use and major SE

A

Anxiety & insomnia
Sedating and liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 antipsychotics & 1 antidepressant with QT prolongation

A

Ziprasidone, quetiapine, haldoperidol

Citalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Least sedating SSRIs

A

Prozac and lexapro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Medical med that increases risk SJS with lamictal

A

Tramodol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mood stabilizer and antipsychotics with least weight gain

A

Lamictal
Ziprasidone, abilify, Latuda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Least sedating antipsychotic

A

Abilify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Labs for gout and hepatitis

A

Uric acid, LFT, CBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Labs for antibiotics

A

CBC, RFT, LFT, electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Meds with risk agranulocytosis

A

Clozaril and carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Meds that decrease effectiveness of OCP

A

Topamax, phenytoin, and antiepileptics in general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Med with risk SJS in Asians and why

A

Carbamazepine due to HLAB-1502 allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lab values that indicate agranulocytosis/DC med (clozaril or carbamazepine)

A

ANC < 1000
WBC < 2000-3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What pre screening needed with clozaril

A

Cardiac due to risk cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Meds that decrease SI

A

Lithium
Clozaril in schizophrenia specifically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal Cr and BUN

BUN to creatinine ratio

A

Cr 0.5-1.2
BUN 10-20

Ratio between 10:1 and 20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Want to start lithium. BUN 4.5
And Cr 4.5. Which value more concerning?

A

Cr due to risk of lithium toxicity (if Cr is high, kidneys not functioning well causing it to build up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Impact sodium has on Lithium levels

A

Sodium 135-145
Low sodium means decreased lithium clearance and increased lithium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Meds that can increase lithium levels

A

NSAIDs, thiazides, ACEi and meds that decrease renal clearance like colchinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Main neurotransmitters in addiction

A

Dopamine and GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Two main lab findings in infection

A

Increased CRP and WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx for NMS

A

1 bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hallmark finding with MSE in schizophrenia

A

Impaired proverb interpretation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Med class that people with schizophrenia have lower tolerance to

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists (clonidine, Intuniv)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Brain changes schizophrenia

A

Enlarged ventricles
Everything else in PowerPoint showed decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How to switch from haldol PO to IM and ex

A

Multiply daily dose x20 but keep in mind can only administer 100mg IM at once

Ex: haldol 10mg PO daily total. 10x20= 200mg IM. Give 100mg IM then 5-14 days later give remaining 100mg IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long does someone have to have sx for schizophrenia dx

A

6 months

> 1 month but < 6 months= schizophreniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hallucination before falling asleep

A

HypnaGOgic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hallucination upon waking up

A

HypnoPOmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does failure/impairment of clock drawing test indicate

A

Right parietal lobe damage dysfunction with cognition and executive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the serial seven test for?

A

Concentration, attention, calculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Stereognostic exam

A

Test if patient can identify object by touch alone without seeing it. Assesses sensory pathways and processing, especially in the parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Phases of EMDR

A

Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a treatment method that consists of eight phases:

  1. History taking
    The therapist gathers the client’s history
  2. Preparation
    The therapist builds trust with the client and teaches them self-control techniques
  3. Assessment
    The therapist identifies and assesses the memory components of the image, cognition, affect, and body sensation
  4. Desensitization
    The therapist uses bilateral stimulation, such as eye movements, to help the client reprocess the memory
  5. Body scan
    The therapist asks the client to focus on the memory and any physical sensations they experience
  6. Installation
    The therapist helps the client strengthen a positive belief to replace a negative one
  7. Closure
    The therapist helps the client feel better at the end of each session
  8. Reevaluation
    The therapist examines the client’s progress and considers historical events, current incidents, and future events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Nightmares in children can be …..?

A

Genetic; assess family patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Neurotransmitters in ASD

A

Glutamate, GABA, serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Parallel play normal/abnormal

A

Normal age 1-3
Suspect ASD if after that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Subcortical versus cortical dementia

A

Subcortical think motor symptoms. HIV and Huntington’s.

Cortical think language and memory. Alzheimer’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of dementia?
Recurrent visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognitive impairment, decreased executive function

A

Lewy body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Picks disease- what is it & main characteristics?

A

Frontotemporal dementia
Personality, behavior, LANGUAGE (slurred speech) , social behaviors inappropriate, decreased empathy, aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Treatment of Parkinson’s disease, dementia

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
Donepezil and/or rivastigmine or galantamine

Antipsychotics not recommended a especially typical antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Structural and neurotransmitter changes in Alzheimer’s dementia

A

Cerebral atrophy, enlarged ventricles

Decrease acetylcholine and nor epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the components of the limbic system?

A

amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where is dopamine created in the brain?

A

Nucleus acumen and substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Rhomberg test

A

Test balance. Negative stay stable. Balance regulated in cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Trendelenburg test

A

Assess hip dysfunction. Positive equals weakness and hip abductor muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where is norepinephrine made in the brain

A

Locus ceruleus and medullary reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where is serotonin made in the brain?

A

Raphe nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where is acetylcholine made in the brain brain?

A

Nucleus of meynert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Highest risk factor for intellectual disability

A

Genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Humanistic therapy

A

Carl Rogers
Self directed and self actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Logotherapy

A

Type of existential therapy created by Victor Frankel. Focuses on the meaning of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a specific approach used in strategic therapy

A

Strategic therapy has problem, focused, and symptom focused. Paradoxical directive/intervention is used with caution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is something specifically used in solution focused therapy

A

Miracle questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Family systems therapy/Systemic Family Therapy

A

Created by Murray Bowen. Seeks to help self differentiation and decrease triangles. Uses genograms

56
Q

Structural family therapy approach

A

Clearly defined boundaries and hierarchy. Enactment = map, track and modify family structure.

57
Q

What is a normal behavior seen in Freud’s phallic stage of development (3-6 years old)

A

Normal to masturbate/play with genitals. It is self exploration.

58
Q

What lab to order if suspect rheumatoid arthritis?

A

ESR which will be increased

59
Q

What can a shrill/high-pitched cry indicate in an infant

A

Increased intracranial pressure

60
Q

Infant reflex of rooting timeframe

A

Starts at birth and disappears between 4 to 6 months

61
Q

Infant reflex grasp/Palmer timeframe

A

From birth to 5 to 6 months

62
Q

Infant reflex grasp/Palmer timeframe

A

From birth to 5 to 6 months

63
Q

Infant reflex landau reflex what is it and timeframe?

A

Superman response. Starts at three months and stops between 12 to 24 months.

64
Q

Infant reflex Moro/startle timeframe

A

From birth to 5 to 6 months

65
Q

Infant reflex, Babinski timeframe

A

From birth to two years old

66
Q

Why do women have an increased risk of liver issues due to drinking?

A

Decreased alcohol dehydrogenase which breaks down the alcohol. Also more prone to being drunk because of this.

67
Q

What is macrocytic normochromic anemia

A

Folic acid and B12 deficiency

68
Q

What is Habeas corpus law

A

Protects patient against unlawful hospitalization

69
Q

Signs of diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Nausea, vomiting
Abdominal pain
Excess thirst
Dyspnea/kussmaul breathing
Malaise
Excessive urination
Confusion
Elevated blood sugar levels
Fruit scented breath
High levels of ketones in the urine

70
Q

Should you discontinue a medication if the FDA releases a black box warning?

A

No, don’t automatically discontinue. Research the benefits/risks.

71
Q

What is essential if you use medication off label

A

Full disclosure of the benefits and risks in documentation is essential and you can include evidence as well

72
Q

MMSE scale

A

0-30 with lower numbers being severe dementia
10-20 moderate cognitive impairment

25-30 is NORMAL

73
Q

When can you initiate buprenorphine in opioid withdrawal?

A

When client is in moderate withdrawal 13+

(COWS 0-36)

74
Q

What do mobile lymph nodes mean?

A

Benign

75
Q

What do mobile lymph nodes mean?

A

Benign

76
Q

CRAFFT

A

Screening tool for children less than 21 years old for substance use
If score 2+ need to assess further

77
Q

CAGE

A

Screening tool for AUD
Cut, annoyed, guilty, eye-opener
If score 2+ need to assess further

78
Q

Signs of hypoglycemia

A

Looking pale (pallor)
Shakiness.
Dizziness or lightheadedness.
Sweating.
Hunger or nausea.
An irregular or fast heartbeat.
Difficulty concentrating.
Feeling weak and having no energy (fatigue)

79
Q

What cranial nerve tests facial movements, and how to test

A

Cranial nerve VII (7)

facial movement and expression, taste, and tear production

Raise eyebrows, smile, puff out cheeks, stick out tongue, taste test

80
Q

Alcohol versus Parkinson’s tremor

A

Alcohol causes bilateral and symmetrical essential tremor that alcohol relieves

Parkinson’s tremor starts on one side first and alcohol does not impact it

81
Q

What is the most comprehensive screening tool to diagnose alcohol use disorder

A

SBIRT

82
Q

What determines scope of practice?

A

State legislator statutes

83
Q

What determines standard of practice and why?

A

ANA TO JUDGE THE NATURE OF CARE

84
Q

Just culture

A

ANA
Support collaboration efforts among state boards of nursing, etc. Hold people accountable for their behaviors and investigates errors. Goal of creating open and learning environment to design safe systems and manage choices.

Mindset that affects work environment, proactively look for system, breakdowns, and identify ways to improve systems

85
Q

PDSA cycle

A

Process of quality improvement
P plan the change
D (do) carry out the plan
S Study the results
A act -decide what actions will improve the process

86
Q

What are four components of health policy?

A

Process, policy reform, policy environment, policy makers

87
Q

Caring theory

A

Gene Watson
Holistic and transpersonal, humanistic

88
Q

Tarasoff principal

A

Duty to warn potential victim of eminent danger of homicide. Doesn’t apply in every state.

89
Q

The Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act (MHPAEA)

A

insurance must provide some level of mental healthcare

90
Q

Donaldson versus O Connor

A

Ruling determined a mentally ill individual cannot be placed in a hospital against his will for the purpose of raising his standard of living

91
Q

Piaget pre-operational stage of development

A

Age 2-7
Magical thinking is normal

92
Q

Piaget formal operational stage of development

A

12 years old+
Abstract logic/reasoning

93
Q

Piaget formal operational stage of development

A

12 years old+
Abstract logic/reasoning

94
Q

How would a child in the pre-operational stage of development (age 2 to 7) understand illness

A

Likely attributes feelings to something more personal like in response to something they did wrong

95
Q

Meds FDA approved for TD

A

VMAT2 inhibitors: deutetrabenzene (Austedo) & valbenazine (Ingrezza)

96
Q

Antipsychotics most likely and least likely to cause galactorrhea

A

caused by elevated prolactin from decreased dopamine in tuberoinfundibular pathway

most likely= risperidone
least likely= quetiapine & aripiprazole

97
Q

What enzyme is clozapine metabolized by

A

CYP1A2

98
Q

What enzyme is nicotine metabolized by and is it an inducer or inhibitor?

A

CYP2A6
inducer (increases metabolism & will thus decrease med levels like antipsychotics)

99
Q

Concern with co-administration of Depakote & Lamictal & why?

A

SJS
depakote is CYP enzyme inhibitor which can cause increased levels of Lamictal

100
Q

Is carbamazepine (Tegretol) a CYP enzyme inhibitor or inducer?

A

inducer

101
Q

Antibiotics that are CYP enzyme inhibitors that can then lead to increased levels of other medications?

A

doxycycline, clarithromycin, erythromycin, & fluoroquinolones

102
Q

What would you be most concerned about if a CYP enzyme inducer is given with a CYP enzyme inhibitor?

A

inhibitor will take over the inducer thus leading to increased levels of the inducer risking toxicity/adverse effects

103
Q

What should you do if pt stable on Tegretol is prescribed doxycycline? Why?

A

decrease dose of Tegretol while taking the doxycycline

Tegretol is a CYP enzyme inducer but doxy is an inhibitor which can increase Tegretol levels and increase risk of adverse effects like SJS and agranulocytosis

104
Q

In order for sx to be considered mania, how long do they have to occur? how about hypomania?

A

mania= at least a week
hypomania= at least 4 days & are less severe

105
Q

main neurotransmitters in ADHD

A

*dopamine (low), *norepinephrine (low), serotonin

106
Q

areas of brain affected in adhd

A

frontal cortex
basal ganglia
abnormalities in reticular activating system
(prefrontal cortex= inattention)

107
Q

most comprehensive screening tool for ADHD

A

Connor’s parent & teacher rating scales

(Vanderbilt less comprehensive)

108
Q

how do alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists work

A

decrease the amount of norepinephrine released by stimulating alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in certain areas of brain which can enhance the signal strength of norepinephrine in the prefrontal cortex, ultimately improving attention and reducing hyperactivity symptoms associated with ADHD

It’s not about simply lowering norepinephrine overall, but rather modulating its activity in key areas of the brain that are crucial for cognitive function.

109
Q

acute stress disorder vs PTSD

A

acute stress= lasts days to 4 weeks
PTSD= sx for at least a month

110
Q

neurotransmitters in ocd

A

serotonin and norepinephrine

111
Q

main neurotransmitter in anxiety disorders

A

GABA

112
Q

court case that determined an individual isn’t criminally responsible if unlawful act was result of mental illness

A

Durham vs US

113
Q

court case that ruled harmless mentally ill pts cannot be confined against their will if they can survive outside

A

O’Connor vs Donaldson

114
Q

court case that determined pts have the right to refuse any treatment and use an appeal process

A

rennie vs klein

115
Q

Pearson’s r correlation

A

tests relationship btwn two variables

116
Q

t-test

A

whether the means of two groups are statistically significant

117
Q

p value

A

aka level of significance
probability of particular result occurring by chance alone

118
Q

analysis of variance “ANOVA”

A

tests the difference among 3+ groups

119
Q

FRAMES

A

FRAMES brief intervention in MI that’s non-confrontational and designed to motivate people to make positive changes.

Feedback: Provide information about the risks of continuing the behavior

Responsibility: Emphasize that the individual is responsible for making changes

Advice: Offer non-judgmental guidance on how to reduce or stop the behavior

Menu: Provide a range of strategies for change

Empathy: Show warmth, respect, and understanding

Self-efficacy: Encourage the individual to believe in their ability to succeed

120
Q

contraindication to beta blocker

A

asthma/albuterol bc can cause bronchospasms

121
Q

how to treat hyperactivity, impulsivity, inattentiveness in ASD

A

stimulants which work by increasing dopamine in certain areas of the brain

122
Q

early signs HIV dementia

A

cognitive decline, motor abnormalities, behavioral abnormalities

123
Q

huntington’s

A

onset usually age 30-45 but can occur anytime
subcorticol dementia
psychomotor slowing/motor abnormalities, difficulty with complex tasks, depression and psychosis common

kids have 50% chance of getting; can screen through no risk direct genetic test

124
Q

hypothalamus

A

limbic system

hunger, thirst, water balance, circadian rhythm, body temp, libido, hormonal regulation

125
Q

hippocampus

A

learning, memory, emotions, stress

126
Q

structural changes in severe mental illness

A

cortical thinning
decreased hippocampal volume

127
Q

signs of lead poisoning

A

Pica, weight loss, sluggishness, fatigue, loss of appetite, developmental delays, learning difficulties, irritability, vomiting, constipation, hearing loss

128
Q

what causes enmeshment and parentification in a family

A

unclear, diffuse boundaries
Structural Family Therapy focuses on these

129
Q

4 dimensions of recovery

A

health, home, purpose, and community

130
Q

Mature healthy defense mechanisms

A

altruism, sublimation, humor, and suppression

131
Q

What is a quality improvement initiative for a PMHNP? Ex?

A

Characterized by a focus on patient-centered care, evidence-based practices, data-driven decision making, collaboration with stakeholders, measurable outcomes, continuous monitoring, and a commitment to improving the quality of mental health care delivery

Reducing readmissions
Improving patient safety
Improving patient flow
Using data
Tailoring care

Ex pg 397 purple book
Engaging in quality improvement initiative: PMHNP asked to do retrospective chart review of all hospital DC clients who received f/u within 7 days of DC and within 30 days of DC.

132
Q

The central dialectical pattern emphasized in DBT involves the tension between:

A

Radical acceptance and change

133
Q

What defense mechanisms commonly used in obsessive compulsive personality disorder

A

Rationalization, isolation and intellectualization

134
Q

What part of the FRAMES model (which letter) is aimed at increasing motivation for change in client with SUD?

A

F
Feedback can help to increase awareness about SUD and its consequences to motivate for change

135
Q

What are the 4 P’s of suicide risk assessment?

A

past suicide attempts, a plan, probability of completing suicide, and preventive factors

136
Q

5 As of dementia

A

Aphasia- difficulty with word finding
Apathy
Agnosia - inability to recognize objects, smells, shapes
Apraxia-difficulty motor planning to perform tasks
Abstract thinking

PMHNP Prep (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions