RANDOM C3, BAT, STREP, AUTOIMMUNE, CRP, IM Flashcards

1
Q

What is agglutination?

A

A serologic reaction where particulate antigens form clumps in response to antibodies.

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2
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect agglutination?

A

Direct uses a known antiserum to identify unknown antigens, while indirect detects antibodies using known antigens.

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3
Q

What is complement fixation used for?

A

Detecting antigen-specific antibodies.

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4
Q

What are the two components of complement fixation?

A

The first is the patient’s serum exposed to a known antigen and complement; the second is the indicator system using sheep RBCs and anti-sheep antibodies.

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5
Q

What indicates a positive complement fixation test?

A

The absence of red cell lysis, meaning all complement was fixed by antigen-antibody complexes.

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6
Q

What indicates a negative complement fixation test?

A

The presence of hemolysis, meaning complement was not fixed.

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7
Q

What is the principle of passive agglutination?

A

Known antigens are coated onto inert particles like latex beads to detect specific antibodies.

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8
Q

What is reverse passive agglutination?

A

The antibody is attached to carrier particles instead of the antigen.

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9
Q

What is agglutination inhibition?

A

A highly sensitive reaction used for detecting small amounts of antigens.

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10
Q

What are common clinical applications of agglutination tests?

A

Diagnosis of infections such as typhoid fever, syphilis, and streptococcal diseases.

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11
Q

What bacterial infections are commonly diagnosed using febrile agglutination tests?

A

Typhoid fever, typhus fever, brucellosis, and tularemia.

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12
Q

What principle does the Widal test use?

A

Direct agglutination of Salmonella ‘O’ and ‘H’ antigens with patient serum.

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13
Q

What specimen is used for the Widal test?

A

Blood, urine, and stool samples.

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14
Q

What are the interpretations of the Widal test based on agglutination levels?

A

1+ (25% agglutination), 2+ (50%), 3+ (75%), 4+ (100%).

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15
Q

What is the Weil-Felix test used for?

A

Diagnosis of rickettsial infections using Proteus OX antigen cross-reactivity.

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16
Q

What diseases are diagnosed with the Weil-Felix test?

A

Epidemic typhus, scrub typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

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17
Q

What is the Brucella agglutination test used for?

A

Diagnosis of brucellosis, a zoonotic infection.

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18
Q

What specimen is used for the Brucella test?

A

Serum.

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19
Q

What serologic tests are used for diagnosing syphilis?

A

VDRL, RPR, TPHA, and FTA-ABS.

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20
Q

What antigen does the VDRL test use?

A

Cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin suspension.

21
Q

What is the principle of the VDRL test?

A

Microscopic flocculation.

22
Q

What indicates a positive VDRL test?

A

The presence of floccules under low power magnification.

23
Q

What is the RPR test?

A

A rapid plasma reagin test using carbon-coated cardiolipin antigen.

24
Q

What is the principle of the RPR test?

A

Macroscopic flocculation.

25
Q

What is the TPHA test used for?

A

Treponema pallidum hemagglutination test for detecting syphilis antibodies.

26
Q

What specimen is used for the TPHA test?

A

Unheated serum samples.

27
Q

What is the principle of the TPHA test?

A

Indirect hemagglutination.

28
Q

What test is used for confirming syphilis diagnosis?

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS) test.

29
Q

What are serologic tests used for diagnosing streptococcal diseases?

A

ASO, Streptozyme, and DNase B tests.

30
Q

What is the ASO titer test used for?

A

Detecting anti-streptolysin O antibodies.

31
Q

What is the principle of the ASO test?

A

Neutralization reaction.

32
Q

What does a high ASO titer indicate?

A

A recent streptococcal infection.

33
Q

What is the normal ASO titer range?

A

0-125 IU/mL.

34
Q

What is the principle of the ASO latex slide test?

A

Passive agglutination.

35
Q

What is the Streptozyme test used for?

A

Screening for multiple streptococcal antibodies.

36
Q

What is the principle of the Streptozyme test?

A

Passive hemagglutination.

37
Q

What is rheumatoid factor (RF)?

A

An autoantibody against the Fc portion of IgG.

38
Q

What is the RF test used for?

A

Diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis.

39
Q

What is the principle of the RF latex slide test?

A

Latex agglutination.

40
Q

What is C-reactive protein (CRP)?

A

An acute-phase reactant associated with inflammation.

41
Q

What is the principle of the CRP slide test?

A

Latex agglutination.

42
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis (IM)?

A

A self-limiting disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus.

43
Q

What test is used for IM diagnosis?

A

Paul-Bunnell test or rapid slide test.

44
Q

What is the principle of the Paul-Bunnell test?

A

Heterophile antibody agglutination using sheep RBCs.

45
Q

What is the heterophile antibody titer cutoff for IM diagnosis?

A

1:56 or higher.

46
Q

What is the Davidsohn differential test used for?

A

Differentiating heterophile antibodies in IM from other conditions.

47
Q

What are the characteristic cells in IM blood smear?

A

Downey cells (atypical lymphocytes).

48
Q

What is the sensitivity of heterophile antibody tests in IM?

A

90-95% after the first week of infection.