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Random Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Artery Derivatives of 1st Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

Maxillary Artery (branch of external carotid)

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2
Q

Artery Derivatives of 6th Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A
  1. Proximal Part of Pulmonary Artery

2. Ductus Aretriosus (on the left side only)

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3
Q

Artery Derivatives of 3rd Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A
  1. Internal Carotid (proximal part)

2. Common Carotid Artery

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4
Q

Artery Derivatives of 4th Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A
  1. Aortic Arch

2. Right Subclavian Artery

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5
Q

Artery Derivatives of 2nd Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A
  1. Stapedial Artery

2. Hyoid Artery

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6
Q

Artery Derivatives of 5th Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

There is NO 5th arch in post natal life!!!

It disapppears prenatally

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7
Q

Germ Layer sources for Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A

Mesoderm (muscle and arteries)

Neural Crest Cells

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8
Q

Germ Layer sources for Pharyngeal (Branchial) Cleft

A

Ectoderm

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9
Q

Germ Layer sources for Pharyngeal (Branchial) Pouch

A

Endoderm

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10
Q

Branchial Cleft Derivatives

A

1: external auditory meatus

2-4: temporary cervical sinuses—->then obliterated by proliferation of 2nd arch mesenchyme

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11
Q

Nerve Supply of 3rd Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

CN 9

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12
Q

Nerve Supply of 4th Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

CN 10 (superior laryngeal branch)

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13
Q

Nerve Supply of 2nd Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A

CN 7

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14
Q

Nerve Supply of 6th Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

CN 10 (recurrent laryngeal nerve)

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15
Q

Nerve Supply of 1st Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

CN V2 and CNV3

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16
Q

Cartilage of 3rd Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

Greater horn of hyoid

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17
Q

Cartilage of 4th Pharyngeal (Brachial) Arch

A 
thyroid
cricoid
arytenoids
corniculate
cuneiform
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18
Q

Cartilage of 2nd Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

Reichert’s Cartilage:

  • stapes
  • styloid process
  • lesser horn of hyoid
  • stylohyoid ligament
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19
Q

Cartilage of 1st Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

Merkel’s Cartilage:

  • mandible
  • malleus
  • incus
  • spheno-mandibular ligament
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20
Q

Cartilage of 6th Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A 
thyroid
cricoid
arytenoids
corniculate
cuneiform
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21
Q

Muscle derivatives of 6th Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch

A

All intrinsic muscles of the larynx, EXCEPT cricothyroid

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22
Q

Muscle derivatives of 4th Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arc

A
  • Most pharyngeal constrictors
  • cricothyroid
  • levator veli palatini
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23
Q

Muscle derivatives of 1st Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arc

A

Muscles of Mastication:

  • temporalis
  • masetter
  • lateral and medial pterygoids
  • mylohyoid
  • anterior belly of digastric
  • tensor tympani
  • tensor veli palatini
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24
Q

Muscle derivatives of 3rd Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arc

A

StyloPHARYNGEUS (innervated by glossoPHARYNGEAL nerve )

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25
Q

Muscle derivatives of 2nd Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arc

A

Muscles of Facial Expression:

  • stapedius
  • stylohyoid
  • posterior belly of digastric
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26
Q

Abnormalities of 1st Pharyngeal Arch

A

Treacher-Collins Syndrome

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27
Q

Abnormalities of 3rd Pharyngeal Arch

A

Congenital Pharyngeocutaneous fistula

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28
Q

Derivatives of 3rd Branchial (PHARYNGEAL) pouch

A

Dorsal Wings: inferior parathyroids

Ventral Wings: Thymus

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29
Q

Derivatives of 2nd Branchial (PHARYNGEAL) pouch

A

Epithelial Lining of palantine tonsil

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30
Q

Derivatives of 4th Branchial (PHARYNGEAL) pouch

A

Dorsal WIngs: superior parathyroids

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31
Q

Derivatives of 1st Branchial (PHARYNGEAL) pouch

A
  • middle ear
  • eustachian tube
  • mastoid air cells
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32
Q

Causes of Di George Syndrome?

A
  • abberant dvt, of 3rd and 4th pouches…leading to
    a) T-cell deficiency (thymic aplasia)
    b) Hypocalcemia (failure of parathyroid development)
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33
Q

Characteristics of Childhood Brain Tumors: Pilocytic Astrocytoma:

A

Rosenthal Fibers(eosinophilic, corkscrew fibers). Also cystic and solid on gross inspection.

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34
Q

Characteristics of Childhood Brain Tumors: Medulloblastoma:

A

Homer-Wright Rosettes which look like small blue cells on histology. Also radio sensitive

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35
Q

Characteristics of Childhood Brain Tumors: Epyndioma:

A

Perivascular rosettes. Rod-Shaped blepharoplasts(basal ciliary bodies) found near nucleus

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36
Q

Characteristics of Childhood Brain Tumors: Hemangioblastoma

A

Foamy Cells and high vascularity.

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37
Q

Characteristics of Childhood Brain Tumors: Caniopharyngioma

A

Tooth-enamel-like calcification

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38
Q

Alzheimer’s Proteins and the corresponding chromosome numbers? Distinguish between early onset and late onset Alzheimer’s.

A

EARLY ONSET:
Amyeloid Precursor Protein—XSome #21
Presenilin-1—–XSome # 14
Presenilin-2—–XSome #1

LATE ONSET:
APOE4—-XSome #19

NB: APOE2 on XSome #19 is PROTECTIVE!!!!

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39
Q

Characteristics of Neurocutaneous Disorders?

Sturge-Weber Syndrome

A
  1. Congenital disorder with port-wine stains [Nevus Flammeus] typically in V1 opthalmic distribution
  2. ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas
  3. pheocyochromocytoma
  4. Can cause: a) Glaucoma
    b) Seizures
    c) Hemiparesis/Hemiplegia
    d) Mental Retardation

GENETICS: This occurs sporadically…no genetic component

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40
Q

Characteristics of Neurocutaneous Disorders?

Tuberous Sclerosis

A

MNEMONIC = H.A.M.A.R.T.O.M.A.S
1)Hamartomas in Skin and CNS

2) Adenoma Sebaceum (cutaneous angiofibromas)
3) Mitral Regugitation
4) Ash-leaf spots
5) cardiac Rhabdomyoma
6) Tuberous Sclerosis
7) Mental Retardation
8) renal Angiomyolipoma
9) Seizures

GENETICS: Autosomal Dominant

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41
Q

Characteristics of Neurocutaneous Disorders?

Neurofibromaosis type I (von Recklinghausen’s Disease)

A

1) Cafe-au-lait spots
2) Lisch Nodules (pigmented iris haramatoms)
3) neurofibromas in skin
4) optic gliomas
5) pheocytochromocytoma

GENETICS: Autosomal Dominant mutation in NF1 gene on Xsome #17—–100% penetrance, variable expression

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42
Q

Characteristics of Neurocutaneous Disorders?

von Hippel-Landau disease

A

Cavernous Hamangioms in

1) skin
2) mucosa
3) organs
4) bilateral renal cell carcinoma
5) hemangioblastoma in a) retina
b) brain stem
c) cerebellum

6) pheocytochromocytoma

GENETICS: Autosomal Dominant mutation in tumor suppressor VHL gene on XSome # 3

***ofetn produces EPO—>Polycythemia

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43
Q

Demyelinating and Dysmyelinating Diseases:

PML

  • cause?
  • structure damaged?
A

Caused by JC virus
-common in patients with HIV as part of secondary/latent infection

  • destruction of oligodendrocytes. leading to demyelination of CNS
  • progressive and fatal
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44
Q

Demyelinating and Dysmyelinating Diseases:

ACUTE DISSEMINATED (postinfectious) ENCEPHALOMYELITIS

  • cause?
  • structure damaged?
A
  • Caused by measles or VZV or certain vaccinations (rabies and smallpox)
  • multifocal perivenular inflammation and demyelination that occurs AFTER INFECTION
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45
Q

Demyelinating and Dysmyelinating Diseases:

METACHROMATIC LEUKODYSTROPHY

  • cause?
  • structure damaged?
A
  • Lysosomal storage disease (autosomal recessive)
  • Caused by deficiency in ARYL SULAFTASE A

-Lack of enzyme leads to accumulation of sulfatides and therefore, decreased production of myelin

46
Q

Demyelinating and Dysmyelinating Diseases:

CHARCOT-MARIE-TOOTH DISEASE

  • cause?
  • structure damaged?
A
  • caused by defective producton of proteins required in the structure+function of peripheral nerves and myelin
  • kids described as clumsy, damaged to deep peroneal nerve===>legs look like inverted bottle and they have abnormal proproception and vibratory sense
47
Q

Demyelinating and Dysmyelinating Diseases:

KRABBE’s DISEASE

  • cause?
  • structure damaged?
A
  • Lysosomal storage disease (autosomal recessive)
  • Caused by deficiency in GALACTOCEREBROSIDASE

-buildup of galactocerebroside destroys myelin sheath

48
Q

Most common causes of meningitis in Imunocompromised patients?

A

Cryptococcus Neoformans (forms monoformic yeast)…this is much more common than

Aspergillus (which forms septate hyphae)

49
Q

Diarrhea, wheeing, flushing, right-sided valvular disease, liver lesions and appendix lesions =?

How do you treat this condition?

A

CARCINOID SYNDROME!!!

—Treat with ocreotide, which inhibits hormone release and hormone-like substances

50
Q

Hormone which stimulates pancreatic duct bicarbonate secretion?

Where is this hormone produced?
Any other functions of the hormone?

A

SECRETIN produced by duodenal S-cells

also stimulates bile secretion and inhibits gastric acid secretion

51
Q

Hormone which stimulates exocrine pancrease enzyme secretion?

Where is this hormone produced?
Any other functions of the hormone?

A

CHOLECYSTOKININ produced by duodenal I-cells

  • stimulates gall bladder contraction
  • inhibits gastric emptiying
  • increases sphincter of Oddi relaxation
52
Q

Treatment of Wilson’s Disease?

-NAME 2

A

==penicillamine (antidote)

==Tri-entine

53
Q

Giemsa staining organisms

A

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsia, Trypanosomes,Plasmodium

54
Q

Which organisms grown on the following special cultures?

CHOCOLATE AGAR with Factor V and X:

THAYER-MARTIN or VPN MEDIA:

BORDET-GENGOU (potato) AGAR:

A

CHOCOLATE AGAR with Factor V and X:
hemophilus B

THAYER-MARTIN or VPN MEDIA:
Neisseria-both

BORDET-GENGOU (potato) AGAR:
bordetella pertussi

55
Q

Which organisms grown on the following special cultures?

TELLURITE AGAR, LOFFLER MEDIUM:

LOWENSTEIN-JENSEN AGAR:

EATON AGAR:

A

TELLURITE AGAR, LOFFLER MEDIUM:
C. diptheriae

LOWENSTEIN-JENSEN AGAR:
mycobacterium

EATON AGAR:
mycoplasma

56
Q

Which organisms grown on the following special cultures?

MacCONKEY AGAR:

CHARCOAL YEAT EXTRACT (buffered with cysteine and iron):

SABORAUD AGAR:

A

MacCONKEY AGAR:
-lactose fermenting enterics

CHARCOAL YEAST EXTRACT (buffered with cysteine and iron):
-legionella

SABORAUD AGAR:
-fungi

57
Q

This is the only Gram Positive bacteria with a polypeptide capsule formed by D-glutamate

A

Bacillus Anthracis

  • -Cause:
    1) cutaneous anthrax –black eschar
    2) pulmonary anthrax (wool sorter’s disease)
58
Q

Which bacteria form spores?

NB: autoclave at 121 deg for 15min to kill spores

A

Clostrodium and Bacillus (Cereus and Antracis)

At their core, spores contain DIPI-COLINIC acid. And spores are NOT metabolically active

59
Q

What is Cereulide?

A

Preformed toxin from B.Cereus

-Causes reheated rice syndrome

60
Q

This bacteria can cause spontaneous abortion and self-limited gastroenteritis

A

Listeria Monocytogenes!!
Facultative anaerobe hence causes granulomatosis infanticemia.

-the only GP bacterium that produces LPS
(hence causes septicemia and amnionitis.

But major diseases are 1) neonatal meningitis and 2) meningitis in immunocompromised

61
Q

This filamented bacteria causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts?

A

Actinomyces

62
Q

Yellow “sulfur granules” in abscesses

What is the treatment?

A

Actinomyces

rx= penicillin

63
Q

Where is Nocadia found?

-Which 2 diseases does it cause?

A

Transmission is exogenous (FROM SOIL!)

Causes:

1) pulm infections in immunocompromised
2) cutaneous infections after trauma in immunoCOMPETENT.

Rx= sulfonamides

64
Q

If this bacteria is left for a long time, it forms a molar tooth shape.

What is the treatment?

A

Actinomyces

Rx= Penicillin

65
Q

Treatment for tuberculoid hansen disease versus. lepramatous hansen disease?

A

tuberculoid LEPROSY:

  • dapsone
  • rifampine

lepramatous LEPROSY:

  • dapsone (also given to family members since leprosy is contagious)
  • rifampine
  • clofa-zimine
66
Q

This bacteria grows purple/black colonies with a green sheen on EMB agar.

A

E.Coli.

Otherwise= pink on MaConkey due to lactose fermentation via B-galactosidase

67
Q

This bacteria causes mucoid colonies due to abundant polysaccharide capsules.

A

Klebsiella!!

Hence the currant-jelly sputum

68
Q

Rose-spots on the abdomen, Fever, headache and diarrhea?

A

Salmonella Typhi-induced “ENTERIC FEVER”

Latency established in gall bladder

69
Q

Triple Therapy for H.Pylori?

A
  • PPI
  • Clarithromycin
  • Metronidazole or Amoxicillin
70
Q

Therapy for Pseudomonas?

A

1) Aminoglycoside +

2) Pip-Tazo (extended spectrum penicilin e.g. Piperacillin, Ticarcilin) or CEFEPIME (A 4th gen cephalosporin)

71
Q

Treatment for Syphillis?

A

Penicillin G

72
Q

Treatment for Lyme Disease

A

Doxycycline, Ceftriaxone

73
Q

VDRL gives false positves in?

-name 5

A
  • SLE
  • Viral e.g. EBV and Hepatitis
  • some Drugs
  • Rheumatic Fever
  • Leprosy
74
Q

This bacteria which cannot be seen on gram stain and cannot be cultured, lackes MURAMIC ACID in it’s cell wall.

A

Chlamydia!

Visible by cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa or fluorescent antibody.

75
Q

This hematologic protozoa causes malaria-like symptoms[headache, anemia, splenomegaly, fever] and HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA?

what is the treatment?

A

Babesia which causes babesiosis

Rx= is different from Lyme Disease (doxy); we use Atovaquone and Azithromycin

76
Q

Treatment for Toxoplasma Gondii?

A

Sulfadiazine and Pyrimethamine

77
Q

Treatment for life-threatening malaria?

A

IV Quinidine if life threathening

For ovale/vivax===add primaquine (afer testing for G6PD) to chloroquine

If resistant, use mefloquine or Atovaquine/Proguanil

78
Q

Treatment for Chagas disease?

A

Benznidazole or Nifurtimox

79
Q

Treatment for Visceral Leishmaniasis

A

Amphotericin B or Sodium Stibogluconate

80
Q

Treatment for Vaginitis due to Trichomonas Vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole

81
Q

This parasite shows amastigotes in macrophages?

A

Visceral Leishmaniasis caused by Leishmania Donovani

82
Q

These two organisms enter via the cribriform plate?

A
  • Naegleria Fowleri [protozoa penetrating the CNS]

- Mucor and Rhiopus [fungi in leukemic patients and ketotic diabetics]

83
Q

DNA viruses that are not linear?

A
  • Papilloma
  • Polyoma
  • Hepadnavirus (circular)
84
Q

+ ssRNA viruses?

A

-Retrovirus
-Picoma
-Calici
-Toga
-Flavi
-Corona
Hepevirus (causes HEV)

85
Q

Which worm or parasite causes Biliary tract disease and cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Clonorchis Sinensis (a liver fluke)…obtained from undercooked fish.

Rx= praziquantel

86
Q

Which worm or parasite causes portal hypertension?

A

Schistosoma Mansoni and
Schistosoma Japonia

both of which are flukes

Rx= praziquantel

87
Q

Most enveloped viruses aquire their envelope from the host cell membrane, except for one group?

Which one and where does it get it’s evelope from?

A

herpesviruses get their coats from the nuclear membrane

88
Q

Name 2 recombinant viral vaccines?

A
  • HBV (made from HBV surface antigen)

- HPV (6, 11, 16, and 18)

89
Q

What is the Tanck test used for?

A

Detection of HSV.

90
Q

Amino acids used in purine synthesis?

A

Glycine
Arginine
Glutamine

=”G.A.G”

91
Q

In prokaryotes, which DNA polymerase enzymes have 3’ –> 5’ exonuclease and which one has 5’ –> 3’ exonuclease activity?

A

DNA Pol III (main one)=====3’ –> 5

DNA Pol I (for lagging strand)==== 5’ –> 3’

92
Q

Where does mRNA quality control happen in the cytoplasm?

A

on P-bodies [contain exonucleases, decapping enzymes, and miRNA]

93
Q

anti-U1 RNP (splicing molecules) antibodies are expressed in which disease?

A

Mixed connnective tissue disease

94
Q

anti-snRNPs antibodies are expressed in which disease?

A

anti-snRNPs= anti-Smith :)))

SLE (highly specific)

95
Q

Cre-Lox system?

A

Inducibly manipulating genes at specific time developmental points, e.g. to study a gene whose deletion causes embryonic death.

96
Q

Mode of inheritance of the following two diseases:

–Hereditary Spherocytocis

–Ornithine Transcarbamylase

A

–Hereditary Spherocytocis= A.DOMINANT

–Ornithine Transcarbamylase = X-linked Recessive

97
Q

Myonecrosis and an increase in CPK and Aldolase are seen in which condition?

–Which lab tests confirm the diagnosis?

A

DMD!!! (frameshift—->in BMD= point mutation)

Confirm with Western Blot and Muscle biopsy

98
Q

DMPK gene mutation and CTG trinucleotide repeat?

-which disease

A

Mytotonic Dystophy Type I

muscle atrophy, hypotonia, testicular atrophy, arrythmia, cataracts, frontal balding

99
Q

X-linked disease with a mutation in the FMR1 gene?

A

Fragile X Syndrome

100
Q

4 diseases with trinucleotide repeats and may exhibit anticipation?

A

huntington= CAG
friedreich’s= GAA
fragile x = CGG
Mytotonic Dystrophy = CTG

101
Q

Defects in 3rd and 4th brachial pouches?

A

CATCH-22 deletion syndromes (Di George and Velocardiofacial Syndrome)

C=cardiac defects
A=abnormal facies
T=thymic aplasia
C=cleft palate
H=hyPOcalcemia
102
Q

Which 2 amino acids are purely ketogenic?

A

Leucine and Lysine

103
Q

Factors that activate PDH

A

exercise which increases

1) Ca2+
2) NAD+
3) ADP

104
Q

This inherited metabolic disorder can lead to E.Coli sepsis in neonates?

A

Classic Galactosemia

105
Q

Treatment for hyperamonia?

A
  • Lactulose (traps ammonium)
  • benzoate (bind a-acids and lead to excretion)
  • phenylbutyrate (bind a-acids and lead to excretion)
106
Q

Treatment of Vanc Resistant Enterococci?

A

Streptogramins (quinupristin and dalfopristin)

Linezolid

107
Q

Treatment of MRSA?

A
  • Daptomycin [depolarizes the cell membrane]
  • Ceftaroline [5the gen cephalosporin]
  • Vancomycin [binds D-ala-D-ala units]
  • Linezolid [causes serotonin syndrome]
  • Tigecycline
108
Q

Antimicrobial drugs to avoid in pregrancy?

–Name 9

A
  • Tetracyclines (discolored teeth and poor growth)
  • Aminoglycosides (Ototoxicity)
  • Fluoroquinolone (cartilage/bone/tendon damage)
  • Chloramphenicol (gray baby syndrome)
  • sulfonamides (kernicterus)
  • clarithromycin (embryotoxic)
  • Griseofulvin (teratogenic)
  • Ribavirin (severe teratogenicity)
  • Delavirdine and Efavirenz ()
109
Q

Decreased orexin in the lateral hypothalamus

A

Narcolepsy!!

110
Q

Treatment for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

111
Q

Treatment for Cluster Headache?

A

inhaled oxygen or SUMATRIPTAN

Q-bank (1 decks)

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