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1
Q

Which Officer is in charge of flags while carrying dignitaries on aircraft?

A 
Navigation Officer
Provide charts, Pubs, Nav Equip and records.
Maintain flag record.
Maintain aera Nav data base>
(CIM 3710.1)
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2
Q

How many types of aircraft transfer are there?

A 
3
Unscheduled
Temporary
Permanent
(PG 85-00-160)
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3
Q

What does GS in an MSR stand for?

A

Ground Support.

CG 85-00-10

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4
Q

What is the maximum amount that a commanding officer can raise a GOV credit card limit to?

A

9,999
CO approval
EPME 4.C.01

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5
Q

Which Mishaps require blood and urine tests?

A

A&B
C&D if human physiological factors are suspected
CIM 5100.47 ch5

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6
Q

Who funds temporary transfer of aircraft?

A

The directing operational authority will fund transfers>

PG 85-00-160

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7
Q

What decibel level for single hearing protection.

A

Equal to or greater than 85db continuous
140db peak
CIM 5100.47

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8
Q

What decibel level requires double hearing protection?

A

Excess of 104db
if cannot be lowered to below 85db time exposure should be limited.
CIM 5100.47

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9
Q

What is hazardous impact noise?

A

environments and equipment that produce continuous noise levels above 85db TWA (time weighted average) and impact noise exceeding 104db are considered hazardous.
CIM 5100.47

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10
Q

What agent is used to extinguish a NI-cad fire?

A

HALON 1211, PKP, AFFF or c02

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11
Q

What is the max size crack that can be on a non-load bearing part of a jack?

A

Less than 1/2 inch may be stop drilled.
2 half inch or longer shall be replaced, or severly dented or mashed.
1 inch in welds may ground down and rewarded.
AFTO 35A2-1-1

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12
Q

What is the definition of volatility?

A

Measure of the tendency of a liquid substance to vaporize under given conditions.
A&P general ch4

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13
Q

Who oversees fuel storage?

A

Aviation Mx officers Fuel, Defuel an manage aviation fuel facilities.
3710.1

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14
Q

How can you tell a flexible line is not twisted when installed?

A 
Indicator stripe (lay line) stenciled along the length of the hose.
NAVAIR 42E1-1-1
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15
Q

Which officer is in charge of cryptographic gear?

A

Communications officer.

3710.1

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16
Q

An aviation safety department is required at a unit with how many pilots?

A

20 or more pilots assigned. the Dept head shall not be assigned other major collateral duties.
CIM 5100.47

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17
Q

TCTO kits requiring less than 4 hours to completed shall not be installed how fora out from PDM?

A

Within 45 days of scheduled PDM.

85-00-110

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18
Q

Who initiates a parts pool?

A 
Before a parts pool can be completed, a potential donor initiates the parts pool process using the parts pool module within AMMIS
85-00-110
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19
Q

Who reviews a report of survey?

A

Survey Officer shall monitor the boards progress until forwarded to final proving authority.
CIM 4500.5C

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20
Q

What is the standard GOV credit card limit?

A

2500.00

EPME 4.C.01

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21
Q

What is the budget lead time for GSE Equip?

A

lead time for planning, budgeting and procurement is 3 years.
13020.1G

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22
Q

What is the flexible coupling between drive shafts called?

A

Thomas coupling.

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23
Q

How often are MDL’s Printed?

A

Monthly covering a 2 month operating period for each aircraft.
85-00-110

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24
Q

what do you do with an expired TO?

A

Cancelled and filed for 6 months after completion date.

OPNAV 4790/35

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25
Q

How many days do you have to submit a MORPT?

A

Not later than 7 days following the end of the report period.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the rescue hoist load limit device?

A

Automatically pay out cable if load exceeds 1500+/- 300lbs.

65-1

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27
Q

How often is OP Hazard Awareness training required?

A

On initial assignment and annually thereafter.

3710.1

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28
Q

Where is tubing longer than 24 inches required to be labeled?

A

Both ends as near as possible to the ends and anywhere it passes through a bulkhead.

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29
Q

When you rig a flight control 50 degrees and re-check at 80 degrees. what happens to the cable?

A

The airframe will expand faster than the cable so the cable will tighten.
AFTO 1-1A-8

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30
Q

What is EMI intended for.

A

Intended for and directed to correcting a deficiency.

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31
Q

Who designates QA’s?

A

EO in writing.

85-00-110

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32
Q

How does the Rating Force MC communicate to the field?

A

Force notes, field visits direct contact to members.

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33
Q

Who is responsible for testing new equipment in the CG?

A

ACCB

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34
Q

What is composed entirely of designated flight examiners representing pilots and each enlisted aircrew position?

A

FEB, designation and check flights shall be given by members of the FEB.
3710.1

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35
Q

Lifting slings must be replaced when wear has reduced the cable by how much?

A

1/3 or more from original diameter

NAVAIR 17-1-114-1

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36
Q

Who funds permanent aircraft transfer?

A

The directing Operational Authority.

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37
Q

How long can inspections on MSR items be extended?

A

MSR items shall not be extended, removed from service until inspections are complete.

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38
Q

When going into desert storage what do you wipe HYD pistons with?

A

HYD fluid 83282

NAVAIR 15-01-500

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39
Q

Flight line fire extinguishers are hydrostatically tested how often?

A

12 years.

TO 13F4-4-121

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40
Q

What is form CG-5082?

A

Hazardous condition notification.

CIM 5213.6E

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41
Q

How many primary positions can aircrew personnel hold?

A

Maximum of 3 primary aircrew designations.

3710.1

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42
Q

What is comprised of experienced AC commanders, instructor pilots, flight examiners, the flight safety officer and enlisted flight crew whose function is to advise to CO on matters pertaining to the unit, standardization and crew performance and other related topic?

A

FSB
Flight Standards Board.
3710.1

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43
Q

A space that contains classified material shall be designated?

A

Restricted Area.

EPME 4.G.03

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44
Q

How long is the delay on the hanger door button?

A

5 seconds.
Dead man type 4 ft up and 3-4 feet from edge.
M11000.11A

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45
Q

At what level do you service a HYD servicing unit during a flush?

A

Replenish reservoir before level decreases to half way point.
NAVAIR 01-1A-17ch6

46
Q

What is the primary reason for engine trouble?

A

FOD.

NAVEDTRA 1400.8

47
Q

What is the lowest authority to extend scheduled MX?

A

Commanding officer ALC

13020.1

48
Q

When do you submit an AFTO 103 prior to PDM?

A

The form will be initiated 60 days in advance of the scheduled depot input date to allow for command review, certification and delivery of the form to PM 45 days prior to scheduled date.
AFTO 00-25-4

49
Q

Who assist ATTC with course writing material?

A

PSB

Performance Systems Branch.

50
Q

During ferry flights when losing unit provides the ferry crew, Who is the reporting custodian?

A

Change of custody shall occur when ferry crew departs with AC from losing unit. if losing unit provide crew change of custody shall occur upon arrival at gaining unit. The gaining unit has become the reporting custodian.

51
Q

Who funds unusual operations for recovery and salvage?

A

CG-41
ALC contracting support
13020.1G

52
Q

What MSR items do floor sweepers far under?

A

GS, ground support.

85-00-10

53
Q

Who can e on a board of survey?

A

When available Commissioned officers and Chief Warrant Officers.
when unavailable and convening board deems it necessary petty officers E-6 and move and civilians GS7 and WG8 and above.
The cognizant APO, survey officer, and property custodian may not be members of the board of survey.
M4500.5C

54
Q

How long do you have to ship a type 1 item?

A

Type 1 material shall be shipped as soon as practical but no later than 15 days following receipt of shipping orders.
Part number, serial number, shipping data shall be provided via E-mail
85-00-110

55
Q

Which shore units require a safety committee?

A

All units not subordinate to a group or MSO.

CIM 5100.47

56
Q

Who is responsible for establishing a tool control program?

A

CO

85-00-110

57
Q

What is the minimum number of people required on a board of survey due to negligence?

A

1-3 persons dependent to circumstances.
Negligence will have no less than 3.
4500.5C

58
Q

Who is responsible for the calibration program?

A

CO

85-00-110

59
Q

Graphite causes what type of corrosion?

A 
Disimilar metals    (galvanic)?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
60
Q

On a gear what is smooth surface area with small cracks emanating out to a larger damaged area called?

A

Stress corrosion.

1-1A-509

61
Q

What is the condition inside of an engine called when there is a transfer of metal?

A

Galling.

NAVEDTRA 1400.8

62
Q

In a power plant what is the breaking loose of metal called?

A

Chipping.

Navair 02-1-20

63
Q

What is ICS?

A

Incident command system.
Systematic approach for emergency management response.
EPME 4.G.05

64
Q

What is the maximum allowable water content when you test with AEL MKl

A

10PPM as determined by AEL MKl.

65
Q

Who reviews Class A&B mishaps?

A

CASB

Points members to MAB

66
Q

What areas are aluminum alloy tubing limited on aircraft?

A

HYD, fuel and oil lines but are not limited.

6060-T6 is preferred.

67
Q

What is the determining factor for member transfer.

A

Needs of the service.

68
Q

What does work life do as part of suicide prevention?

A

Promote self care and use of mental health care resources….provide support of those who seek help.
Coordinate, support, assist and guide allCG suicide prevention efforts and ensure related requirements are carried out.

69
Q

What manual do you reference for extending routine Mx on engines?

A

Inspections required by MDL, may be extended as permitted in the MDL.
13020.1G

70
Q

On what form do you log discrepancies for an AC going to PDM while in EAL contingency?

A

All flight and non-flight discerns identified after pilot signs for AC or ground ops will be recorded on mission generated Mx record.
all non-flight discerns on no mission Mx record.
13020.1G

71
Q

When was the CG assigned to DHS?

A

On march 1 2003.

EPME 4.A.01

72
Q

What Act was signed into law in November 2002?

A

Homeland Security Act of 2002 resulting in establishment of DHS.
EPME 4.A.01

73
Q

CG 41

A

Office of Aeronautical Engineering

74
Q

CG 711

A

Office of Aviation Forces

75
Q

CG 1131

A

Chief Aviation Safety Division

76
Q

What is form 5285?

A

Training record

77
Q

GSA unseat report form?

A

? 273

78
Q

What are th steps of ORM?

A
  1. Identify Mission Tasks
  2. Identify Hazards
  3. Asses Risks
  4. Identify Options
  5. Evaluate Risk vs. Gain
  6. Execute Decision
  7. Monitor Situation.
79
Q

What is the respirator manual?

A

6260.2C

80
Q

Class A mishap?

A

2,000,000 or fatality or permanent disability, Small boat valued @ 1,000,000 or more

81
Q

Class B mishap?

A

500,000 and up, less than 2,000,000. permanent or partial disability with in patient care.

82
Q

Class C mishap?

A

50-50,000 Non-fatal, loss of time work beyond shift.

83
Q

Flight hours dedicated to training?

A

20% Fixed wing, 40% rotary wing.

84
Q

How long do you have to submit a message for Class d mishaps?

A

Class C Aviation messages shall be submitted within 14 days.
Class D&E Aviation messages shall be submitted within 21 days.
CIM 5100.47

85
Q

What do you mark an empty compressed gas cylinder with?

A

Chalk.
M10360.3C

The user is responsible for affixing a3 part cylinder status tag (full, in use, empty)
AFTO 42B5-1-2-1

86
Q

What are 4 types of HYD pumps.

A

Gear, Gearotor, Vanes and Pistons.

piston is most common.

87
Q

To what percent strength can a non-critical area of aircraft skin be reduced to?

A

Highly critical -100%
Semi critical -80%
Non critical -60%
AMT1 Mx packet 2-2

88
Q

The 6 step process to effect change?

A 
Gather and Analyze
Develop Problem Statement
Market Need to Change
Make Recommendations
Follow Approval Process
Ensure Implementation
89
Q

When submitting a budget request to the approval authority, what should you also include?

A

Impact of denial statement.

90
Q

Supporting documents should be submitted NLT____ days to supervisor?

A

NLT 14 days prior to end of marking period.

91
Q

When is regular EER not required?

A

An evacuee has been assigned to new duty station, less than 92 days for e-6 and below, 184 for E-7 and above, 19 drill periods for reserves.

92
Q

What article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice caver failure to obey?

A

Article 92, failure to Obey order or regulation.

93
Q

What are the codes for messages that have been Corrected, Transmitted or is an Administrative type message?

A

ZOjn- corrected
ZDK re-transmitted
ZYB administrative.

94
Q

What are the 4 potential SOSO codes that can be used in a CG message?

A

Flash (Z) - as fast as possible with a goal 10 minutes.
Immediate (O) 30 minutes.
Priority (P) 3 hours.
Routine (R) 6 Hours.

95
Q

What are the 7 types of marks that can be entered on the CG 3307 (Admin remarks)?

A
  1. Accession.
  2. Assignment and Transfer.
  3. Performance and Discipline.
  4. Advancement and Reduction.
  5. Seperation.
  6. Selective Reenlistment Bonus.
  7. Selective Reserve Enlisted Bonus program.
96
Q

Part V of the manual for Court Martial states the mast rep. has the authority to perform what duties?

A

Question witnesses.
Submit question to ask witnesses.
Present evidence.
Make statements geared to the CO.

97
Q

When completing an EER in DA, What tab is for internal routing only and provides information for the supervisor?

A

Comments Tab.

98
Q

When completing an EER in DA, What tab is used for entering ratings for the member?

A

Reviewers Tab.

99
Q

Minimum eligibility requirements must be completed by Jan 1. The year convenes for what commissioning program?

A

Chief Warrant Officer.

100
Q

What are the 3 levels that the CG provides alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation?

A

Level 1- Awareness Education.
Level 2- Outpatient/ intensive Outpatient.
Level 3- Residential Rehabilitation Programs.

101
Q

What incidents constitute an alcohol incedent?

A

Result in a members loss of ability to perform assigned duties.
Brings discredit upon the Uniformed Services.
Is a violation of the UCMJ, Federal, State or Local laws where alcohol is determined to be a significant causative factor.

102
Q

What is the number for Master Senior and Chief Petty Officer EER worksheet?

A

CG 3788C

103
Q

What is the form number for enlisted and non-rated personnel EER?

A

CG 3788A

104
Q

When preparing a message on CGMS, Message drafting begins on what line?

A

Format line 5

“From Line”

105
Q

Unsatisfactory marks must be assigned for what infractions?

A 
NJP
Court Martial convictions
Civil Court convictions
Financially irresponsible
Not supporting dependents
Alcohol Incidents
Failure to Comply with Military rules and regs.
106
Q

What are the 5 types of directives issued in the CG?

A
  1. Instructions
  2. Manuals
  3. Messages type Notices
  4. Notices
  5. SOP’s
107
Q

When EER’s are submitted to the Appeal Authority, the authority has how many days to review and act on the appeal?

A

15 calendar days

108
Q

What are the 2 most common entries made on the CG 3307?

A

Positive

Negative

109
Q

What are the types of training that the CG employs?

A

Resident

Non-resident

110
Q

What is required to completed for all alcohol incedents?

A

A PDR entry via CG 3307. and warning that subsequent incident is grounds for seperation.

111
Q

The CGBI site consists of what information?

A

People
Training
Equipment
Infrastructure

SWE General (3 decks)

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