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AGPCNP Board Exam > Random > Flashcards

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1
Q

​​What is the preferred medication for a patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF):
​a. Furosemide
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Beta-blockers

A

B

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2
Q

All of the following can be used to treat chronic
generalized anxiety disorder in an older adult except:
a. SSRI
b. Buspirone (Buspar)
c. Cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
d. Quietipine (Seroquel)

A

D

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3
Q

Which of the following topical medications can be used to treat post-herpetic neuralgia:
​a. Capsaicin cream
b. Hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment
c. Clotrimazole cream
d. Diphenhydramine cream

A

A

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4
Q

Which of the following drugs can exacerbate the symptoms of GERD:
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Diuretics
c. Proton pump inhibitors
d. Antacids

A

A

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5
Q

A 15 year old high school athlete complains of a painful area below both knees. He tells you they feel bone-like and are tender to palpation. He denies any hot joints, fever, rash, or difficulties with weight-bearing. Which of the following conditions is most likely:
​a. osteomyelitis
b. internal tibial torsion
c. Osgood-Schlatter Disease
d. Calve-Perthe’s Disease

A

C

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6
Q

Sue D., a 30 year old bank teller, tells the nurse practitioner during a routine physical that she forgot to take her birth control pills for 2 consecutive days (or 2 days in a row) during week two of the pill cycle. The NP would recommend which of the following:
​
a) Take two pills now, then two pills the next day and use condoms until at least seven days of active pills have been taken in a row.
b) Throw away the current package and start a new pill cycle.
c) Use condoms and throw away the two forgotten pills, then start a new pill cycle
d) Take two pills today, then one pill daily until the next pill cycle

A

A

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7
Q

Which cranial nerve is the nurse practitioner assessing with the Rinne and the Weber test:
​a) CN 7
b) CN 8
c) CN 9
d) CN 3, 4, and 6

A

B acoustic (auditory) nerve

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8
Q

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in pregnant women:
​a. amoxicillin (Amoxil)
b. cephalexin (Keflex)
c. isotretinoin (Accutane)
d. acetaminophen (Tylenol)

A

C

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of gynecological cancer deaths among women in the U.S.:
​a. breast cancer
b. ovarian cancer
c. endometrial cancer
d. endocervical cancer

A

C

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10
Q

Which type of cancer has the highest mortality in males and females:
​a. Colon cancer
b. Lung cancer
c. Liver cancer
d. Skin cancer

A

B

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11
Q

What is the precursor lesion of squamous cell carcinoma:
​a Basal cell carcinoma
b. Actinic keratosis
c. Melanoma
d. Eczema

A

B

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12
Q

The CDC recommends which group should be tested at least once with the Hepatitis C antibody test:
​a. People born from 1945 through 1965
b. People born from 1966 through 1975
c. People born from 1976 through 1985
d. People born from 1986 through 1995

A

A

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13
Q

A 13 year old female patient who is allergic to erythromycin and sulfa drugs has a positive strep culture. Which of the following pharmacologic agents would you recommend:
​a) clarithromycin (Biaxin) 500mg po BID x 10 days
b) penicillin 250mg po QID x 10 days
c) levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500mg po daily x 7days
d) trimothoprim-sulfamethazole (Bactrim DS) one tablet BID x 10 days

A

B

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14
Q

A 35 year old woman has a history of mitral valve prolapse (MVP) and is scheduled for a root canal the next day. She tells the NP that she needs an antibiotic before undergoing the procedure.
Which of the following is the best option for the NP to follow:
​a) Write a script for amoxicillin 2 g before and 1.5 g after the procedure.
b) Write a script for amoxicillin 2 g one hour before the procedure
c) According to the American Heart Association’s latest guidelines, there is no need for prophylaxis before dental procedures if the patient does not have a prosthetic valve or does not have a history of infective endocarditis.
d) Tell the patient that prophylaxis before certain procedures is still recommended.for patients with her diagnosis

A

C

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15
Q

Balanitis is caused by which of the following organisms:
​a. staphylococcus aureas
b. stroptococcus pyogenes
c. candida albicans
d. tinea fungi

A

C

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16
Q

(Blank) is more likely to be seen in uncirmcumcised males especially diabetic males and those who are immunocompromised (ie: HIV/AIDs).

A

balanitis

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17
Q

What type of immunity is less active in the elderly:
​a. Cell-mediated immunity
b. Humoral immunity
c. Total immunity
d. Passive immunity

A

A

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18
Q

A 70 year old ex-smoker has a diagnosis of COPD, hypertension, and DJD. The color of the patient’s phlegm has changed to a green color the past few days. The patient is not febrile, but his dyspnea is worsening. Which of the following is recommended:
​a. Oxygen at 2/L by nasal cannula
b. Start patient on an antibiotic
c. Albuterol: saline nebulizer treatments
d. Increase fluid intake because many elderly patients become dehydrated when ill.

A

B

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19
Q

Patients who are smokers with COPD and CAP are more likely to become infected with which organism:
a. Strep pneumoniae
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
d. Hemophilus influenzae

A

D

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20
Q

Hemophilus influenzae: gram negative or positive bacteria?

A

gram negative

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21
Q

Which of the following heart sounds is found in the majority of patients diagnosed with acute heart failure:
a. S1, S2
b. S1, S2, S3
c. S1, S2, S4
d. S1, S2, S3, S4

A

B

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22
Q

The bell of the stethoscope is best used for auscultation of which of the following heart sounds:
a. S3 and S4 and low-pitched tones
b. S3 and S4 only
c. S1 and S2 and high-pitched tones
d. S1 and S2 only

A

A

23
Q

All of the following are possible sequelae from acute pharyngitis caused by strep pyogenes except:
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Acute mononucleosis
d. Reactive arthritis

A

C

24
Q

The Auspitz sign is seen in:
a. Eczema
b. Psoriasis
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Tinea versicolor

A

B

25
Q

What are the top two causes of dementia?

A

alzheimers and vascular dementia

26
Q

(Blank) is a smooth red and sore tongue (inflammation), it can occur in conditions such as pernicious anemia (B12 deficiency), celiac diseaser, Sjogren’s syndrome, chemotherapy, allergies

A

glossitis

27
Q

positive Rovsing’s sign = (blank)

A

appendicitis

28
Q

(Blank) causes sensorineural hearing loss (inner ear only).

A

Meniere’s disease

29
Q

(Blank) reduce urinary calcium excretion, it can be used to treat hypertension in older women with osteopenia/osteoporosis

A

Thiazide diuretics

30
Q

What are small white lesions/papules clustered on the buccal mucosa by the posterior molars?

A

Koplik’s spots

31
Q

Koplik’s spots are pathognomic for measles or (blank)

A

rubeola

32
Q

(Blank) is a sensitive test for heart failure.

A

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP or B-type natriuretic peptide)

33
Q

(Blank) is when a woman stops to menstruate for 3 or more months.

A

Secondary amenorrhea

34
Q

(Blank) = Most common cause is pregnancy, other causes are breastfeeding, stress, low body weight, excessive exercise, PCOS, pituitary tumor (check for high prolactin levels).

A

Secondary amenorrhea

35
Q

(Blank) can damage the liver. It is an herb used for anxiety and insomnia.

A

Kava

36
Q

(Blank) = Do not combine with CNS depressants, hypnotics, or drugs that can be hepatotoxic.

A

Kava

37
Q

(Blank) is used to help with diagnosis and stratification of the degree of arterial blockage (PAD, PVD) in the lower extremities.

A

Ankle-brachial index (ABI)

38
Q

Positive Kernig (hip) and Brudzinski (neck) signs, suspect (blank)

A

meningitis

39
Q

An NP is performing a physical exam on an adult who is complaining of a new onset of mid-abdominal pain. Which of the following medical ethical concepts is the NP performing:

1) Non-malfeasance
2) Veracity
3) Justice
4) Beneficience

A

4

40
Q

(Blank) in healthy pregnant women may appear in the 3rd trimester due to high cardiac output (physiologic finding)

A

S3

41
Q

Macrolides (especially erythromycin) have many drug interactions that can be serious. The macrolide with the least number of drug interactions is (blank).

A

azithromycin

42
Q

A patient who presents with fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, tonsillar exudate, and fine maculopapular rash most
likely has:
a. streptococcal pharyngitis
b. secondary syphilis
c. pharyngeal candidiasis
d. mononucleosis

A

D

43
Q

An adult presents with complaints of difficulty swallowing, muscle weakness, diarrhea, sweating, jitteriness, and fine
hand tremors at rest. Laboratory tests reveal WBCs = 7300 cells/μL [normal = 4000-10,000 cells/μL], sodium = 138
mEq/L [normal = 135-145 mEq/L], potassium = 4.5 mEq/L [normal = 3.5-5 mEq/L], TSH = 0.05 μU/mL [normal = 0.4-
5.4 μU/mL], and free thyroxine (FT4) = 2.9 mcg/dL [normal = 4.5-11.5 mcg/dL]. Which of the following would be the
nurse practitioner’s next step?
a. encourage the patient to take over-the-counter kelp.
b. start methimazole, 10 mg daily.
c. start levothyroxine, 50 mcg every morning.
d. order an iodine-123 thyroid uptake scan.

A

B

44
Q

To determine the presence of postural hypotension, blood pressure should be taken in which of the following
positions?
a. sitting to standing
b. supine to sitting
c. supine to standing
d. standing to supine

A

C

45
Q

Conductive hearing loss involves the:
a. inner ear
b. middle ear
c. 5th cranial nerve
d. 8th cranial nerve

A

B

46
Q

A 78-year-old patient presents with complaints of left-sided “rib pain” during the past few days. The patient also
complains of headache, a feverish feeling, and general malaise. Physical examination reveals an area of papular
eruptions with a few vesicles on the left side of the chest. The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is:
a. herpes zoster
b. eczema
c. intertrigo
d. actinic keratosis

A

A

47
Q

An older female with urinary stress incontinence should be instructed to:
a. perform abdominal strengthening exercises twice a day
b. perform pelvic floor muscle (Kegel) exercises 100 times per day
c. perform pelvic floor (Kegel) exercises 35-40 times per day
d. void frequently

A

C

48
Q

An adult diagnosed with hypertension has been treated with a low sodium diet and hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 50
mg daily for the past two months. The patient denies a family history of cardiovascular disease. At this visit,
BP=150/90 and T=I00 F. Physical examination reveals no bruits, clear chest, no atrial gallop, edema and tenderness
of the left ankle, and an intact neurological system. Which laboratory values will provide the most useful follow-up
information?
a. serum sodium and potassium
b. total serum cholesterol and serum glucose
c. serum uric acid and complete blood count
d. blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

A

C

49
Q

A 38-year-old patient presents at the clinic with fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, and decreased exercise tolerance.
Laboratory work reveals the following: Hgb = 10.8 (normal value = 12–15.5 g/dL), Hct = 34% (35%–45%), MCV = 78
(80–100 fL), MCHC = 28 (31–36 g/dL). The nurse practitioner would recognize that these values indicate which type
of anemia?
a. normocytic hypochromic
b. macrocytic hyperchromic
c. microcytic hypochromic
d. normocytic normochromic

A

C

50
Q

An older adult presents with a history of recurrent right upper quadrant pain associated with intermittent nausea and
vomiting. Laboratory tests reveal isolated elevations of serum alkaline phosphatase and normal amylase levels.
Physical examination results are within normal limits. The tentative diagnosis is:
a. biliary obstruction
b. peptic ulcer
c. chronic pancreatitis
d. hepatic dysfunction

A

A

51
Q

A 16-year-old patient presents with an edematous ankle. Your examination reveals a pinpoint wound at the lateral
aspect of the ankle and X-rays show a distal fibular fracture. In addition to managing the fracture, which intervention
is most appropriate?
a. administer tetanus prophylaxis and submit wound scraping for culture
b. irrigate the wound and apply topical antibiotic
c. administer tetanus prophylaxis and prescribe oral antibiotics
d. apply topical antibiotic and cover the wound with a sterile dressing

A

C

52
Q

The hormone responsible for producing a positive pregnancy test is:
a. human chorionic gonadotropin
b. estradiol
c. human growth hormone
d. progesterone

A

A

53
Q

A 24-year-old patient complains of intermittent heartburn, which has become worse since starting a new job. The
discomfort is worse after eating and at night and is relieved by antacids. Your most likely diagnosis is:
a. diffuse esophageal spasm
b. infectious esophagitis
c. gastroesophageal reflux disease
d. carcinoma of the esophagus

A

C

54
Q

An obese, 58-year-old patient presents with mild fatigue over the past month. The nurse practitioner takes a history,
performs a physical examination, and orders fasting laboratory work. Hct = 49%, TSH = 3.2, glucose = 128 mg/dL,
and cholesterol = 289 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. hypothyroidism
b. anemia
c. depression
d. type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

D

AGPCNP Board Exam (1 decks)

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