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PSA Part II > Random Drug Facts > Flashcards

Random Drug Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only licensed drug for the treatment of uncomplicated genital chlamydial infection that can be administered as a single dose?

A

Azithromycin

1g orally when given as a single dose

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2
Q

What is the treatment of choice to treat a PE in a patient with normal renal function and no CV compromise

A

Dalteparin sodium

Dose depends on patient weight

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3
Q

What would you give as a fluid bolus?

A

500ml crystalloid (containing 130-154mmol/L of sodium)

Recommended over 15 minutes

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4
Q

What is the first choice antibiotic for a pregnant woman with a UTI?

A

Amoxicillin- 500mg oral tds

Nitrofurantoin 50mg qds is also safe in pregnancy until term

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5
Q

What are some causes of deranged LFTs?

A

Amiodarone

Simvastatin

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6
Q

What medications can cause GI bleeding?

A

NSAIDs- aspirin

Antiplatelets: clopidogrel

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7
Q

What medications can raise BP?

A

Glucocorticoids- e.g. prednisolone

Antidepressants e.g. serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors such as venlafaxine

NSAIDs: Through salt and water retention

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8
Q

What are some medications that may aggravate symptoms of Parkinsons?

A

Dopamine agonists e.g. prochlorperazine and antipsychotics

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9
Q

What medications can raise K+?

A

ACEI: e.g. ramipril

K-sparing diuretics: e.g. spironolactone

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10
Q

What medications should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Warfarin
Folate antagonists e.g. methotrexate
ACEI e.g. lisinopril: Adverse effects on fetal and neonatal BP, with some reports of fetal malformations.

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11
Q

What medications can cause constipation?

A

Opioids

Iron supplementation

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12
Q

After missing 3+ pills, what advice should you give a patient on a combined pill?

A

Additional contraception required until pills have been taken for 7 consecutive days

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13
Q

How would you manage a potential paracetamol OD in a child when there is uncertainty about the time of the OD?

A

Immediate acetylcysteine IV infusion

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14
Q

When is aciclovir indicated in the treatment of herpes zoster?

A

Within the first 72 hours after presenting with symptoms

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15
Q

How should you administer aciclovir in a patient with shingles who is not immunocompromised?

A

Oral treatment

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16
Q

What is the first line treatment of a patient with hypertension who is

A

ACEI

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17
Q

What should you warn patients about to receive an adenosine infusion about?

A

Effects unlikely to last more than 1-2 minutes
Requires ECG monitoring and resusc facilities due to risk of arrhythmias and AV block
Numerous heart SEs including angina, severe bradycardia or asystole

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18
Q

What do you need to warn a patient starting a gliclazide about?

A

Risk of hypos- must be aware and self-treat as required

Weight gain

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19
Q

What is an important side effect you must warn patients about before commencing carbimazole therapy?

A

Bone marrow suppression- agranulocytosis and neutropenia.

Warn must seek medical attention if any signs of infection e.g. sore throat, mouth ulcer, bruising or fever

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20
Q

What is the most likely side effect from nifedipine treatment?

A

Ankle oedema

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21
Q

What medications may cause hyperglycaemia?

A

Corticosteroids e.g. prednisolone

Antipsychotics e.g. clozapine, olanzipine, quetiapine

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22
Q

What medications are contraindicated with lithium?

A

Thiazide diuretics- increase serum lithium concentration

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23
Q

How should you manage a patient with a dry cough due to ACEI treatment?

A

Switch to an ARB e.g. losartan

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24
Q

What needs to be monitored when starting antipsychotic therapy?

A

FBC
Us&Es
LFTs

Annual monitoring

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25
Q

What additional monitoring needs to be carried out for clozapine?

A

Differential WCC- weekly for 18 weeks then fortnightly up to a year then monthly.

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26
Q

What should be monitored when starting an aminosalicylate?

A

Us&Es- before, at 3 months at annually on treatment

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27
Q

What can be monitored to provide an objective measure of blood loss?

A

FBC

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28
Q

What’s the most appropriate monitoring option to guide adjustment of insulin infusion during the first 24 hours post DKA?

A

Capillary blood glucose

29
Q

What does “linear kinetics” mean?

A

Any change in dosage will lead to a proportionate change in serum concentration

30
Q

What are some medications that have linear kinetics?

A

Digoxin

31
Q

How would you manage hypercalcaemia due to dehydration?

A

Rehydrate the patient- IV sodium chloride 0.9%

32
Q

What medications should be stopped without replacement preop?

A

OCP
Antiplatelets
Anticoagulants

33
Q

What medications should be stopped and supplemented with other medications pre-op?

A

Anti-DM, insulin- replace with sliding scale

34
Q

What is the treatment dose of aspirin? How long is it given for?

A

300mg- 2 weeks post stroke/MI (75mg thereafter)

35
Q

Which NSAID doesn’t cause renal failure?

A

Aspirin

36
Q

What medications predispose to gastric ulceration?

A

NSAIDs

Oral steroids

37
Q

What drugs should you avoid changing pre-op?

A

Beta blockers

CCB

38
Q

When should lithium be stopped preop?

A

Day before surgery

39
Q

What are common causes of ARF?

A

Ibuprofen

40
Q

What drugs can significantly reduce lithium excretion

A

NSAIDs
ACEI
(Thiazide) diuretics

41
Q

What drugs should not be abruptly stopped?

A 
Anti-Epileptics 
Beta blockers, CCBs
Baclofen
Antidepressants
Steroids
42
Q

What is the first line pharmacological management of a patient with kidney disease and T2DM?

A

Sulphonylureas e.g. gliclazide

43
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol?

A

4g

44
Q

When are pro kinetic antiemetics e.g. metoclopramide CI?

A

Bowel obstruction

45
Q

When are 5HT3 antiemetics most useful?

A

Chemically-induced nausea

46
Q

When is haloperidol best used as an antiemetic?

A

Palliative care

47
Q

What are the effects of steroids?

A

Gastric ulceration (oral)
Osteoporosis- give Ca ± bisphosphonates
DM
Hypertension

48
Q

What drugs should not be prescribed with methotrexate?

A

Folate antagonists e.g. trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole

49
Q

What dietary restrictions are in place while a patient is on steroids?

A

Grapefruit juice

50
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in patients prescribed simvastatin?

A

Clarithromycin

51
Q

When is methotrexate contraindicated?

A

Active infection

Pregnancy

52
Q

What are the sick day rules for steroids?

A

Doubled to meet physiological standards

53
Q

What medications are given for immediate relief of dyspepsia?

A

Magnesium carbonate, magnesium trisilicate,

54
Q

What medications must have a stop/review date?

A

Antibiotics

55
Q

What are the contraindications to stimulant laxative use?

A

Colitis

Cramps

56
Q

What are examples of stimulant laxatives?

A

Senna, bisocodyl, sodium picosulfate (latter used for bowlel prep)

57
Q

What are the best laxatives to prescribe in a patient requiring immediate (quick) relief from constipation?

A

Stimulant laxatives

58
Q

What are contraindications to osmotic laxatives?

A

Bloating

59
Q

What are examples of osmotic laxatives?

A

Lactulose

60
Q

When should you give stimulant laxatives?

A

At night

61
Q

What are the typical SEs of tramadol?

A

Agitation/hallucinations

62
Q

What is the correct way to test tacrolimus level?

A

Trough doses before morning or evening dose

63
Q

What is the best measure of serum response in DKA?

A

Serum ketones

64
Q

What should trough levels of vancomycin be?

A

10-15mg/l

65
Q

What are documented SEs of CCBs?

A

Ankle oedema

Facial flushing

66
Q

What are the SEs of antimuscarinics?

A

Urinary retention, constipation, blurred vision, dried mouth, GI disturbance

67
Q

What is an e.g. of an anti-muscarinic?

A

Cyclizine NB CI in HF

68
Q

How should you manage a patient with a raised INR who is bleeding?

A

Vit K by slow IV injection

PSA Part II (3 decks)

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