Random Flashcards

1
Q

Acne Management

A
mild acne
- topical benzoyl peroxide 
- tretinoin or adapalene gel 
- OCP
- washes containing salicylic acid
- light/laser therapy
moderate acne
- add tetracycline or doxycycline for 6 months
- consider anti androgen therapy in women un responsive to the pill e.g. cyproteterone acetate or spironolactone 
- isotretinoin 
severe acne
- refer to dermatologist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acute Otitis Media Management

A

If > 12 months no abx for first 24-48 hours then review

If < 12 months amoxicillin TDS for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the criteria for abx treatment for sinusitis?

A

need 3 of the following:

  • persistent purulent discharge > 7 days
  • facial pain
  • poor response to decongestants
  • tenderness over the sinuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the symptoms for alcohol withdrawal?

A
anxiety
insomnia
craving
hallucinations
irritability
vivd dreams
confusion
seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the examination finding for alcohol withdrawal?

A
diaphoresis
mydriasis
tachycardia
hypertension
low grade fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the red flag features of back pain?

A
young patient
elderly patient
not resolving for greater than 3 months
neurology
febrile
severe night pain
unexplained weight loss
significant trauma
IV drug use
use of anticoagulants
use of corticosteroids
cauda equina features
saddle anaesthesia
bowel/bladder symptoms
bilateral neurological deficit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the indications for imaging in back pain?

A

red flags (XR)
doesn’t resolve with conservative management (XR)
possible cauda equina (MRI)
possible spinal canal stenosis (MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What family history of bowel cancer is required for colonoscopy rather than FOBT?

A

one first degree relative diagnosed before 55
two first degree relatives at any age
risk of FAP or Lynch syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for BPH?

A

duodart - an alpha antagonist and a 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common pathogen for bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the indications for admission for bronchiolitis?

A

requires respiratory support - significant increase in work of breathing
requires oxygen - if saturation is <90% with associated increased WOB
requires fluid resuscitation - if intake is less than 50% of normal
if patient is very young
if it is day 1 of the illness
if parent is not comfortable at home caring for child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How often should patients have their CV risk calculated?

A

Every 2 years after 45 or 35 if ATSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What factors are used to calculate CV risk?

A
Age
Sex
Smoking status
Total and HDL cholesterol 
Systolic BP
Diabetes
LVH (on ECG)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the indications for colposcopy?

A
2 x LSIL
HSIL
smear reported as invasive carcinoma, glandular neoplasia, adenocarcinoma
suspicious symptoms
cervix suspicious of invasive disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which patients should be screened for CKD?

A
Smoking more than 40 years
Hypertension
Obesity
FHx
Diabetes
ATSI over 30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the goals of management for CKD?

A
BP less than 130/85 if proteinuria <1g
BP less than 125/75 if proteinuria >1g
cholesterol total <4
LDL <2.5
fasting blood sugar <6.7
HbA1c < 7%
Hb 110-120
potassium <6
bicarb > 22
phosphate < 1.75
no smoking
alcohol < 2 standard drinks per day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should you refer to a nephrologist for CKD?

A
haematuria
eGFR < 30
rapidly declining kidney function
significant proteinuria >1g
poorly controlled hypertension
diabetes with kidney impairment and an eGFR < 60
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the contraindications for the COCP?

A
undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
CV disease, stroke, TIA
previous VTE 
focal migraines with aura 
active liver disease
hormone dependent cancer
drug interaction -  e.g. carbamazepine
if breastfeeding is not well established can make it drop off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the common side effects of the COCP?

A
breast tenderness
nausea
breakthrough bleeding
headaches
mood changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the benefits of the COCP?

A
contraception 
less acne
less hirsuitism
regular periods
lighter periods
less painful periods
timed periods 
no periods if you wish 
reduced endometrial cancer, polyps, fibromyomas 
reduces endometriosis 
prevents ectopic pregnancy (unlike IUD)
reduces ovarian cysts
reduces ovarian cancer
no change in breast cancer - does not increase the risk with the dose of oestrogen 
reduces benign breast disease
reduces pre menstrual syndrome (progestogen withrdrawl)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the key steps in COPD management?

A
confirm diagnosis
optimise function
prevent deterioration
develop a self management plan
treat exacerbation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common pathogen of croup?

A

parainfluenza virus

23
Q

What are the risk factors for DDH?

A
breech presentation
female baby
oligohydramnios
big baby
first born baby
family history 
swaddling/wrapping
24
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for T2DM?

A

FBG > 7
OGTT > 11.1
HbA1c > 6.5

25
Q

At what HbA1c should insulin be used?

A

> 8.5

26
Q

What are the causes of dysmenorrhoea?

A
primary dysmenorrhoea
endometriosis
adenomyosis
intracavity mass - polyp, fibroid
cervical stenosis
imperforate hymen 
non communicating uterine horn 
post endometrial ablation 
PID
pelvic adhesions
27
Q

What is the management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

conservative
medical (methotrexate)
surgical

28
Q

What are red flag signs in a child with a fever?

A
pale mottled skin
doesn't wake or stay awake when roused
high pitched cry
tachypnoea
chest indrawing
decrease tissue turgor
age less than 3 months
non blanching rash
bulging fontanelle
neck stiffness
focal neurological signs
focal seizures
29
Q

What are the indications for gastroscopy in GORD?

A
anaemia
dysphagia
odynophagia
haematemesis + meleana
unexplained weight loss
vomiting
older age >50
chronic NSAID use
severe frequent symptoms
FHx of upper GI or colorectal cancer
short history of symptoms
30
Q

What is the maximum treatment time for carbimazole?

A

18 months

31
Q

Immunisation Schedule

A
Birth
- hepatitis B
2, 4 and 6 months
- hepatitis B
- DTP
- Hib
- polio
- pneumococcal
- rotavirus
12 months
- Hib
- MenC
- MMR
18 months
- MMRV
4 years 
- DTP
- polio
10-15
- DTP
- HPV
65
- influenza
- pneumococcal
32
Q

What are common vaccine side effects?

A
injection site reactions (pain, swelling, redness)
mild fever
shivering
fatigue
headache
joint and muscle ache
33
Q

What are the goals of lipid treatment?

A

Total cholesterol < 4
HDL > 1
LDL < 2
TG < 2

34
Q

What is the non pharmacological management of a lipid disorder?

A

diet
decrease alcohol
regular exercise
cessation of smoking

35
Q

What is the pharmacological management of a lipid disorder?

A
initial treatment: statin
if LDL not sufficiently reduced add one of:
- ezetimibe
- nicotinic acid
- bile acid binding resin 
if triglycerides remain elevated consider one of:
- fenofibrate
- nicotinic acid
- fish oil
36
Q

What are the side effects of statins?

A

GIT side effects
myalgia
measure LFTs and CK at baseline
repeat LFT at 6-8 weeks and then every 6 weeks for 6 months

37
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
female sex
age
family history
smoking
high alcohol intake
vitamin D deficiency
low BMI (<20)
recurrent falls
low physical activity
immobility
cushings
hyperthyroidism
hyperparathyroidism
hypogonadism
inflammatory disorders
rheumatoid arthritis
malabsorption
coeliac
CKD
chronic liver disease
corticosteroids
anti epileptic
anti androgen
excessive thyroxine
38
Q

What are the indications for a DEXA bone scan?

A

any fracture following minimal trauma
spine wedge fracture
presence of major risk factors

39
Q

What are the rotterdam criteria for PCOS?

A

oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea
irregular cycle >35 days or < 21 days indicating anovulation
hyper androgenism (clinical or biochemical signs)
elevated serum testosterone and free androgen index
US findings
12 or more follicles or increased ovarian volume >10cc

40
Q

What is the management for H Pylori?

A

clarithromycin and amoxicillin as part of triple therapy with a PPI for 7-14 days

41
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat PID?

A

azithromycin, ceftriaxone, metronidazole

42
Q

What are the features of a good screening program?

A

the condition:
- important health problem
- recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage
- natural history of the condition should be understood
the test:
- simple, safe, precise and validated
- acceptable to the target population
- the distribution of test values in the target population should be known and a suitable cut-off level defined and agreed upon
the treatment:
- effective for patients identified, with evidence that early treatment leads to better outcomes
- agreed policy on who should be treated and how they should be treated
the outcome:
- there should be evidence of improved mortality, morbidity or quality of life because of the test
- benefits of screening outweigh harm
- the cost should be economically balanced
consumers
- should be given informed evidence so they can make an informed choice

43
Q

What is the centor criteria for diagnosing strep pharyngitis?

A
Old CAFE
old: age 
< 15 = 1 point
age > 44 = -1 point
C: cervical lymphadenopathy = 1 point
A: absence of cough = 1 point
F: fever = 1 point
E: exudate on tonsilts = 1 point
If -1 to 1 point - don’t test and don’t give antis
If 2-3 points - test and if positive give antis
if 4-5 - treat empirically with antis
44
Q

What questions should you ask in a sexual history?

A
Current sexual activity
Gender and number of partners
Contraception (including barrier contraception)
Immunisation status
RFs for blood borne viruses
- IVDU
- tattoos
- piercings
symptoms
- vaginal discharge
- urinary symptoms
- dyspareunia
45
Q

Which TIA patients should have stroke risk assessed? (ABCDD tool)

A

Age > 60 = 1 point
Bp > 140/90 = 1 point
Unilateral weakness = 2 points
Speech impairment = 1 point
Duration over 60 mins = 2 points over 10 mins = 1 point
Diabetes = 1 point
If score is over 4 do urgent brain and carotid imaging

46
Q

What are the red flags for headache?

A
acute/subacute time course
focal neurology
fever
confusion
altered mental state
neck stiffness
progressive
vomiting
personality change
worse in the morning
seizure
post head injury
47
Q

bacterial pathogens of sinusitis

A
step pneumoniae
haemophilus influenzae
moraxella catarrhalis
staph aureus
strep pyogenes
48
Q

things to ask on history for sinusitis

A
facial pain - often refers to teeth, ears
obstruction (nasal blockage)
discharge from nose (purulent)
smell changes
headache
cough (worse at night)
bad breath
signs of complication - visual changes or meningitic symptoms
49
Q

examination findings for sinusitis

A

facial tenderness on palpation
purulent discharge
signs it has spread to the orbit
signs of meninigism

50
Q

indications for CT in sinusitis

A

suspected malignancy
history of trauma
diagnosis not straight forward

51
Q

adjunctive treatments for sinusitis

A

analgesia
nasal saline irrigation
intranasal corticosteroids
nasal decongestants (limited to 3 days use)

52
Q

when to refer to a specialist for sinusitis

A
lack of response to abx
persistence of severe symptoms
recurrence (4 or more episodes in a year)
underlying anatomical abnormalities
immunocompromised
orbital or intracranial complications
53
Q

complications of sinusitis

A

orbital - cellulitis, abscess

intracranial - meningitis, abscess