Random Flashcards

1
Q

What is maintenance’s phone number?

A

3209

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Compound gauge numbers?

A

Negative 30 to 0

0 to 600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ground pads give you how many times bigger of a footprint?

A

4x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How far extend ladder above roof line or parapet?

A

6 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Safest position to operate ladder

A

Longitudinally off the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minimum climbing width on aerial ladders?

A

18”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aerial rungs are minimum of ___ diameter

A

1.25”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the max wind speed the an aerial can operate at?

A

35-40

Pierce says 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 command modes?

A

Investigating
Quick Attack (Mobile)
Command (Stationary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the names for the 2 positions on a transfer valve on a multi-stage pump?

A

Pressure and Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the max pressure allowable prior to operating the transfer valve on a multi-stage pump?

A

50psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should the different settings of the multi stage pump be used?

A

Volume/parallel when you are pumping more than 50% of the rated pump capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Are you allowed to use auxiliary coolers during the pump test?

A

Yes but not during priming test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How much does TFD water tender carry?

A

2500 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the number 1 issue with small equipment?

A

Old gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long before air paks pre alert and alert?

A

20 seconds pre alert

28-30 seconds alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When do you inventory Mark 1 injectors?

A

Inspection Saturdays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the order model?

A

Comm guideline to assure that the orders given were understood
Order repetition assures command that the correct orders will be acted upon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are 5 major problems of fireground communication?

A
Lack of SOP's
Deficiencies in training
Organizational problems
Equipment and technology
Communications technique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the fireground benchmarks?

A

Primary search- All clear
Secondary search- All clear
Fire- Under control
Loss stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 8 functions of command?

A
Assumption/Position
Situation Evaluation
Communications
Deployment
Incident Action Plan
Organization
Review/Revise
Transfer/Continue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does the initial fireground evaluation begin?

A

With the dispatch information and CAD data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a size up?

A

A systematic consideration of all fire ground factors and the development of an action plan based on those factors

WHO AM I, WHAT I’VE GOT, WHAT I’M GONNA DO ABOUT IT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the types of support activities?

A

Forcible entry
Ventilation
Providing access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 2 major types of barriers?

A

Security

Construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 3 factors that determine hose line placement?

A

Life safety
Offensive attack
Defensive attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When there is no life hazard, where do we place the fire streams?

A

First stream between the fire and the most endangered exposure
Second stream to back up the first or to protect secondary egress
Additional lines to support attack positions, assist rescue, and protect exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is level 1 staging?

A

First engine proceed directly to the scene

All other units stage in direction of travel, uncommitted, approx 1 block from the scene until assigned by command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who communicates avail resource needs to command from level 2 staging?

A

Staging officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the cold zone?

A

Encompasses the warm zone and is used to carry out all other support functions of the incident
Contains the command post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The parking brake should hold on what percent of a grade?

A

20 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is involved in the road test?

A

Accel to 35 mph within 25 sec

Come to full stop within 35 feet from 20 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When are pump tests performed?

A

Annually or after major repair of pump or drive component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pump test must pass at ___% or better of rated capacity

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the preventative maintenance program do?

A

Ensure apparatus reliability and availability
Reduction in cost and frequency of repairs
Lessen OOS time
Reduce unexpected or catastrophic failures
Protect our investment in equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ARS____ Defines what a driver…

A

28-624 what a driver may or may not do in response to an emergency call
Does not relieve the driver from duty to drive with regard for safety of all persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the NFPA standard for fire apparatus driver/operator?

A

NFPA 1002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the NFPA for EVT qualifications?

A

NFPA 1071

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is the NFPA standard for vehicles, equipment, and drivers?

A

NFPA 1500 Chapter 4

40
Q

What is the normal operating engine temperature for TFD trucks?

A

160-215

41
Q

What can improper air filter alignment do?

A

“De-rate” the engine

42
Q

An air leak will cause…

A

Loss of power

43
Q

What kind of fuel leak is OOS?

A

Class 2

44
Q

Do this before removing the fuel cap…

A

Wipe debris

45
Q

The fuel pump does what?

A

Low pressure and supplies fuel to the injection pump

46
Q

What kind of oil leak is OOS?

A

Class 3

47
Q

Under filled crankcase without visible leaks may indicate…

A

A fuel system problem

48
Q

With HEUI injectors, oil is used to…

A

Cool, lubricate, and activate

49
Q

Engine coolant filters

A

Filters impurities
Conditions coolant by softening
Corrosion inhibitor
Replaced during B Level PM

50
Q

Any exhaust leak…

A

OOS

51
Q

Brand new diesels are tested for emissions…

A

4th year

52
Q

What can happen with shifting with improper voltage?

A

Erratic shifting

53
Q

What voltage will damage computer and what will affect performance?

A

16+ volts for damage

11 volts or less for perfromance

54
Q

ABS light on equals…

A

OOS

55
Q

When do you check trans fluid?

A

When at least 180 degrees level surface in neutral with engine running

56
Q

What is maximum operating temp of transmissions?

A

280 without retarder

330 with retarder

57
Q

What’s something I might forget to inspect around the differential area

A

The breather vent

58
Q

What am I looking at with steering components?

A

Pitman arm
Drag link
Steering shaft
Gear box

59
Q

What torque are the lug nuts supposed to be at?

A

450 ft pounds

60
Q

24 sq inch chamber max stroke?

A

1 3/4”

61
Q

30 sq inch chamber max stroke?

A

2”

62
Q

Above what weight requires supplemental braking?

A

Over 36000 pounds

63
Q

How many amps does the telma draw on application?

A

215 amps

64
Q

How do we lubricate the aerials?

A

In accordance with the manufacturers recommendation monthly

65
Q

What does it mean when the DEF light is flashing?

A

That the level is below 1/8th

66
Q

What is maximum theoretical lift?

A

33.9’

67
Q

Pump discharge pressure is the same as…

A

Engine pressure

68
Q

What are the 2 primary reasons for undesupplied nozzles?

A

Pump discharge pressures too low once they are flowing water

Kinks in the hoseline

69
Q

What is the is the most effective setting for flowing class A foam?

A

1/2%

70
Q

What is atmospheric pressure at sea level?

A

14.7

71
Q

What is atmospheric pressure in Tucson?

A

13.9

72
Q

What must booster tanks be rated at?

A

250 gpm if tank is below 750 gallons

500 gpm if the tank is 750 gallons or more

73
Q

Characteristic of pump casing?

A

Fine grain alloy cast iron

Minimum tensile strength of 30,000 psi

74
Q

What is impeller made of?

A

High quality bronze

75
Q

What are the 3 main factors that influence centrifugal pump discharge pressure?

A

Amount of water being discharged
Impeller speed
Intake pressure

76
Q

What does NFPA 1901 require when it comes to priming pumps?

A

Be able to develop 22in Hg and not drop more than 10in in 5 minutes

77
Q

NFPA 1901 says that discharge valves must be able to operate smoothly at ___psi

A

250psi

78
Q

What are the two types of gauges?

A

Pressure

Compound

79
Q

What is the minimum distance from power lines on an aerial?

A

10 feet

80
Q

With aerials, what is the real height vs the working height?

A

Real is actual length of ladder and working is from tip to ground

81
Q

What is a 4 square?

A

A map divided into four 1/2 mile squares

82
Q

What is a plat number?

A

Basic 4 digit number on center of plat map.

First 2 numbers are North/South

Second 2 numbers are East/West

83
Q

What are dotted lines in plat books?

A

Water zone boundary

Plus sign is high pressure low elevation side
Minus sign is low pressure low elevation side

84
Q

What are AZ licensing requirements for driving fire apparatus?

A

Must possess AZ class D license and complete department’s annual training

85
Q

TFD MOPs 420 says that…

A

Don’t text and drive. Including MDT

86
Q

What are the elements of the driving system?

A

Driver limitations
Vehicle limitations
Road conditions

87
Q

What percent of occupational fatalities are motor vehicles?

A

35%

88
Q

What is important about apparatus cleanliness?

A

Public relations
Allows for proper inspection
May lead to discovery of damage or missing things
Health of crew

89
Q

How long does it take a fully alert driver to react?

A

.75 - 1.5 seconds

At 50mph, a driver can travel 110 feet in that time

90
Q

What percent of ffs killed in collisions are not wearing seatbelts?

A

80%

91
Q

What percent of O2 should you wear SCBA?

A

20.6% or less

92
Q

What is the normal LEL value on the QRAE?

A

0%

93
Q

QRAE natural gas leak and what to do…

A

1-9% ventilate

10% or over consider the works

94
Q

What is considered IDLH for CO?

A

1200 ppm

95
Q

When do we call hazmat with mini rad D?

A

Greater or equal to 3 with unknown source