random Flashcards

1
Q

Patient with hypercalcaemia + high PTH with normal U&E’s

Is it primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism and why

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Why?
Primary is characterised by both elevated PTH and hypercalcaemia (due to abnormally active parathyroid glands e.g. adenoma)

Whereas secondary is characterised by high PTH and hypocalcaemia ( it is because of low calcium that there is a reactive overproduction of PTH)

Normal u+ e excludes tertiary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient presenting with painful stiff shoulder with restriction of active and passive range of motion in abdication, internal and external rotation**

A

Adhesive capulitis aka frozen shoulder

  • pts will complain of difficulty dressing / doing up bra + difficulty sleeping on the affected side
  • common in middle aged females
  • episodes can last 6months to 2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management of adhesive capulitis

A

NSAIDs / physiotherapy ,

Oral corticosteroid / infra-articular corticosteroids

*no single intervention exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patient presents with

Pins and needles in thumb, index and middle finger
May need to shake hand to obtains relief

Signs: weakness of thumb abduction, Tinels sign

?

A

Carpel tunnel syndrome I.e compression of median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment of carpel tunnel syndrome

A

Wrist splints at night

Corticosteroid injection

*consider surgical decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patient presents with feeling of becoming incontinent

No dysuria or frequency but commonly leaks when she coughs or laughs

Initial management?
+ investigations

A

Pelvic floor muscle training

  • this is known as stress incontinence

RF: advancing age, previous pregnancy/childbirth, high bmi + fhx

Investigations:

1) bladder diary for min 3 days
2) urine dip and culture for infection
3) vaginal exam to exclude pelvic organ prolaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Initial management for urgen incontinence

A

Bladder retraining

  • trains you to hold more urine for longer periods of time
  • lasts for a minimum 6 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

55 yo man started fitting around 5 mins ago
Admitted for ACS
PMH: tonic clinic epilepsy which is generally well controlled

Says normal but pulse 97 - has iv access in situ

Next step? And what is it

A

Give IV LORAZEPAM

patient has status epilepticus

  • medical emergency
  • priority is to terminal seizure as it can lead to irreversible brain damage

If ineffective after 10 mins
2nd line: (phenytoin or sodium val)

If ineffective after 30 mins
3rd line: (general anaesthesia )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CSF flows from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle via ?

A

Aqueduct of sylvuis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patient 53 YO complains of cough after starting lisinopril? what would you change her meds to?

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker (ARB) e.g. Losartan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following site do TB commonly reactivate in?

  1. Apex of lung
  2. Base of Lung
A

Apex of lung

why? site is better oxygenated than elsewhere allowing the mycobacteria to multiply more rapidly and then spread both locally and distantly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mechanism of resistance of penicillins by E.coli?

A

It produces beta-lactamase which cleaves the beta-lactam ring of the antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Presentation of bacterial vaginosis

A

Need 3/4
1 ) Grey discharge with a fishy odour (asymptomatic in 50% of patients)
2) Vaginal pH > 4.5 (raised vaginal pH) - urine dip
3) Clue cells on microscopy
4) Positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)

Extra

  • almost exclusively seen in sexually active women
  • Management: oral metronidazole for 5-7 days (has > 50% chance of coming back
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common cause of AKI (in someone fallen + remained laying for on floor all night)

A

Rhabdomyolysis
* Damaged muscles release myoglobin which is nephrotoxic and causes renal ischaemia, the pathology of acute tubular necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What stimulates platelet production

A

Thrombopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mallory weiss tear commonly occurs after …

A

severe bouts of vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Safest blood group for transfusion if unable to cross match a patient

A

Type O (universal donor)

*has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptoms of hypocalcemia

A
  1. tingling of lips
  2. convulsions
  3. tentany (intermittent muscular spasms)
  4. Cramps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of action of Aspirin

A

it suppresses production of thromboxane A2 and prostaglandin (cox -1/2 inhibitor)
> reduces the ability of platelets to aggregate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mechanism of action of clopidogrel

A

Inhibits ADP receptors on platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute phase response includes

A
Acute phase proteins (ESR/CRP)
Reduction of transport proteins (albumin, transferrin)
Hepatic sequestration cations
Pyrexia
Neutrophil leucocytosis
Increased muscle proteolysis
Changes in vascular permeability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A middle-aged man presents with unilateral facial weakness and asymmetry, and ptosis. The doctor suspects either Bell’s palsy or an upper motor lesion. Upon clinical investigation, which of the following would be the most indicative of Bell’s palsy?

  1. postive fhx
  2. loss of tast in anterior 2/3 of tongue, ear pain and hyperacusis (heightened sensitivity to certain sounds)
  3. loss of taste in posterior 2/3 tongue, ear pain and deafness
A

2* due to damage to the facial nerve
Features include
1) Lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy - forehead affected*
2) Patients may also notice post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis), altered taste (anterior 2/3rds of tongue), dry eyes, hyperacusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Erythromycin MOA

A

Targets protein synthesis in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-Pancreatography ?

A

Type of x-ray and camera examination that enables your doctor to examine and/or treat conditions of the biliary system (liver, gall bladder, pancreas, pancreatic and bile ducts)

  • enters from mouth
  • can insert stent or remove stones
  • Used to investigate jaundice/ stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clinical features of Cholangitis

A

Charcots triad: Fever, RUQ pain and jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 57-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with an acute onset back pain, causing sharp shooting pains to radiate down his buttocks and the back of his legs. He describes doing some heavy lifting in his garden just before the onset. You perform a full physical examination and find that the ankle jerk reflex is delayed. You suspect an intervertebral disk prolapse.

What level is disc prolapse likely to occur?

L5/S1
L3/L4
S2-S3

A

L5 -S1

Ankle reflex is typically delayed in L5/S1 disc prolapse.

L5 may also compress the nerve route leading to sciatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An 18-year-old male presents to casualty with a depressed skull fracture. This is managed surgically. Over the next few days he complains of double vision on walking down stairs and reading. On testing ocular convergence, the left eye faces downwards and medially, but the right side does not do so. Which nerve is responsible?

A

Trochlear nerve

Features include :

  1. Vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs)
  2. Unable to look down and in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Management of SVC obstruction

A

Emergency: oxygen + dexamethasone 16 po IV

+ low dose morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most common bacterial cause of meningitis

A

strep pneumonia

30
Q

Leg is x rotated with posterior hip dislocation (accounts for 90%) and x with anterior hip dislocation

A

internally

externally

31
Q

Murmur that radiates to carotids

A

Aortic stenosis

*radiation occurs in the direction of blood flow

Think about (SCRIPT)
Site,
Characteristic: Crescendo (getting louder) or decrescendo (quieter),
Radiation (if over left axilla = mitral regurgitation),
Intensity (what grade out of 6
Pitch
Timing (i.e. systolic or diastolic)

32
Q

Grading of murmurs

A

Murmurs are recorded in six gradations:

1/6 murmur is just audible by an expert in optimal conditions
2/6 is quiet
3/6 is moderately loud
4/6 is markedly loud } are accompanied by
5/6 is very loud } a thrill
6/6 is audible without a stethoscope

33
Q

What is sound 1 and 2

A

S1: is the closure of mitral and tricuspid valve (beginning of systole)
S2: closure of aortic + pulmonary valves (beggining of diastole and end of systole)

34
Q

Patient presenting with possible ACS i.e. angina chest pain, radiating to jaw.

What test should you request

A
  1. ECG - if there is ST elevation then = STEMI
    If no ST elevation then
  2. Check troponin levels - if raised = NSTEMI
    (if normal the diagnosis maybe be unstable angina or another cause)
35
Q

Diabetes diagnosis

A

HBA1C > 48
Fasting glucose > 11 / Random glucose > 7
Impaired GTT = 75g of glucose drink then measure after 2 hours > 11

36
Q

Pre-diabetes diagnosis

A

HBA1C 42-47
IGTT 7.8 - 11
Fasting glucose 6.1 - 6.9 (impaired fasting glucose)

37
Q

A 44 year old lady presents complaining of chronic fatigue and general tiredness. She has also noticed her hair and skin becoming more dry and is worried she might be loosing her hair.

On examination her thyroid gland is barely palpable

Her blood tests reveal a TSH of 13 (normal range 0.5 – 4.0 mIU/L) and free T4 of 1.1 (normal range 4.5 to 11.2 mcg/dL).

What is her most likely diagnosis?

Hashimotos
Graves
Addisons disease

A

Hashimotos disease (common cause of hypothyroidism in developed world)

  • iodine deficiency in developing world
  • TSH secreted by Anterior pituitary
38
Q

common Diabetic medication causing hypoglycaemia

A

1) Insulin

2) Sulphonylureas e.g. Gliclazide

39
Q

A 41 year old man is diagnosed with acromegaly secondary to a large pituitary adenoma.

What visual field defect would you expect he might have?

Upper altitudinal hemianopia
Central scotoma
Bitemporal hemianopia
Homonymous hemianopia

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

  • pituitary gland sits right beneath the optic chiasm - any enlargement of it will irritate the optic chiasm
  • Acromegaly = overproduction of growth hormone
40
Q

what is the Addisonian Crisis (AKA Adrenal Crisis)? and treatment?

A

The inability of the adrenal gland to produce enough cortisol
> leads to hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, hypotension and hyperkalaemia
> present with reduced consciousness, drowsy + faint

  • initially oxygen + correct glucose + IV hydrocortisone
41
Q

43 year old alcoholic is admitted with right upper quadrant pain.

Eight hours after his admission you are called to see him because he has become anxious and confused. He has started having visual hallucinations and is quite distressed.

What medication is the most appropriate to help with the symptoms this patient is experiencing?
 Haloperidol
 Midazolam
 Clonazepam
 Lorazepam
 Chlordiazepoxide
A

Chlordiazepoxide (sedative/hypnotic drug used for alcohol withdrawl)

  • pt is going through alcohol withdrawal
42
Q

Haemochromatosis is

& how to diagnose

A

is a disorder where too much iron builds up in your body.

Symptoms include - bronze skin, tiredness, arthiritis (muscle and joint pain), early menapause and sexual/liver dysfunction

  • diagnosis via serum ferritin
43
Q

Treatment of H pylori infection following +ve urea breath test is…..

A

2 antibiotics + PPI for BID for 1 week

Amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole (if allergic to penicillin the C & M).

44
Q

At what point during menustral cycle can an IUD Be inserted

A

Anytime

*it can also be inserted immediately after 1st or 2nd trimester abortion and from 4 weeks postpartum

45
Q

IUD mode of action and effectiveness?

A

Prevents fertilisation by decreasing sperm motility and survival

2) immediately

46
Q

IUS (levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine systems / Mirena)

1) MOA
2) when is it effective?

A

It prevents endometrial proliferation and cervical mucous thickening

2) upon 7 days after fitting

47
Q

As well as being used for contraception, x is also used in the management of menorrhagia

A

IUS

48
Q

Effects of IUD on period?

A

Heavy, painful and longer

49
Q

What form of contraception is affective for both heavy bleeding and anti-epileptic meds

A

IUS (mirena)

50
Q

All methods of combined hormonal contraception including the pill, ring and patch are contraindicated in..

A

Women >35 who smoke 15 or more cigarettes per day*

UKMEC 3 (relative)
>35 + < 15 cig/day
*also fhx of thromboembolic disease 
Bmi > 35
Immobility
Controlled hypertension 

Unacceptable health risk (UKMEC 4/ absolute)*
Breast cancer
migraine with aura ( due to increased risk of ischaemic stroke)
Breast feeding < 6 week post part I’m
Hx of stoke or IHD / DVT or PE
Uncontrolled hypertension

51
Q

Primary mode of action contraception implant

A

Inhibition of ovulation

*as well as COC

52
Q

Which contraceptive methods classified by UKMEC has no caution/CI in a patient with migraine + aura

A

IUD

53
Q

Main adverse effect of implantable contraceptive (nexplanon - progesterone releasing)

A

Irregular menustral bleeding

54
Q

COCP is
Protective against?
Increases risk of?

A
  1. Ovarian and endometrial cancer

2 breast and cervical cancer

55
Q

Which mode of contraception is an indication to all forms of contraception?

A

All Hormonal forms

56
Q

Which method of contraception has been proven to cause weight gain

A

Injectable contraceptive (depo provers)

57
Q

What is premature ovarian failure

A

Onset of menopausal symtptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40

  • causes: idiopathic/ chemo / radiotherapy / fhx
  • common symptoms include: hot flushes, vaginal dryness/atrophy or sleep disturbance
58
Q

Most suitable initial blood test with 20 yo presenting with menorrhagia

A

FBC - look for anaemia

If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality i.e inter menustral or post coital bleeding, pelvic pain = perform a routing transvaginal ultrasound

*hypo can lead to heavier and longer periods but in the absence of other symptom it becomes unlikely

59
Q

A 17-year-old girl presents due to painful periods. These have been present for the past three years and are associated with a normal amount of blood loss. Her periods are regular and there is no abnormal bleeding. She is not yet sexually active. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

Tranexamic acid
Referral for relaxation therapy
Paracetamol
Combined oral contraceptive pill
Ibuprofen
A

Ibuprofen

*NSAIDs are first-line treatment (inhibits prostaglandin synthesis followed by COC pill

60
Q

A 53-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Two weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt ‘dry’ during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:

Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 5 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal

What is the most appropriate next step?

Refer for urodynamics
Pelvic floor muscle training
Trial topical oestrogen
Urgent referral to gynaecology
Refer for bladder retraining
A

Urgent referral to gynae - any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst regardless of nature or size should be referred to gynaecology for assessment ( as it is physiologically unlikely)

61
Q

A 17-year-old comes to your clinic, concerned that she has not yet started her periods although most of her friends have. She is 150 cm tall and 45 kg in weight. She reports the development of pubic hair since the age of 14 and has normal breast development. On speculum examination, you are unable to visualise the cervix and the patient finds the examination too uncomfortable to tolerate further. Serum hormone screening reveals no gross abnormality. What management would you suggest?

Refer to a gynaecologist
Reassess in one year
Advise her to increase her calorie intake, check her hormone levels and reassess in two months.
Serum hormone screening
Refer to endocrinologist
A

Refer to gynae - In this case, the young woman in question has developed apparently normal secondary sexual characteristics but no periods (primary amenorrhea) This raises the question of mechanical obstruction to menstruation rather than an endocrine/ hormonal cause.

62
Q

Actinic keratosis is a common pre-malignant skin lesion that develops as a consequence of

A

Chronic sun exposure

  • Features include: small crusty or scaly lesions which may be pink, brown or skin colour
    Typically on sun exposed areas

*management = sun avoidance/cream
Flouracil cream - 2 to 3 week course or topical diclofenac (mild amp)

63
Q

Systemic lupus erythmetus SLE is what type of hypersensitivity reaction..

A

Type 3

*characterized by antigen- antibody complexes

SLE is thought to be caused by IS dysregulation leading to immune complex formation
F>M (9:1) and onset 20-40 years

64
Q

A 47-year-old lady is referred to migraine clinic with shooting pains across the left side of her face.

The shooting pains occur randomly, and only last a few seconds. They occur across her left cheek and jaw, and do not affect her forehead or eye. They occur three or four times per day.

What would be the most appropriate first-line medication to start to help prevent her symptoms?
 Sumatriptan
 Verapamil
 Carbamazepine
 Propranolol
 Gabapentin
A

Carbamazepine

  • nice recommends carbamazepine for first-line treatment in those who have symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia & titrating up
65
Q

A 32-year-old man presents with headaches, which he has had for several years.
They seem to be triggered by stressful situations and skipping meals.
They after often proceeded by sparks across his vision, after which a generalized severe headache occurs associated with mild photophobia.
When he has these headaches he finds that resting in a dark room and having a short nap helps to relieve the symptoms.
He has tried simple analgesia, which does not seem to help.

Neurological examination and fundoscopy is normal.

What is the next most appropriate step in management?

 100% Oxygen
 Codeine
 Diclofenac
 Sumatriptan
 Referral for CT head
A

Sumatriptan

Patients have symptoms of migraine

Treatment involves:
1. Offer simple analgesia such as:
Ibuprofen (400mg) — if ineffective, consider increasing to 600 mg or Aspirin (900 mg) or Paracetamol (1000mg).

  1. Triptans (5HT receptor agonists causing vasoconstriction) (sumatriptan 50mg PRN) - These can be offered alone or in combination with NSAIDs
  2. Antiemetic (metoclopramide/domperidone)
  3. Migraine clinics
66
Q

A 78 year old lady presents to her GP with left sided temporal headache associated with left sided jaw pain when chewing and left sided tenderness when brushing her hair. She rates the pain at 4/10.

She has had no visual changes.

What is her diagnosis?

A

Giant cell arteritis/ Temporal arteritis

Management

  1. Refer for urgent blood tests and specialist review
    * High EST, CRP
    * Fbc high platelets , low hb and ihigh in ALP
  2. Whilst awaiting these, she should be started on 60mg prednisolone, aspirin 75mg and a PPI (e.g. omeprazole)
    * co- prescribe ADcal for osteoporosis prevention or bisphosphonates while on steroid
  3. Simple analgesia (such as paracetamol and possibly 10-30mg of codeine as required) would be adequate to control pain that is 4/10.
67
Q

When trying to exclude subarachnoid haemorrhage and you have done a lumbar puncture.

Other than normal cell microscopy, what else would it be important for you to send the samples for?

A

Xanthochromia i.e. Yellow discoloration of the CSF caused by bilirubin released from the breakdown of red blood cells.

68
Q

Management of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

if suspected:

  1. CT head
  2. Lumbar puncture for RBC & Xanthochromia
  3. Angiography to locate source if confirmed
69
Q

Cluster headache management

A

Rescue medications (taken as soon as headache starts)

  1. Triptans – sumatriptan 6mg subcutaneously
  2. High flow pure (100%) oxygen (can be given at home)

Prophylaxis options:
Verapamil
Lithium
Prednisolone

70
Q

A 29 year old man who has suffered with on and off headaches for a few years. They are unilateral, and focused mainly over one eye. During he headache this eye goes red and waters. The pain is the most severe pain he can imagine, lasts about 30 minutes then eases off. He tends to get several attacks a day for a month, after which he doesn’t have the headaches for a year or so. They are eased by 100% oxygen given at home.

A

Cluster headache

71
Q

A 68 year old woman presenting with a severe pain over the left side of her forehead. This is associated with slight blurring of the vision in her left eye and she noticed that it was very tender over the area when brushing her hair this morning.

A

Giant cell arteritis

72
Q

A 74 year old with severe osteoarthritis in her knees presents with headaches. They are generalised headaches and tend to come on a few hours after she wakes up and fluctuate throughout the day.

A

Analgesic headache

The International Classification of Headache Disorders (ICHD) includes the following diagnostic criteria for medication overuse headache:
1. Headache occurring on 15 or more days per month in a patient with a pre-existing headache disorder and
Regular overuse for more than 3 months of one or more drugs that can be taken for acute and/or symptomatic treatment of headache.

For ergotamine, triptans, opioids and combination analgesics intake must be 10 days or more per month to be considered overuse.

For simple analgesics such as NSAIDS (including aspirin) and paracetamol intake must be 15 days or more per month to be considered overuse.