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1
Q

If DQ2 & DQ8 negative, what can you NOT have?

A

Celiac

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2
Q

What physical exam finding is consistent with constrictive pericarditis?

A

Rapid X and Y descent

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3
Q

The absence of what three clinical signs can help rule out meningitis?

A

fever, stiff neck, AMS

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4
Q

Define LR

A

LR = probability of finding in patient with disease/probability of finding in patient without disease
LRs are a stable measure of a diagnostic test that is based on both the sensitivity AND specificity of the test. They provide an alternative way of describing the performance of a diagnostic test. They can be used to calculate the post-test probability of disease after a positive or negative test.

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5
Q

Define Cincinnati Pre Hospital Stroke Score

A

Acute facial paresis, arm drift, abnormal speech. LR for ≥1 finding = 5.5. Absence of all 3 findings LR = 0.39

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6
Q

If received BCG in past, what can be done to rule out latent TB?

A

Interferon gamma release assay

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7
Q

Name the ECOG categories

A

0 - no restriction
1 - limitation of strenuous activity, normal activity OK
2 - OK for self care, no work activity, up > 50% waking hrs
3 - limited self care, in bed > 50% of waking hrs
4 - bed ridden

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8
Q

A murmur is described as: a mid-systolic click with late systolic murmur. What happens when heard with patient standing/valsalva?

A

Classic for MVP, on standing preload drops, decrease in LV filling, therefore exaggerating MVP murmur. Click will be earlier, and murmur longer.

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9
Q

What is the best test to rule out aortic dissection (and LR for bonus points)?

A

Normal CXR, LR -0.3

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10
Q

Pt. with severe, symptomatic AS. Risk of surgery calculated to have >50% mortality. Prooceed to surgery?

A

No. Offer TAVR (2012 ACCF/AATS/SCAI/STS guidelines)

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11
Q

Which of the following, if present, does not increase the probability that this is malaria? Headache, dyspnea, jaundice, splenomegaly, fever. And what has the highest LR

A

Dyspnea LR +0.11. headache LR + 1.8, Fever LR +5.1 and splenomegaly LR + 6.5

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12
Q

Most common bacterial and viral cause of traveller’s diarrhea?

A

E. coli, rotavirus

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13
Q

What are the components of the HIT score?

A

thrombocytopenia, thrombosis, timing, causes (none)

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14
Q

How do you calculate NNT?

A

1/ARR

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15
Q

What are the components of the CAM score?

A

AIDS acute onset and fluctuation, inattention, disorganized thought, somnolence/AMS

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16
Q

Management of Goodpasture’s?

A

steroids, cyclophosphamide, plasmapheresis

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17
Q

What finding suggests infected ulcer?

A

Pain LR 11

18
Q

Criteria for LVH (Sokolow)?

A

Sum of S wave in V1 and R wave in V5 or V6 ≥3.5 mV (35 mm) and/or R wave in aVL ≥1.1 mV (11 mm) (sometimes ≥1.3 mV [13 mm] is used)

19
Q

In patients with egg allergy, what type of influenza vaccine is contraindicated?

A

live attenuated as its safety has not been studied. CDC does say egg-based vaccines OK

20
Q

What two organs need to be monitored every six months for those on amiodarone?

A

hepatic (ALT/AST) & TFT Q6M

21
Q

Criteria for Still’s

A

4 major: fever, arthralgia, maculopap rash, high WBC
5 minor: sore throat, LAD, HSM, LFTs, neg RF and ANA
Need 5 criteria, with at least 2 major

22
Q

Absolute contraind. to lysis in STEMI?

A

h/o intracranial hemo., ischemic stroke w/i 3/12, cere. vasc. abn/cere. malig., s/sx of ao. dissection, bleeding diathesis/act. bleeding, closed head/facial trauma w/i 3/12

23
Q

Relative contraind. to lysis in STEMI?

A

chronic, severe HTN OR BP>180 - 110 on pres., ischemic CVA >3/12, dementia, intracran. path., CPR>10min, major sx w/i 3/52, internal bleeding 2-4/52, act. PUD, noncompress. vasc. punc., preg, warfarin, prior expo. STK

24
Q

Barrett’s with no dysplasia, what dose PPI?

A

Regular dose

25
Q

What is the acceptable rise in creatinine with ACE-I?

A

25-30%

26
Q

Beta blockers are not recommended in what group as monotherapy in HTN w/o other compelling indications?

A

> 60 years old

27
Q

ACE-I are not recommended in what group as monotherapy in HTN w/o other compelling indications?

A

Blacks

28
Q

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when and is thought to be due to what incompatibility?

A

Anywhere from 3-21 days post, and Rh or Kidd incompatibility

29
Q

MEN1 tumors?

A

parathyroid, pituitary, pancreas

30
Q

MEN2a tumors?

A

parathyroid, medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma

31
Q

MEN2b tumors?

A

medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma, mucosal and gastrointestinal neuromas

32
Q

What is the recommended treatment for syphilis?

A

long acting benzathine penicillin G 2.4 mill U SQ * 1

33
Q

NMS symptoms?

A

FARM - fever, auto instab, rigid, MS change

34
Q

Medically managed NSTEMI, EF 50%. What will decrease mortality: nitrate, plavix, smoking cessation, spiro?

A

Plavix, spiro if EF decreased/CHF

35
Q

What are the landmarks of the spinal cord?

A

cord ends at L1-2, L4 cauda ends

36
Q

What is true about the MOCA compared to MMSE?

A

More sensitive (LR 9.6), both specific

37
Q

What is most suggestive of hyperaldo?

A

Hypokalemia

38
Q

Class I indications for MV surgery for MR?

A

Severe + symptomatic (acute or chronic)

Severe + asymptomatic + LVEF 30-60% and/or LVESD > 40

39
Q

Young man, mass, + bHCG +AFP?

A

non-seminoma

40
Q

Young man, mass, + bHCG

A

seminoma

41
Q

What are the biochemical - serum and urinary of Barter’s?

A

hypokalaemia, alkalosis, normal to low blood pressures, and elevated plasma renin and aldosterone. high urinary potassium and chloride despite low serum values

42
Q

Gitelmans affects which transporter?

A

NaCl (like a thiazide diuretic)