Random Flashcards

1
Q

The accepted thresholds for therapy (based on the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines) are to prevent prolonged elevations of the ICP higher than ____ and to maintain the cerebral perfusion pressure greater than ____

Goal is: ____ but no evidence to support lowering BP to get there

Equation for CPP?

A

Prevent prolonged elevations of the ICP higher than 22 mm Hg and to maintain the cerebral perfusion pressure greater than 50 mm Hg.

CPP goal of 50 to 70 mm Hg.

CPP = MAP − ICP

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2
Q

VZV Exposure management of HCP

A
  1. Give vaccine if they don’t have it (ideally within 3-5 days post-exposure, later is ok too)
  2. If can’t get vax (pregnant) or at risk for severe disease: Varicella-zoster immune globulin
  3. Keep HCP non-vaxxed or non immune away from patients for 8 to 21 days after exposure
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3
Q

Hypothermia
- K
- glucose

Rewarming
- K
- glucose

A

K goes intracellular-> hypoK
Low metabolism so hyperBG

K comes out-> hyperK
Glucose gets used-> hypoBG

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4
Q

Treatment of severe V vulnificus necrotizing fasciitis

A

Double coverage with ceftazidime and doxycycline is recommended

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5
Q

No remdez if

A

LFTs>10x
or crcl<30

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6
Q

Mycobacterium marinum is an aerobic, weakly pathogenic photochromogenic nontuberculous bacteria found in marine and brackish waters worldwide.

It typically causes:

Tx:

A

Nonhealing granulomatous skin infections in humans by direct inoculation.

Combination clarithromycin plus trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a preferred treatment.

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7
Q
A

Characteristics of pressure support include triggering of each breath by patient effort (decrease in airway pressure), consistent inspiratory pressure among breaths, and variable duration of inspiration among breaths.

Also shows ineffective trigger asynchrony.

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8
Q
A

Graphic display of pressure vs time (top), flow vs time (middle), and volume vs time (bottom) for SIMV mode with volume control breath (arrow) on right and pressure support breath on left.

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9
Q
A

Electrical activity of the diaphragm (Edi) (bottom, light green)

The yellow bars highlight the variable duration of inspiration with pressure supported spontaneous breaths. The yellow arrows identify ineffective triggering, and the green arrow identifies diaphragmatic electrical activity.

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10
Q
A

Ventilator graphics demonstrating SIMV mode with presence of double-trigger asynchrony (closely positioned breaths 2 and 3).

Double triggering is often seen when there is a prolonged inspiratory effort exerted by the patient in the setting of a relatively brief set inspiratory time

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11
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause serious infection in patients with ____ or ____.

A

diabetes or leukemia

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12
Q

In patients with____ P aeruginosa most characteristically is associated either with a water-exposed wound that secondarily develops cellulitis or with an aggressive form of otitis externa (ie, malignant otitis externa) in which the organism becomes highly invasive, often eroding through skin and into bone in the external canal and infratemporal fossa.

A

Diabetes

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13
Q

In patients with ____, granulocytopenia is usually the major predisposition to bloodstream infection with P aeruginosa.

A

leukemia

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14
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum is the classic skin lesion encountered in patients with neutropenia with sepsis due to P aeruginosa and appears as

A

Hemorrhagic bullae on an erythematous base

Can also happen from other types of bacteremia but 75% are from pseudomonas

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15
Q

CSF profile in HSV-1 typically demonstrates:

A

Increased WBC count and lymphocytosis but the majority of patients also have an elevated RBC count

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16
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF)
- when?
- initial px?
- when does the rash start?
- charateristic labs?
- CSF: wbc and protein?

A

Spring and early summer

Presents with fever, nausea, vomiting, and headache.

Maculopapular rash that typically starts 48 to 96 h after fever onset.

Characteristic thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and elevated transaminase levels

CSF WBC typically <100/μL [<0.1 × 109/L] with a higher elevation of protein (100-200 mg/dL

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17
Q

Weakness from neuroinvasive WNV

A

Acute flaccid paralysis syndrome has similarities to poliomyelitis, as the virus affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord.

A key feature of the weakness associated with WN virus is that it is asymmetric

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18
Q

Indications for early surgical treatment in infective endocarditis includes
1. valve dysfunction leading to signs or sx of heart failure
2. persistent and uncontrolled infection evidenced by persistent bacteremia and/or fever after more than 5 days of appropriate antibiotics.
3. ??

Consideration if:
1. IE caused by highly resistant or fungal organisms
2. recurrent emboli or enlarging vegetations despite appropriate antibiotic therapy
3. ???

A
  1. heart block, annular or aortic abscess, or other destructive, paravalvular lesions (eg, the patient in this case)
  2. large (>10 mm) vegetations, especially when large vegetations are associated with valvular regurgitation.
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19
Q

Some organisms (“SPICE” or “ESKAPE” organisms, including E cloacae, Citrobacter freundii, Serratia marcescens, Providencia stuartii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Hafnia alvei, and Morganella morganii) have inducible resistance through chromosomally encoded ampC genes.

Clinically, the risk for emergent AmpC-mediated resistance is greatest for ___

A

Enterobacter species, which includes Klebsiella aerogenes

Treatment with cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, or a carbapenem is an evidence-based recommendation by the Infectious Diseases Society of America.

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20
Q

ARREST trial

OHCA from VF or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and no ROSC after three shocks

Required estimated transport time less than 30 min from activation of the ECMO team, patients 18-75

Result of trial?

A

Improved outcomes with eCPR compared with standard ACLS in patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA) and VF

Survival rates of 43% vs 7% Favorable neurologic outcomes in survivors

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21
Q

Acute onset fever, dry cough and progressive shortness of breath in a healthy patient with association to smoke, sandstorm, dust, or burning oil exposure

A

Acute eosinophilic pneumonia

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22
Q

Diagnosis of acute eosinophilic pneumonia

IMG?
Peripheral eosinophilia?
BAL?

A

Diffuse, bilateral, pulmonary opacities, and sometimes small pleural effusion more easily appreciated on CT images.

Peripheral eosinophilia is absent early in disease

BAL eosinophilia (>25% and often much higher), after exclusion of infection, vasculitis, or other known inciting factors, is highly supportive of an AEP diagnosis.

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23
Q

Acute eosinophilic pneumonia treatment and prognosis

A

AEP is treatable with corticosteroids, rapid improvement over weeks is typical, and relapse is rare. Smoking cessation should be strongly encouraged.

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24
Q

Fulminant form of diffuse lung injury that initially presents with fever, cough and shortness of breath

A

Acute Interstitial Pneumonia

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25
Q

Clinical course of Acute Interstitial Pneumonia

A

Rapid onset (1-2 weeks), diffuse lung injury-> unexplained ARDS with 50% mortality

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26
Q

Treatment of Acute Interstitial Pneumonia

A

Supportive care + steroids

Cyclophosphamide is sometimes used.

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27
Q

Diagnosis of AIP

A

Clinical syndrome of idiopathic ARDS and histologic confirmation of diffuse alveolar damage

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28
Q

FIrst line treatment for submassive or intermediate risk PE?

A

Both the American College of Chest Physicians and American College of Cardiology guidelines recommend against routine use of catheter-directed thrombolysis in patients with submassive or intermediate-risk pulmonary embolism.

Just anticoagulate

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29
Q

Tx of PE + SBP<90 or 40mmHg drop in SBP?

A

Lytics

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30
Q

Tx of massive PE (SBP<90 or 40 drop in BP) in patients with high risk of bleeding

A

Catheter-directed thrombolysis can be considered

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31
Q

Studies evaluating intermediate-risk PE + thrombolytics

A

Reduced incidence of hemodynamic decompensation with lytics but increased bleeding, especially intracranial.

Overall, the mortality rate was similar between thrombolytics and systemic anticoagulation at both 7 and 30 days.

Bleeding risk was especially high in people >75

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32
Q

Retained hemothorax (RH)

A

Hemothorax that remains “retained” in the pleural space despite drainage by catheter (either pigtail or chest tube)

Risk factor for infection (empyema) and formation of fibrothorax and trapped lung.

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33
Q

Management of Retained hemothorax (RH)

A

Guidelines recommend early (within 4 days) drainage of RH via VATS-> shorter hospital stays and greater cost savings

Alternative treatment of RH includes intrapleural fibrinolytic therapy via chest tube or pigtail catheter.

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34
Q

Hemothorax management: Drain unless ____

Other ways to manage?

A

Size is quite small (<500 mL)

Pigtails have similar complication rates to chest tube but better tolerated

Consider embolization of vessel

Failure to respond to these measures is an indication for thoracotomy.

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35
Q

ESBL-producing bacterial bloodstream infection (ceftriaxone non-susceptible)

A

MERINO trial, a multicenter, open-label, noninferiority, randomized controlled trial, compared piperacillin/tazobactam with meropenem for definitive treatment of ESBL-producing E coli and ESBL-producing Klebsiella bloodstream infections

Higher mortality rate with zosyn compared to meropenem

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36
Q

Lung abscess management
- which abx
- duration?
- when to consider biopsy, thora, chest tube or surgery

A
  • Prolonged antibiotics (6 weeks - 6 months), starting with IV for 1-2 weeks
  • Treat with b-lactam + lactamase inhibitor, carbapenem or clindamycin
  • Consider surgical resection if no response to treatment or >6cm
  • High mortality c emergent surgery
  • Thoracentesis, chest tubes, and transthoracic biopsies should not be attempted, as they can contaminate the pleural space and lead to empyem
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37
Q

OUD managed with buprenorphine or buprenorphine-naloxone as an outpatient who present with acute critical illness

A

Continue outpatient regimen

Maximizing nonopioid analgesia strategies and adding short-acting opioids as needed

Consider dose reduction if maintenance dose is high (eg, >16 mg total daily dose) or if pain control is still inadequate after providing adequate doses of short-acting opioids.

Consider dose reduction in severe hepatic dysfunction

No renal adjustment, no dialysis adjustment

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38
Q

ARDS Network low tidal volume trial

Larger tidal volumes and higher airway pressures were associated with significantly better oxygenation and mechanics but _____

A

Worse mortality

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39
Q

Recruitment Manuvers

Result in improved oxygenation and lung mechanics but significant adverse _____ during RM. Also showed increased ______ despite better P/F

A

Significant adverse hemodynamic effects during RM

Increased all-cause mortality

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40
Q

PPI for VAP?
PPI for mortality or length of ICU stay?

A

Positioning patients with the head of the bed elevated to 30° to 45° is recommended

Routine gastric residual monitoring, PPI and early parenteral nutrition have not been shown to be effective in preventing VAP

Several multicenter clinical studies show that PPI does not reduce the rates of nosocomial pneumonia, mortality, or ICU length of stay.

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41
Q

NUTRIREA-2 study

Nutrition delivered via the enteral and parenteral routes in patients who were critically ill and being treated with mechanical ventilation and vasopressors

A

Similar outcomes however enteral nutrition route resulted in more mesenteric ischemia and colonic pseudo-obstruction

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42
Q

ARDS Network EDEN study demonstrated that trophic feeding rates for the first 6 days resulted in similar clinical outcomes as advancing enteral feeds to goal rates as soon as safely possible, with lower incidence of:

A

Gastrointestinal complications

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43
Q

NUTRIREA-3 study

Compared
- Lower calorie (6 kcal/kg/day) and lower protein administration (0.2 g/kg/day)
- Advancing to goal calorie and protein rates as soon as possible

Patients who were receiving mechanical ventilation and vasopressors during first 7 days of enteral feeding

A

Outcome
- Similar 90-day mortality rates
- Faster time to readiness for ICU discharge in the lower calorie and protein group
- Fewer gastrointestinal complications

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44
Q

Serum creatinine increase of ≥0.5 mg/dL or a relative increase of ≥25% in the 48 to 72 h after the administration of contrast material when other potential causes of AKI have been excluded

A

CIN

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45
Q

Major risk factors for CIN?
- age >70
- CKD
- concomitant use of nephrotoxic drugs
- 2 other chronic conditions
- 2 acute conditions

A
  • diabetes and CHF
  • shock and hypovolemia
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46
Q

Association between CIN and risk of dialysis or death

A

Patients who received radiocontrast had a similar need for dialysis and a similar risk of death as did the patients who did not receive radiocontrast. This finding was independent both of the type of radiocontrast and of the presence of diabetes and chronic kidney disease.

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47
Q

IVF or hemodialysis to prevent CIN?

A

No significant difference in incidence of AKI between patients who received peri-CT IVF

No benefit from attempting to remove contrast with hemodialysis

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48
Q

Treatment of acute chest syndrome

A

ACS is often precipitated by infection, so empiric antimicrobial treatment for pneumonia to cover bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae along with atypical bacteria (such as Mycoplasma and Chlamydia) should also be started.

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49
Q

Esophageal tamponade
- duration?
- management during use?
- pressure target?

A

Temporizing measure only to stabilize the patient for further treatments as soon as possible.

Only use for 24-48 h

Deflate every 12 h

Monitor pressure every hour

Maintain at 30-45 mm Hg (high enough to tamponade venous bleed without blocking critical perfusion)

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50
Q

INTUBE observational study

Evaluate incidence and nature of adverse peri-intubation events in international patients undergoing tracheal intubation in ICU, ER and ICU

A

Cardiovascular instability occurred in 42% of patients (SBP<65 x1 or <90 x 30 minutes, or new/increased pressors or fluid bolus)

Severe hypoxemia (SpO2 <80%) in 22% -> decreased to 10% with bag-mask ventilation

Difficult intubation (>2 attempts) in 5%

Aspiration of gastric contents in 4% (not made worse using BVM)

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51
Q

ESCAPE trial

RCT often cited as evidence that PAC does not change outcomes in patients with heart failure

Excluded: patients with recent inotropic therapy

Severe prospective series have reported improved outcomes, including decreased in-hospital mortality, when pulmonary artery catheters are used in patients with cardiogenic shock.

Indications:

A

Failure to respond to empiric inotropic therapy and uncertainty about intravascular volume status-> help with titration of diuretics and vasoactive agents to maximize cardiac output while minimizing arrhythmias and myocardial oxygen consumption.

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52
Q

Use of PAC to obtain complete hemodynamic data before initiation of temporary mechanical circulatory support is associated with:

A

Decreased mortality from all-cause cardiogenic shock.

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53
Q

IABP for cardiogenic shock?

A

Compared with no mechanical circulatory support, IABP use was not associated with a reduction in mortality

Only venoarterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation plus IABP was associated with favorable outcomes compared with no mechanical support

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54
Q
A

Ineffective Triggering

Insufficient change in airway pressure or flow to meet the ventilator’s set parameters to trigger breath

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55
Q

Ineffective Triggering is caused by:

A

Auto-PEEP
Low respiratory drive
Weak inspiratory muscles
Partial ETT obstruction
High trigger sensitivity

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56
Q
A

Double Triggering (premature cycling)

Two or more positive pressure breaths occur in short succession with an incomplete expiration between them, resulting in large tidal volumes

57
Q

Double Triggering (premature cycling) occurs when:

A

Ventilator’s inspiratory time is set to a shorter duration than the patient’s inspiratory time

Appropriate adjustments include:
- Increasing tidal volume
- Increasing inspiratory time
- Increasing sedation

58
Q

Two or more positive pressure breaths occur in short succession with an incomplete expiration between them, resulting in large tidal volumes

A

Double triggering (premature cycling)

59
Q
A

AUTO-TRIGGERING (Extra triggering)

Ventilator delivers a positive-pressure breath without patient initiation or appropriate time-cycling

60
Q

When does AUTO-TRIGGERING (Extra triggering) occur?

A

Occurs in the setting of a circuit leak, fluid in the ventilator circuit, chest tube leak, or vibrations related to ventilator tubing or cardiac oscillations

61
Q
A

FLOW DYSSYNCHRONY (Target dyssynchrony)

Occurs when the set ventilator flow rate is lower than the patient’s desired flow rate.

The pressure-time graph shows concave inspiratory deflections because the patient produces increased negative inspiratory pressures to drive increased inspiratory flow

62
Q

What dyssynchrony occurs when ventilator flow rate is lower than the patient’s desired flow rate?

A

Flow dyssynchrony (target dyssynchrony)

63
Q

How to fix flow dyssynchrony or target dyssynchrony?

A

Increasing ventilator flow rates typically resolves this problem

Or change to pressure control ventilation

64
Q
A

Cycle Dyssynchrony

Occurs when the duration of the ventilator-delivered breath does not match the patient’s desired breath duration

65
Q

Cycle dyssynchrony occurs when the duration of the ventilator delivered breath does not match the patient’s desired breath duration.

If ventilator breath is shorter than the patient desires, the patient _____. The airway pressure curve will be _____ and _______ will occur after the ventilator breath terminates.

This can result in:

A

may exert continued inspiratory effort

pulled downward

reversal of expiratory flow

double triggering

66
Q

Cycle dyssynchrony occurs when the duration of the ventilator delivered breath does not match the patient’s desired breath duration.

If ventilator breath is longer than the patient desires, the patient will begin _____ during a positive-pressure inspiration, producing ___ with increased expiratory flows

A

active expiration during a positive pressure inspiration

end-inspiratory peak pressure elevations with increased expiratory flows

67
Q

Cycle dyssynchrony

A

Ventilator breath is longer than the patient desires so patient begins active expiration during a positive-pressure inspiration, producing end-inspiratory peak pressure elevations with increased expiratory flows

68
Q

Antibiotic duration for inpatients with gram-negative bacteremia who were afebrile and hemodynamically stable for at least 48 h and who had adequate source control

A

7 days of antibiotics was non-inferior to 14 days

Oral step-down within first 5 days of bacteremia was non-inferior to full IV course

69
Q

Cumulative percentage of time over a 24-hour period that free (unbound) antibiotic exceeds the minimal inhibitor concentration

  1. Which category
  2. Example?
A

Time-dependent killing
B-lactam antibiotics

70
Q

Defined by the peak concentration in a dosing interval divided by the MIC

A

Concentration-dependent killing

Aminoglycosides
Daptomycin

71
Q

Determined by the area under the curve (AUC) over a 24 hour period divided by the MIC

A

Concentration-dependent with time-dependent killing

Fluoroquinolones
Tigecycline
Linezolid
Vancomycin

72
Q

Serum IgE levels may be helpful to identify patients with:

A

Severe, poorly controlled asthma who may benefit from the addition of targeted biologic therapy

73
Q

Tryptase levels peak at:

Remain elevated for at least:

A

60 to 90 min after an anaphylaxis event

5 hours

74
Q

Serum histamine is a more sensitive marker of anaphylaxis than ___ but ___

A

Tryptase

Only remains elevated for 30 to 60 min after symptom onset

75
Q

Angioedema is self-limited, localized subcutaneous or submucosal swelling that can occur in isolation, with urticaria, or in association with anaphylaxis.

Initial evaluation includs:

If low:

A

Complement protein C4 level.

Low levels should prompt further evaluation for hereditary or acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency, including a C1 inhibitor antigen and functional levels

76
Q

Drugs that interfere with poc glucose measurements?

A

Ascorbate (vitamin C)-> false elevated

Less predictable: mannitol, acetaminophen, icodextrin (a peritoneal dialysate), and dopamine

77
Q

Flu-like illness (fever, headache, cough, sore throat, and arthralgias) that may have a erythematous face rash

A

Parvovirus B19

78
Q

Factor VIII is ____ in DIC because of ongoing consumption

A

reduced

79
Q

Factor VIII is ____ in liver disease because much of it is made by non-hepatic endothelial cells

A

normal or increased

80
Q

If any A + B:

A: flu-like illness OR neuro w/u OR tox w/u or hyperlactemia w/u OR cohabitants sick together

B: winter OR using any fuel-burning device OR burn victim or methylene chloride (paint striper )

A

Check carboxyhemoglobin level!

81
Q

Oxygen saturation gap in carbon monoxide poisoning means:

A

Pulse oximetry is close to 100% compared to low PaO2 on ABG

82
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin in non-smokers:

Smokers:

A

0-3

0-10% (?15)

83
Q

Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Give 100% FiO2 (HFNC> regular)

Target low-normal pCO2 (35-40)

Maintain hemodynamics

Avoid fevers

Consider regular transfusion (exchange transfusion usually not quick enough since half-life of CO is ~1 hour when giving 100% FiO2)

Hyperbaric if resources permit, especially if pregnant. More beneficial if given early (<6 hours)

84
Q

Bright red venous blood (+ high central venous oxygen saturation >75%)

A

Consider cyanide poisoning

85
Q

Smoke inhalation in an enclosed space plus
- AMS
- soot in nares/mouth
- full arrest (without full body burns incompatible with life)

A

Treat with hydroxycobalamin!

86
Q

Venous PO2 similar to arterial PO2 with profound lactic acidosis (>8)

A

Consider cyanide toxicity

87
Q

Fires (similar to CO toxicity)

Burning of nitrogen-containin polymers (plastic, wool, silk), pestaside creation

Chemical weapon

Peach, pear, apricot or crab apple pit

Prolonged use of Nitroprusside

A

Cyanide

88
Q

_____ binds directly to cyanide and creates a harmless metabolite called cyanocobalamine, which is cleared by kidneys

A

Hydroxocobalamin (vitamin B12)

89
Q

“cyanide antidoate package” which contains sodium nitrite, amyl nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate
- can cause:

A

methemoglobinemia
Avoid if concomitant CO toxicity

90
Q

Impairs oxygen delivery to tissues and, importantly, binds to the cytochrome C oxidase site of mitochondria, which is the primary site of oxygen consumption.

This in turn impairs aerobic metabolism and decreases adenosine triphosphate production, which leads to cellular dysfunction and is ultimately fatal.

A

Carbon monoxide

91
Q

Binds the ferric ion (Fe3+) of cytochrome oxidase a3, inhibiting its enzymatic activity in the mitochondrial cytochrome complex and uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation. The result is anaerobic metabolism to produce adenosine triphosphate and

A

cyanide

92
Q

Oxidizing substances converts the iron in hemoglobin to _____, which is incapable of binding to oxygen. Resulting in inadequate oxygen transport.

A

Methemoglobinemia

93
Q

Medication Triggers for Methemoglobinemia

  • Topical for EGD or TEE
  • IV/po/inhaled
  • Antibiotics (4)
  • Chemo (2)
A
  • Benzocaine
  • Nitroglycerine, iNO, nitroprusside, oral nitrate
  • dapsone, rifampin, sulfonamides, anti-malarials
  • Rasburicase, cyclophosphamide
94
Q

Toxin/environmental triggers of Methemoglobinemia

A

Anti-freeze
Hydrogen peroxide
Fertilizers, weed killers, plastics, dyes, paints, rubber

95
Q

Methemoglobinemia
Levels
< 2 %
3- 15%
20 - 30%
>40%

A

Normal
Asymptomatic

Fatigue, tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety, dizziness, nausea, vomiting

Seizure, coma, arrhythmia

96
Q

Cyanosis + oxygen saturation above 80%

A

Methemoglobinemia (usually need lower O2 for cyanosis)

97
Q

ABG with high PaO2 (>100mm) despite pulse ox 80-90%

A

Methemoglobinemia

98
Q

Indications for Methylene blue

A

Symptoms or level >30%

If not high enough to treat, you need to trend and be ready to treat

99
Q

Contraindications to Methylene blue

  • Options?
A

G6PD or high risk for serotonin syndrome

  • Risk of giving it-> drop NADPH levels, leading to hemolysis (but methemoglobinemia by itself can cause hemolysis) and there are different types of G6PD, which determine risk for hemolysis
  • Call toxicologist
  • Can use IV vitamin C and Riboflavin (vitamin B2), or try methylene blue (especially if african american), or consider exchange transfusion
100
Q

If no improvement within minutes after giving 2mg/kg of methylene blue?

A

Consider G6PD if no improvement after 2mg/kg

Rebound can occur after 4-12 hours with some agents or large volume

101
Q

Osmolar gap

A

Calculated osmolarity= measured - calculated

2NA + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 + etoh/4.6

(can be falsely normal)

102
Q

Of the 4 toxic alcohols, which have elevated AG and which have elevated OG

A

All 4 will typically have elevated OG

  • Methanol and ethylene glycol will have AG
  • sometimes ethanol does too
103
Q

2 toxic alcohols in anti-freeze

A

isopropyl alcohol and ethylene glycol

104
Q

If garage fluids + AG + OG

A

Fomepizol
Hemodialysis if severe acidosis, large ingestion, severe CNS depression, AKI or any visual impairment

105
Q

Drank windshield wiper fluid, now with vision impairement

  • AG
  • OG
  • which alcohol
  • tx
A

Methanol/moonshine (my eyes)

+AG, +OG

Fomepizole and dialysis

106
Q

Drank rubbing alcohol, now has elevated ketones but no AG

  • which alcohol
  • tx
A

Isopropyl alcohol
Supportive care

107
Q

Indication for Hydroxyurea in sickle cell patient?

A

Prophylaxis in patient’s with multiple vaso-occlusive crises/year

Decreases risk of ACS

No role in acute management

108
Q

Which BBB is a risk for PA catheter insertion?

A

Pre-existing LBBB because when you insert, you can cause transient RBBB which can lead to complete heart block

109
Q

Lab abnormalities after salicylate ingestion

  1. Acid base
  2. BMP
  3. detection
  4. which coags
A

Primary respiratory alkalosis (due to hyperventilation caused by the effect on the medullary respiratory center): elevated pH low pCO2

AGMA with elevated lactate (due to impaired oxidative phosphorylation resulting in an increased anaerobic metabolism)

Hypoglycemia

High salicylate level (>30 mg/dL)

Coagulopathy (impairs vitamin K+-dependent coagulation factors)

110
Q

Ingestion leads to non-specific symptoms including fever, N/V, tinnitus, abdominal pain and neuro symptoms including dizziness, hallucinations or coma.

Results in hyperventilation caused by the effect on the medullary respiratory center, resulting in:

A

Salicylate (aspirin (150mg/kg), wintergreen oil, slicyclic acid (wart remover)).

Primary respiratory alkalosis with HAGMA

111
Q

How to avoid death spiral of salicylate toxicity

One thing that can precipitate it

Watch/correct:

A

Intubating can precipitate because you take away their attempt to compensate

Alkalinization with bicarb to keep it in the non-toxic form that leads to absorption until salicylate level is below 40

Fluid status (usually need a good amount of resuscitation) and electrolytes (K/glucose)

112
Q

Salicylate toxicity most commonly presents:

A

as a mimic of sepsis, meningitis or pneumonia

113
Q

When to consider hemodialysis for salicylate toxicity?

A

Altered mental status or noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema requiring supplemental oxygen

Salicylate level >100 mg/dL
80 -90 if renal dysfunction or despite fluid resuscitation

pH < 7.2 despite supportive care (e.g. bicarbonate)

114
Q

Spontaneous esophageal rupture from vomiting can result in chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema. Can lead to left pneumothorax and left pleural effusion.

  1. Next step?
  2. If thoracentesis is performed, pleural fluid is exudative, with a low pH and extremely high ____ level
  3. Risk?
  4. Treatment
A

Assessment for possible esophageal leak by fluoroscopic study would be the next appropriate step

Exudative, with a low pH and extremely high amylase level, due to saliva spillage.

Once mediastinal and pleural infection become entrenched, which happens quickly, sepsis and high mortality characterize this process.

Definitive repair by thoracotomy in most cases, sometimes stenting via endoscopy is an option

115
Q

Muscle weakness with painful spasms and rigidity that starts in the jaw and spreads downward. Associated with autonomic instability

A

Tetanus

116
Q

Treatment of tetanus includes wound care/debridement, administration of ____ and ___.

Supportive care, which may include benzos and _____.

No benefit to giving ____

A

+ human tetanus immunoglobulin
+ antibiotics (high-dose penicillin G or metronidazole)

+ NMB

Tetanus toxoid in vaccine has no use in treating tetanus

117
Q

Superficial infection (keratitis or onychomycosis) in immunocompetent host

Sinusitis, endophthalmitis, pneumonia, skin involvement, and fungemia in immunocompromised patients

A

Fusarium species mold infection

118
Q

Invasive fungal infection in patient with prolonged neutropenia and widely disseminated skin lesions

A

Mold infection with Fusarium species

Skin lesions: reddish gray macules, some with central ulceration but others with black eschar formation, consistent with the angioinvasive property of Fusarium

119
Q

Patient with malignancy, on posaconazole prophylaxis is at risk for which type of fungal infection?

A

Fusarium species

Similar to Aspergillosis but Fusarium typically has more skin lesions and positive blood cultures

120
Q

Colorless vapor with strong odor (freshly moved hay or green corn)

Industrial accident or terrorist attack

A

Phosgene

121
Q

Symptoms of Phosgene

  1. High concentration on initial exposure
  2. Low concentration over prolonged exposure
A

High concentration on initial exposure: Mucous membrane and eye irritation, cough, chest tightness-> leave area and do ok

Low concentration over prolonged exposure: Delayed cough, dyspnea, tachypnea and respiratory distress-> non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (around 8 to 48 hours post)

122
Q

Treatment of phosgene (carbonyl dichloride) exposure

A

Supportive
No meds have shown benefit

123
Q

Exposure to green-yellow gas that smells like bleach

A

Chlorine gas

124
Q

Symptoms of chlorine gas exposure

A

Immediate eye, mucus membrane and upper airway symptoms

125
Q

Cholinesterase (acetylcholinesterase) inhibitor toxicity
- blocks normal breakdown of acetylcholine

Caused by organophosphates (nerve agents) or carbamates (insecticides)

Result in nicotinic _____ and muscarinic (SLUDGE) symptoms

A

Nicotinic: tachycardia, muscle twitching, paralysis and seizure

S: salivation
L: lacrimation
U: urination
D: diaphoresis
G: GI upset (N/V/D)
E: eyes (miosis)

126
Q

Organophosphates poisoning results in ____ toxicity

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity (acetylcholinesterase toxicity)

Symptoms:
- muscarinic: SLUDGE
- nicotinic: twitching, seizures

127
Q

Treatment of organophosphate toxicity
- Muscarinic symptoms
- Nicotinic symptoms
- seizures:

A
  • atropine (may require high doses)
  • Pralidoxime (asap!)
  • benzos
128
Q

Painless pustular lesions on exposed areas with central necrosis (black eschar) and regional lymphadenopathy

A

Bacilus anthracis
Anthrax

129
Q

Mediastinal widening, pleural effusions, hemorrhagic alveolitis

A

Antrax/ Bacilus anthracis

130
Q

Gram stain showing encapsulated gram- positive, “boxcar”- shaped bacilli

A

Anthrax, bacillus anthracis

131
Q

First line treatment for Anthrax
- Includes antimicrobial AND **

A

we actually don’t know. seems like giving a bacteriasidal agent (meropenem or clidamycin) and a protein-synthesis inhibitor is reasonable (doxycycline or ciprofloxacin)

Antitoxin Therapy: Monoclonal Antibodies (Raxibacumab or Oblitoxaximab) or Anthrax Immunoglobulin

132
Q

Monoclonal antibody therapies (REGN-EB3 and mAB114) for Zaire variant of ***

A

Ebola

133
Q

Exposure to white powder results in pulmonary edema, cough and fever

A

Inhalation of ricin (protein toxin from castor bean)

Ingestion: vomiting and bloody diarrhea

Usually 4-6 hours after exposure

134
Q

Treatment of ricin exposure

A

Supportive

135
Q

Double vision, slurred speech with weakness that spreads down entire body

A

Botulism causes descending paralysis with bulbar palsies and GI symptoms

136
Q

Which bioterrism agents have a specific anti-toxic or immunoglobulin

A

Botulism (anti-toxin)
Anthrax (monoclonal antibody or immunoglobulin)
Tetanus (immunoglobulin)

137
Q

Anti-viral therapy: tecovirimat for severe disease and immunocompromised patients

A

Monkeypox

138
Q
A