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PR3136 > Random Drugs stuff! > Flashcards

Random Drugs stuff! Flashcards

1
Q

MoA of Zolpidem and its use

A
  • Potentiate GABA-A at same site as BZD.

- Used to treat insomnia

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2
Q

Possible SEs of Pethidine

A
  • N-demethylated in the liver to norpethidine: Hallucinogenic, convulsant
  • Restlessness rather than sedation
  • Parasympatholytic: Dry mouth, blur vision
  • No miosis, less pasm of smooth muscle
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3
Q

Possible disease modifying effect of Selegiline

A

Delay nigral brain cell degeneration in PD

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4
Q

MoA of Pergolide, and one of its significant SE

A
  • Dopamine agonist for PD

- Restrictive valvular heart disease

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5
Q

Short term SEs of Levodopa

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Postural Hypotension
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6
Q

Describe the following for Nalmefene:

  • MoA
  • Dosage Route
  • Duration of Action
A
  • MoA: Opioid Antagonist
  • Dosage route: IV
  • Duration of Action: long-acting
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7
Q

A unique SE of morphine that is not observed in other opioids

A

Trigger histamine release:

  • Urticaria, itch
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Hypotension
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8
Q

MoA of Haloperidol

A

D2 antagonist

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9
Q

MoA of Fluphenazine and its usage

A

D2 antagonist. Used as antipsychotic

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10
Q

MoA of Trifluoperazine and its usage

A

D2 antagonist. Used as antipsychotic

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11
Q

Core MoA of Olanzapine

A

Serotonin-Dopamine antagonism

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12
Q

Significant SE of Carbamazepine

A

Aplastic Anemia

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13
Q

Unlike Fluoxetine, what is the SE that Citalopram has, and why is this so?

A
  • Citalopram can cause sedation

- Due to histamine receptor antagonism

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14
Q

Effect of BZD overdose, and drug that can reverse the effect.

A
  • Severe respiratory depression

- Antidote: Flumazenil

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15
Q

Drug that can treat sexual dysfunction caused by Venlafaxine

A

Cyproheptidine

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16
Q

Describe the selectivity of amisulpride. Hence what are its adverse effects?

A

Selectivity: D2/D3 receptors

Adverse effect: Increased prolactin secretion (blocked dopamine recetors in anterior pituitary gland:

  • Breast swell, pain, lactate
  • Males: Gynaecomastia
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17
Q

MoA of Pregabalin and its use. What SE is it associated with?

A
  • MoA: GABA analogue + Ca channel antagonist
  • Use: GAD, anticonvulsant
  • Associated with emergence of worsening of suicidal thoughts
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18
Q

MoA of Valproate

A
  • Block Na and Ca channels

- GABA transaminase inhibitor

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19
Q

How does Clozapine produce less EPS?

A

High D4 to D2 antagonism: Favour actions on prefrontal cortex over striatum

20
Q

MoA of Tolcapone

A

COMT inhibitor

21
Q

Bupivacaine is more _____ than most other LAs

A

Cardiotoxic

22
Q

Purpose of using Propanolol in GAD

A

Treat performance anxiety and social phobias

23
Q

MoA of Bupropion

A

NDRI (NA-Dopamine reuptake inhibitor)

24
Q

MoA of Buspirone. Onset of anxiolytic effect?

A
  • Serotonin 5-HT1A partial agonist
  • Dopamine receptor antagonist

Onset: 1-2 weeks

25
Q

What is O-toluidine? What is its effect? How to reverse?

A
  • Metabolite of Prilocaine
  • Causes MetHb
  • Reverse via IV methylene blue/ascorbic acid
26
Q

Which inhaled GA cannot be used in anaesthetic machines? Why?

A
  • Sevoflurane

- Degrades when exposed to CO2 absorbents in machines to a nephrotoxic metabolite

27
Q

Major concern of Clozapine

A

Clozapine-induced agranulocytosis

28
Q

SEs of Propofol. Hence what are its cautions in use?

A
  • Decrease BP, Negative inotropic – Hypotension

Caution in:

  • Elderly patients
  • CV dysfunctions
  • Hypovolemic patients
29
Q

MoA of Bupropion. What is it used for?

A

NDRI (norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor)

- Used as an antidepressant

30
Q

Why does Risperidone produce less EPS compared to typical antipsychotics?

A

High D2:D1 antagonism ratio

  • Reduces impact of antagonism in striatum
  • Actions by inhibiting negative feedback loop
31
Q

Possible adverse effects of reboxetine

A
  • Anticholinergic effects
  • Insomnia (increased NA in CNS)
  • Tachycardia (increased NA)
32
Q

SEs of Amantadine

A
  1. Cognitive impairment
  2. Livedo reticularis
  3. Hallucination
  4. Insomnia
  5. Nightmares
33
Q

Unlike other IV GAs, what is unique about ketamine?

A

Produces Dissociative anaesthesia

34
Q

Examples of D2 agonists that may cause fibrosis

A
  1. Bromocriptine
  2. Pergolide
    (these are ergot derivatives)
35
Q

What is the caution when using vecuronium as an NMJ blocker with anaesthetics

A

Barbiturates may precipitate when mixed with muscle relaxants
- Allow clearance from IV line prior to muscle relaxant injection

36
Q

What does procaine have a higher risk of causing allergic reactions compared to etidocaine?

A
  • Procaine is Ester LA
  • Hydrolysed to PABA derivatives
  • PABA derivatives may induce allergy
37
Q

Atypical Antipsychotics that exhibit better mood stabilisation and negative symptoms than typical antipsychotics

A
  1. Clozapine
  2. Olanzapine
  3. Risperidone
38
Q

MoA of phenytoin and its use

A

Blockade of voltage-dependent Na channels for epilepsy

39
Q

MoA of Aripiprazole and its use

A

D2 & D3 partial agonist, used as an antipsychotic

40
Q

What is Dexmedetomidine and what is it used for?

A

a2 adrenergic, used for sedation and analgesia as an anaesthetic adjunct

41
Q

The LA most often used for ENT procedures

A

Cocaine

42
Q

SEs that is especially evident for risperidone. What is the cause?

A
  • Postural hypotension
  • Reflex tachycardia

Cause: a1-adrenoceptor antagonism

43
Q

The only IV GA that has analgesic property

A

Ketamine

44
Q

The IV GA that does not cause post-operative nausea and vomiting

A

Propofol

45
Q

Example of Barbiturate used as Anticonvulsant

A

Phenobarbital

46
Q

Metabolite of Thiopentone. What is its AE and where is thiopentone metabolised at?

A
  • Metabolite: Pentobarbital
  • AE: Liver Cirrhosis
    Metabolised in the liver

PR3136 (18 decks)

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