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1
Q

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a term used when the unexpected death of an infant under 1 year of age:

A

cannot be explained after a complete autopsy

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2
Q

Erb palsy involves injury to what part of the spinal cord?

A

C5 and C6

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3
Q 
A 6-mon-old child has burns to his head, face, neck and anterior chest. what percentage of his body surface area has been burned
A. 21
B. 27
C. 36
D. 45
A

36%

head, face, neck = 18

anterior chest = 18

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4
Q 
A sudden onset of discomfort in the throat, severe dysphagia, and vomiting bright red blood are most indicative of:
A. malignancy in the esophagus
B. gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. hemorrhage from a peptic ulcer
D. ruptured esophageal varices
A

D

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5
Q 
Symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) may include
A. incomplete bladder emptying
B. abnormally strong urine flow
C. fever, tremors and weakness
D. decreased urination at night
A

A

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6
Q

What is the parietal peritoneum?
A. the inner lining of the large intestine
B. The lining that covers the abdominal organs
C. The bag that contains abdominal organs
D. The space behind the anterior abdomen

A

C

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7
Q

The MOST common signs and symptoms of colorectal cancer are:
A. constipation dull lower back pain and sharp epigastric pain
B. abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and changes in bowel habits
C. repetitive hard bowel movements, vomiting, and pelvic pain
D. weight loss vomiting and pain to the right lower quadrant

A

B

colorectal cancer = bowel cancer, colon cancer, or rectal cancer, is any cancer that affects the colon and the rectum

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8
Q 
which of the following is an ECG change that would MOST likely be observed in a patient with tricyclic antidepressant toxicity?
A. Shortened PR interval
B. High grade AV block
C. Terminal R wave in aVR
D. Shortened QT interval
A

C

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9
Q 
A dehydrated patient who is hemodynamically stable should receive
A. a single isotonic fluid bolus of 1 L
B. a dextrose solution at 250 mL/hr
C. a hypotonic solution at 125 mL/hr
D. multiple isotonic fluid boluses
A

C

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10
Q 
What is the target blood pressure for an adult patient with increased intracranial pressure
A, 80 to 90 mmHg
B. 130to 140 mmHg
C. 90 to 100
D. 110 to 120
A

D

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11
Q 
which of the following medications should be given with caution in patients who are taking blood thinners?
A. Nubain
B. Toradol
C. Fentanyl
D. Demerol
A

B

Nubain = Partial opioid agonist
Toradol = treats pain, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Ketorolac works by reducing hormones that cause inflammation and pain in the body
Demerol = Opioid
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12
Q 
A 55-year-old male who is currently receiving radiation therapy for cancer complains of dyspepsia and upper abdominal pain. He tells you that the pain worsens when he lies supine. What should you suspect?
A. Esophagitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C.  A tracheal fistula
D. Hiatal hernia
A

A

laying down increases blood pressure around esophagus/trachea to an already swollen esophagus

hiatal hernia = A condition in which part of the stomach pushes up through the diaphragm muscle. cant be this because it wouldn’t effect his breathing

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13
Q 
Which of the following drugs would most likely be the safest to use for a patient with aggressive and dangerous behavior secondary to methamphetamine use?
A. Droperidol
B. Haldol
C. Ativan
D. Ziprasidone
A

C

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14
Q 
anaphylaxis is classified as a response mediated by \_\_\_ antibodies
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgA
D. IgG
A

B. IgE = E for emergency

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15
Q 
What is the Most common cardiac disorder associated with lupus?
A. Endocarditis
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Valvular heart disease
D. Pericarditis
A

D

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16
Q 
while assessing a patient, you ask the patient's wife, "ma'am, has your husband ever been hospitalized?" the patient then states,  "ma'am, has your husband ever been hospitalized?" This is an example of
A. confabulation 
B. echolalia
C. circumstantial thinking 
D. a neologism
A

B

echolalia aka ECHOlalia

17
Q

which of the following is considered the major contributing factor to fatalities in anaphylactic shock
A. Failure to administer an antihistamine
B. Failure to recognize signs of shock
C. Delayed epinephrine administration
D. inadequate delivery of IV fluids

A

C

18
Q

For which of the following reasons would a corticosteroid be administered to a patient who is experiencing an allergic reaction?
A. To cause vasoconstriction and improve the patient’s blood pressure
B. To cause bronchodilation and restore adequate breathing
C. To block H1 receptors and terminate the allergic reaction
D. Prevention of idiopathic reactions or recurrent anaphylaxis

A

B

19
Q 
Which medical condition is associated with an increased risk of death following administration of an antipsychotic medication?
A. Lung disease
B. Hypertension
C. Seizures
D. Dementia
A

D

20
Q 
following the administration of haloperidol, your patient's body becomes rigid and he is extremely restless. What should you suspect?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Extrapyramidal reaction
C. Drug-induced catatonia
D. Long QT syndrome
A

B

extrapyramidal reaction = also called drug-induced movement disorders, describe the side effects caused by certain antipsychotic and other drugs

21
Q

which of the following is consistent with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
A. glucose @ 500, pH @ 7.20 ketones absent
B. glucose @ 340, pH @ 7.29 ketones present
C. glucose @ 612, pH @ 7.39 ketones absent
D. glucose @ 420, pH @ 7.25 ketones present

A

C

hyperosmolar hyperglycemic =
612bgl because blood is super thick with already-hyperglycemic contents
7.39 because ketones are not present and the blood is alkalotic
ketones absent

22
Q 
Clinical characteristics of syndrome of inappropriate antidiurteic hormone (SIADH) include:
A. dehydration
B. decreased ADH levels 
C. systemic fluid overload
D. Polyuria
A

C

23
Q 
The majority of the circulating white blood cells are:
A. neutrophil
B. lymphocyte
C. leukocyte
D. eosinophil
A

A

24
Q 
A 29-year-old female was diagnosed with cystitis, but never had her antibiotic prescriptioni filled. She presents today with fever, chills, and vomiting. What should you suspect?
A. Bacterial vaginitis
B. Ruptured ovarian cyst
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Pyelonephritis
A

D

Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder. Inflammation is where part of your body becomes irritated, red, or swollen. In most cases, the cause of cystitis is a urinary tract infection (UTI)

pyelonephritis is a type of urinary tract infection (UTI) that generally begins in your urethra or bladder and travels to one or both of your kidneys

25
Q

A young female experienced trauma to her genitalia and has profuse vaginal bleeding. She is hypotensive, tachycardic, and tachypneic. You Should:
A. perform a quick internal exam to locate the bleeding
B. place a trauma dressing into her vagina
C. transport immediately
D. administer an analgesic

A

C

A wastes too much times
B is too intrusive and hardly fixes the problem
D will cause hypotension

26
Q 
When caring for a woman with an incomplete abortion, you should be MOST concerned with:
A. the risk of airway compromise
B. maternal emotional trauma
C. bleeding and shock
D. severe maternal infection
A

C

27
Q 
Rubella is characterized by:
A. visual disturbances
B. enlarged lymph nodes
C. an isolated facial rash
D. abdominal discomfort
A

B

Rubella = contagious viral infection best known by its distinctive red rash. It’s also called German measles or three-day measles. While this infection may cause mild symptoms or even no symptoms in most people, it can cause serious problems for unborn babies whose mothers become infected during pregnancy

28
Q 
A woman is diagnosed with a prolapsed uterus. Her cervix has dropped, but remains within the vagina. This is a \_\_\_ degree prolapse.
A. third
B. first
C. fourth
D. second
A

B

First degree: The cervix drops into the vagina.
Second degree: The cervix drops to the level just inside the opening of the vagina.
Third degree: The cervix is outside the vagina.
Fourth degree: The entire uterus is outside the vagina.

29
Q 
The typical incubation period for the Ebola virus is:
A. 6-32 days
B. 2-21 days
C. 8-40 days
D. 4-28 days
A

B

30
Q 
The initial drug of choice for a pregnant patient who is experiencing seizures is: 
A. oxytocin
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Ativan
D. Valium
A

B

31
Q 
An obese 30-year-old female had two children within an 18-month time span. She presents with a feeling of "heaviness" in her pelvis and lower back pain. She states that the symptoms resolve slightly when she lies down. What should you suspect?
A. Endometritis
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Endometriosis
D. Uterine prolapse
A

D

Her uterine is damaged from the previous pregnancies’
sitting down relieves the pressure on the uterine

32
Q 
Zika virus presents the MOST significant risk to individuals who:
A. live in the US
B. have diabetes
C. are pregnant
D. are not ambulatory
A

C

33
Q

adenosine may be considered for a hemodynamically stable child with a wide complex tachycardia if:
A. the child has a history of congenital heart disease
B. the vent rhythm is regular and monomorphic
C. the QRS complex is less than .12 seconds
D. the heart rate is over 180 bpm

A

B

If it’s not monomorphic it’s torsades and that’s a different animal

34
Q 
ventilating a child too fast with a bag-mask device may cause:
A. decreased preload
B. cerebral vasodilation
C. severe hypercarbia
D reflex hypertension
A

A. decreased preload

35
Q 
All of the following are antepartum risk factors that increase the potential that a newborn may require resuscitation EXCEPT:
A. polyhydramnios
B. preeclampsia
C. prolapsed cord
D. multiple gestations
A

C

36
Q 
The first-line treatment of pediatric patients in distributive shock is:
A. continuous positive airway pressure
B. drug-assisted intubation
C. Volume resuscitation
D. a vasopressor infusion
A

C

think trauma

37
Q 
To assess a newborn's preductal exygen saturation, you should place the pulse ox probe on the:
A. left hand
B. right hand
C. right foot
D. Left foot
A

B

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