random 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When is a balloon pump contraindicated

A

aortic valve insufficiency

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2
Q

What is integrative medicine

A

Brings conventional and complementary approaches together in a coordinated way

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3
Q

3 goals of technology in nursing

A

capture tasks performed, enhance scope of practice and EBP, make practice knowledge driven

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4
Q

4 nursing informatics roles

A

practice, education, government, industry

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5
Q

what is nursing informatics

A

manage and communicate data, information, and wisdom

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6
Q

Benchmarking

A

compares/measures services against other healthcare national organizations

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7
Q

four core principles of benchmarking

A

maintain quality, improve customer satisfaction, improve safety, continuous improvement

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8
Q

What is peer review? and why do you want to do it?

A

Formalized review required for magnet recognition

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9
Q

5 components of establishing rapport/professional therapeutic relationships

A

nonjudgement approach, mutual trust, professional boundaries, confidentiality, cultural competency

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10
Q

2 components of cultural competency

A

respect, spiritual needs

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11
Q

Advanced directive

A

patient’s intent regarding medical treatment

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12
Q

healthcare directive may include what?

A

living will or durable power of attorney

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13
Q

What is a living will, what can it include

A

written compilation of statements that specifies which life prolonging measures

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14
Q

what is a durable power of attorney; another name? when is it honored?

A

“proxy/agent/attorney-in-fact” usually significant other or someone else in charge of articulating advanced directive; must be in writing before it is honored

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15
Q

Title 1 of HIPAA

A

health insurance coverage when they change or lose jobs

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16
Q

title 2 of HIPAA; known as?

A

“administrative simplification provisions”; establishes national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers

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17
Q

who enforces HIPAA

A

Office of civil rights

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18
Q

HIPAA security rule

A

national standards for security of electronic protected health information

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19
Q

Patient safety rule

A

confidentiality provisions which protect identifiable info being used to analyze patient safety events and improve patient safety

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20
Q

What are healthcare clearing houses

A

process nonstandard health information data received from another entity into a standard (like standard electronic formats)

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21
Q

What are covered entities that are required to follow HIPAA regulations

A

health plans, government programs that pay for healthcare (medicare, medicaid), most health care providers, health clearing houses

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22
Q

PSQIA

A

Confidential voluntary reporting system regarding patient safety issues

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23
Q

strongest method to evaluate teaching

A

return demonstration

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24
Q

le fort fracture of skull; 3

A

1: floating palate; 2: floating maxilla; 3: floating face

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25
Q

2 goals of healthy people 2030

A

increase quality and years of healthy life; eliminating health disparities

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26
Q

Common reporting statutes

A

criminal acts/injury; STDs (G/C/S); HIV; TB; animal bites; suspected child/elder abuse

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27
Q

key elements of palliative care

A

early identification, impeccable assessment, treatment of pain and other problems (psychosocial/spiritual)

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28
Q

Who sets standard for reimbursement and cutting costs

A

medicare

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29
Q

third party payers

A

medicare, medicaid, commercial indemnity insurers, commercial management organizations (hmos), business/schools wanting health services for employees/students

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30
Q

How much does medicare reimburse

A

80%

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31
Q

5 levels of physical exam documentation to determine levels of E/M services

A

problem focused, expanded problem focused, detailed, comprehensive

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32
Q

Medicare A - what services

A

INPATIENT; every gets at 65 years - hospitalization/inpatient, SNF, home health and/or hospice associated with inpatient event

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33
Q

Medicare B - what services and cost

A

OUTPATIENT; physician services, outpatient, labs/diagnostics, medical equipment, some home health; premium that is paid monthly

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34
Q

How much of physician reimbursement does the NP get for services provided in collaboration with physician

A

85%

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35
Q

How much does Medicare reimburse for physician services, how much does patient pay

A

80%; patient pays for 20%

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36
Q

Medicare C

A

A+B=C; can receive all healthcare services through provider organizations under part C (like hmos, PPOs)

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37
Q

Medicare D

A

limited prescription DRUG coverage; requires monthly premium and copay with each prescription

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38
Q

Medicare requirements for NPs (3)

A

state license, certification by national certifying body, MS degree

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39
Q

How much of the physician fee does an NP get reimbursed for procedures?

A

80% of the 85% physician fee schedule rate

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40
Q

incident to billing rate requirements

A

Services billed under physician provider number gets 100%; physician initiates plan, NP can continue, physician must be available in the suite; not allowed inpatient

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41
Q

Do NPs need physician order to bill for NP home visits under medicare A?

A

No, NPs can bill under their own NP provider number

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42
Q

When do NPs need a physician order to bill under NP provider number for home visits?

A

if NP is providing nursing services only

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43
Q

Medicaid benefits state to state

A

vary, and made after other insurance/third party payments have been made

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44
Q

QA/QI/Continuous process improvement (CPI)

A

Management process of monitoring, evaluating, continuous review, and improving the quality in providing health care

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45
Q

What is quality assurance

A

evaluating patient care using established standards of care to ensure quality

46
Q

QSEN initiative

A

part of quality assurance; aimed at providing future nurses with knowledge/skills/attitude to ensure CQI

47
Q

6 key competencies in QSEN

A

patient centered care, teamwork and collaboration, EBP, QI, safety, informatics

48
Q

critical path

A

key patient care activities and time frames for activities needed for specific diagnosis related groups (drg)

49
Q

critical map

A

newer version of critical path that is a blueprint for planning and managing care by all disciplines

50
Q

root cause analysis

A

tool for identifying prevention strategies to ensure safety; builds culture of safety, move beyond culture of blame

51
Q

sentinel events

A

unexpected occurrences of death, injury, risk; requires need for immediate investigation/response; root cause analysis must be conducted in response to sentinel event

52
Q

How does scope of practice vary

A

varies by state

53
Q

state practice act

A

authorize boards to establish license authority, prescriptive authority, disciplinary grounds

54
Q

prescriptive authority

A

depends on state nurse practice acts

55
Q

credentials

A

encompasses required education, license, and certification; minimal levels of acceptable performance

56
Q

why are credentials necessary

A

ensure safe care is provided, comply with federal/state laws

57
Q

what does licensure establish

A

person is qualified to perform in particular professional role; granted by state board

58
Q

what does certification establish

A

establishes certain standards which signify MASTERY of specialized knowledge/skills; granted by nongovernmental agencies

59
Q

When were nonphysician providers granted hospital staff membership and by who?

A

1983, joint commission

60
Q

most common method documentation for risk management

A

incident reports

61
Q

why are satisfaction surveys important

A

helps identify problems before developing into actual incidents/claims

62
Q

6 action taking initiatives for risk management

A

prevention, correction, documentation, education, departmental coordination

63
Q

two kinds of medical futility

A

quantitative and qualitative

64
Q

quantitative futility is

A

likelihood an intervention will benefit the patient is extremely poor (number of interventions will not make a difference)

65
Q

qualitative futility

A

quality of benefit an intervention will produce is extremely poor

66
Q

7 Ethical principles

A

nonmaleficence (do no harm); utilitarianism (greatest good for greatest number); beneficence (prevent harm, promote good); justice (be fair); fidelity (faithful); veracity (truthful); autonomy (respect right to choose)

67
Q

who were the first NPs

A

pediatric NPs

68
Q

When did NPs move to inpatient?

A

managed care, hospital restructuring, and decreases in medical residency programs

69
Q

4 distinct roles for the nurse practitioner

A

clinician, consultant/collaborator, educator, researcher

70
Q

11 major steps in research process

A

formulate problem, review literature, formulate hypothesis, select study design, identify population, specify methods of data collection, design study, conduct study, analyze data, interpret results, communicate findings

71
Q

3 kinds of research

A

non experimental, experimental, qualitative

72
Q

2 categories of nonexperimental study designs

A

descriptive and ex post facto

73
Q

descriptive study design aims

A

describe situations, experiences, phenomena as they exist

74
Q

ex post facto (in the past) or correlation research aims and examples

A

examine relationships among variables (cross sectional (surveys of relationship between variables), cohort (compares outcomes in similar groups with certain different characteristics), longitudinal (multiple measures over time to find relationships between variables)

75
Q

experimental/quasi experimental aims

A

manipulates variables using randomization and a control group to test effects of intervention; quasi does the same but lacks comparison (control) or randomization

76
Q

qualitative study types and aims

A

case studies, field studies, observation; explore phenomena or behaviors

77
Q

potential problems in qualitative studies

A

researcher bias, generalizability of findings,

78
Q

Type 1 error

A

false positive; incorrectly rejecting true null hypothesis

79
Q

type 2 error

A

false negative; failing to reject null hypothesis which is false

80
Q

meta analysis vs meta synthesis

A

analysis: test hypotheses using numerous QUANTITATIVE studies to systematically assess results of previous research; synthesis: analyze data across QUALITATIVE studies to build new theories

81
Q

PICOT

A

framework to answer clinical based question: patient (population), intervention, comparison, outcome, timing

82
Q

Levels of evidence hierarchy

A

1a: systematic review RTCs; 1b: systematic review of non randomized; IIa: single RTC; IIb: single non randomized; III systematic review of correlational/observational; IV: single correlational/observational study; V: systematic review of qualitative study (animals, lab studies); VI: single qualitative; VII: opinions

83
Q

Confidence interval

A

interval with specified probability including the parameter being estimated ; small interval implies precise range of values

84
Q

standard deviation; % of sample within one SD, % within two SD

A

average amount of deviation of values from the mean; 68% within one SD, 95% of population within 2 SD

85
Q

level of significance

A

probability level of which results indicate statistically significant difference between groups; probability of false rejection of the null hypothesis in a statistical test

86
Q

perfect correlation

A

measure of interdependence of two random variables ranging from -1 to +1

87
Q

correlation of -1

A

perfect negative correlation

88
Q

correlation 0

A

absence of correlation

89
Q

correlation +1

A

perfect positive correlation

90
Q

T test

A

evaluates differences in means between two groups

91
Q

reliability

A

consistency of measurement over time with same subject; reflects estimated repeatability

92
Q

how does internal consistent estimate reliability?

A

groups questions in a questionnaire that measures the same concept, do those two groups of questions reliably measure the concept when tested for correlation?

93
Q

Cronbach’s alpha

A

measures correlation among questions on instruments, closer to one = higher reliability; (optimal is equal to or greater than .70

94
Q

difference between test/retest and internal consistency

A

test retests involves two administrations of measurement instrument, internal consistency involves only one

95
Q

reliability vs validity

A

reliability is consistency of measurement, validity is degree to which the variable measures what it is intended to measure

96
Q

liability terms

A

legal responsibility when NP fails to meet standard of care

97
Q

negligence

A

failure of individual to do what a reasonable person would do

98
Q

malpractice

A

failure to render services in way that causes harm

99
Q

assault

A

threat of bodily harm with ability to cause harm

100
Q

battery

A

illegal, angry, violent, physical harm

101
Q

defamation

A

communication that causes damage to reputation

102
Q

involuntary committment

A

duty to commit someone when they are in danger of hurting himself or others; NPs liable if patient is discharged while still in danger

103
Q

Use of restraints

A

Must document exact reason, liable if excessive restraints employed or no document of reason, or safety checks not charted

104
Q

Good Samaritan statues

A

protects NPs from lawsuits who aid scene of accident and render care within scope of practice

105
Q

Incidence

A

frequency of disease at a given time, rate of new cases during specific time

106
Q

prevalence

A

proportion of population affected by disease during particular time

107
Q

primordial prevention

A

in childhood, to prevent development of risk factors

108
Q

primary prevention

A

modifying risk factors to prevent development of disease

109
Q

secondary prevention

A

screening, early identification and treatment of existing problems

110
Q

tertiary

A

rehab, restoration of health

111
Q

culturally and linguistically appropriate services, 3 of 14 CLAS standards

A

5: offer and provide language assistance at no cost; 6: provide written/verbal notices in preferred language; 7: assure competence of language assistance provided - don’t use family