Random Flashcards

1
Q

Non-ionic contrast media has an average osmolality _______

A

750 mOsm/kg of water

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2
Q

What are some types of non-ionic contrast?

A
  1. iopamidol (Isovue)
  2. lohexol (omnipaque)
  3. Iopromide (ultravist)
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3
Q

True/false
Patient does can be reduced by using a technique termed partial scam or half scan which reduces the total rotation of the X-ray tube.

A

True

The use of partial scan or half scan technique allows the technologist to reduce the total rotation of the x-ray tube, reducing the scan time and subsequently the patient dose

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4
Q

The total quantity of radiation dose received by the patient from a CT scan series is termed _______

A

MSAD

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5
Q

Platelets are small cell fragments responsible for the clotting of blood. The normal range for an adult is between _______

A

150,000 to 400,000 platelets/mm 3 of blood

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6
Q

When a patient suffers from an a. Cardiac event CPR must be administered within a maximum of ___ minutes to avoid the risk of brain damage.

A

4

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7
Q

Iodine is commonly used in radiopaque contrast media because of its ____________

A

High atomic number

Iodine’s high atomic number causes it to attenuate a large portion of the primary beam. Introducing iodine into tissue changes the subject contrast of the enhanced atomic area.

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8
Q

Iodine is commonly used in radiopaque contrast media because of its ____________

A

High atomic number

Iodine’s high atomic number causes it to attenuate a large portion of the primary beam. Introducing iodine into tissue changes the subject contrast of the enhanced atomic area.

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9
Q

What are enteric precautions protecting against?

A

They protect against The spread of infection to indirect or direct contact with fecal matter. The use of gowns and gloves are included in enteric precaution a mask is not necessary

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10
Q

Benadryl is also known as

A

Diphenhydramine

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11
Q

Insufficient volume of circulating blood causes

A

Hypovolemic shock

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12
Q

Common S/S of hypovolemic shock

A

Pallor
HypOTension
Tachycardia
Oliguria

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13
Q

Mild reactions to IV contrast include

A

Nausea/vomiting
Mild urticaria
Warm flushed sensation

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14
Q

refers to the relationship between the x-ray tube and detectors during scout pictures

A

azimuth setting

0degree- ap or pa

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15
Q

Quantitive CT is moved used for the diagnosis of

A

osteoporosis

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16
Q

condition of excessive nitrogenous waste in the blood

A

azotemia

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17
Q

the adult spinal cords ends at about

A

L1-L2

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18
Q

IV contrast is usually excreted from a PT w normal kidney function in

A

1-2 hours

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19
Q

the average density in Hounsfield units of a renal cyst should be between

A

-20 to +20 Hounsfield unit

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20
Q

This specialized technique incorporates narrow section widths and a high-resolution algorithm for image reconstruction

A

high-resolution CT

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21
Q

What types of detectors are used in CT

A

scintillation

gas ionization

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22
Q

hemorrhage that occurs between the skull and the outermost meningeal covering of the brain (dura mater)

A

epidural hematoma

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23
Q

occur between the dura mater and the meninges

A

arachnoid hematoma

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24
Q

inner most layer of the meninges

A

pia mater

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25
Q

what is complete cardiac diastole?

A

period of relaxation of the heart; ventricular and atrial diastole (relaxation) indicated by T wave on ECG

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26
Q

where is the thymus gland located

A

anterosuperior portion of the mediastinum and is easily visible in patients before puberty

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27
Q

what is a hybrid array?

A

narrow detector positioned midline flanked by wider detectors

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28
Q

MSAD

A

multiple scan average dose

calculation of the avg cumulative dose to each section within an acquisition of multiple sections

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29
Q

sensitivity is also known as

A

contrast resolution

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30
Q

The total length of a CT scan may be calculated by

A

multiplying the scan time by the aperture size

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31
Q

avg density of a renal cyst

A

-20 to +20 hounsfield units

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32
Q

protect you from the spread of infection through indirect or direct contact with fecal matter

A

Enteric precautions

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33
Q

Gas accumulating within a degenerating intervertebral disk is termed

A

Vacuum phenomenon

34
Q

Parenteral routes of medication administration include:

A

intramuscular, intravenous, intradermal, and subcutaneous.

35
Q

Strict isolation precautions

A

refers to the precautions used with patients at risk of infection. This type of precaution technique was once referred to as protective or reverse isolation.

36
Q

Which generation of scanners employ multi-row detector technology?

A

3rd gen

37
Q

A CT examination of the liver shows an abnormal finding of reduced density what is it probably

A

fatty infiltrate

38
Q

The CT technologist controls the energy level of x-ray photons by selecting the appropriate

A

tube voltage

39
Q

A CT examination of a female pelvis reveals ascites present in an area posterior to the uterus and ovaries known as…

A

the cul-de-sac

40
Q

Which cranial nerve would an acoustic neuroma be found?

A

8th

41
Q

Area of the tube which allows the xray beam to pass through

A

Tube window

42
Q

Increase in avg energy if the xray beam as it penetrates tissue

A

Beam hardening

43
Q

How do you find slice thickness

A

Xray beam thickness/number of slices

44
Q

What type of image noise can be most easily reduced by the tech?

A

quantum noise

45
Q

The detectors of a PET system absorb and measure what type of radiation?

A

annihilation photons

46
Q

the broadening of the slice sensitivity profile inherent to helical CT acquisition is said to negatively affect

A

longitudinal spatial resolution

47
Q

describes the degree to which pt movement during volumetric acquisition can negatively affect image detail

A

longitudinal spatial resolution

48
Q

a voxel’s dimension may be decreased by

A

decreasing the section width

49
Q

names commonly given to high spatial frequency algorithms

A

bone, edge, detail

50
Q

what composes the C.O.W.

A
anterior cerebral
anterior communicating
internal carotid
posterior cerebral
posterior communicating arteries
51
Q

full width at half maximum of a slice sensitivity profile diagram indicates

A

effective section width

52
Q

the ability of an object to attenuate the x-ray beam is assigned a value known as the

A

linear attenuation coefficient

53
Q

in MSCT, the beam pitch is equal to the table feed per rotation divided by the

A

total collimation

54
Q

The definition of absorption efficiency is

A

the percent of x-rays entering the chamber which collide with the detector atoms

55
Q

An artifact from a faulty detector would appear on a localizer image as

A

A black line throughout the image, parallel to the long axis of the patient table

56
Q

The CT image of the brain exhibiting a cupping artifact will appear brighter

A

At the periphery of the brain

57
Q

The direction in which the streaks from the edge gradient effect eminate in what orientation from the structure being imaged?

A

Parallel to the direction of the sharp density difference interface.

58
Q

the excretory phase of renal contrast enhancement occurs at approx

A

3-5 minutes

59
Q

In PTs who are left dominant, the posterior descending artery branches from the

A

left circumflex artery

60
Q

the process by which electrons are produced at the cathode of a CT x-ray tube is known as

A

thermionic emission

61
Q

forumla for pixel dimension

A

DFOV/matrix size

62
Q

Each 1% in contrast between adjacent objects amounts to a difference in pixel value of approx

A

10 HU

63
Q

the early arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approx

A

15-20 seconds

64
Q

When choosing a window to display a CT image, the width defines the

A

range of CT numbers (pixels) to be displayed

65
Q

what type of reconstruction was used in the first prototype CT scanner

A

iterative technique

66
Q

Why is it recommended that data acquisition for a CTA of the pulmonary arteries be performed in the caudocephalad direction?

A

less streaking artifact from dense contrast in the superior vena cava

67
Q

the equilibrium phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approx

A

120-180 seconds

68
Q

CT images that have been reconstructed from a portion of the data acquisition process in the hopes of reducing PT motion artifacts are called

A

segmented images

69
Q

the articulation between the distal tibia and fibula is called the

A

syndesmosis

70
Q

the left and right brachiocephalic veins originate from

A

the superior vena cava

71
Q

MRP images along the long axis of the optic nerve would be best described by what plane?

A

oblique sagittal

72
Q

Which layer of the uterine wall brightly enhances after IV administration of an iodinated contrast agent?

A

myometrium

73
Q

Prospectively gated cardiac CT data acquisition occurs only during the portion of the ECG termed the

A

T wave

74
Q

ability of a fluid to flow

A

viscosity

75
Q

systemic hypertension often leading to cerebral ischemia

A

vasovagal reaction

76
Q

areas of a CT image containing abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by

A

high spatial frequencies

77
Q

Which phase of IV contrast provides the best gastric and intestinal wall enhancement?

A

portal venous

78
Q

degree of CT section broadening that occurs along the z-axis during volumetric data acquisition is represented graphically by the

A

SSP

slice sensitivity profile

79
Q

the liver has a dual blood supply and receives 25% of its blood from the

A

hepatic artery

75% portal vein

80
Q

beam pitch is equal to

A

table feed per rotation divided by total collimation

81
Q

areas of a CT image containing abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by

A

high spatial frequencies