Random Flashcards

1
Q

statins RFs

when to stop

who gets it

A

include advanced age, female sex, low body mass index and presence of multisystem disease such as diabetes mellitus. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin) than relatively hydrophilic statins (rosuvastatin, pravastatin, fluvastatin)

3x upper limit

Who should receive a statin?
all people with established cardiovascular disease (stroke, TIA, ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease)
following the 2014 update, NICE recommend anyone with a 10-year cardiovascular risk >= 10%
patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should now be assessed using QRISK2 like other patients are, to determine whether they should be started on statins
patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago OR are aged over 40 OR have established nephropathy

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2
Q

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes

A

If the patient is symptomatic:
fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/

C-peptides low

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3
Q

first line Mx for neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

tramadol is rescue therapy

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4
Q

organism after influenza A

A

staph aureus

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5
Q

most common bone mets place

A

The spine is the most common site for bone metastases due to its high content of red marrow, which contains many blood vessels that provide a suitable environment for tumor cells to grow. Additionally, the spine’s venous plexus allows for easy access of circulating tumor cells to the vertebral column.

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6
Q

In which conditions should uliprilsal be used in caution

A

severe asthma

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7
Q

Diagnosis of a mesothelioma

A

is made on histology, following a thoracoscopy

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8
Q

when to screen for diabetes in first time pregnant woman

A

All obese (BMI>30) women should be screened for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks

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9
Q

worst prognostic factor for melanoma

A

Melanoma: the invasion depth of the tumour is the single most important prognostic factor

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10
Q

Meningitis in children < 3 months mX

A

give IV amoxicillin in addition to cefotaxime to cover for Listeria

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11
Q

CT changes for HSV encephalitis

A

medial temporal and inferior frontal changes (e.g. petechial haemorrhages) - normal in one-third of patients

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12
Q

Mx of osteoporosis

A

1st line - oral alendronate
then denosumab - diarrhoea, dyspnoea
rare hypocalcaemia, URTI

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13
Q

HOCM sound

A

ejection systolic murmur, louder on performing Valsalva and quieter on squatting

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14
Q

First line treatment for leigonella

A

macrolide - clartihromycin

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15
Q

RF for adhesive capsulitis

A

Diabetes mellitus

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16
Q

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), formerly known as Wegener’s granulomatosis.

A

The combination of ENT, respiratory and renal involvement

upper respiratory tract: epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting
lower respiratory tract: dyspnoea, haemoptysis
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (‘pauci-immune’, 80% of patients)
saddle-shape nose deformity
also: vasculitic rash, eye involvement (e.g. proptosis), cranial nerve lesions

17
Q

scarlet fever features

A

Group A haemolytic streptococci
2-6 years
malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting
sore throat
‘strawberry’ tongue
rash - sandpaper

oral penicillin V for 10 days

complications
otitis media: the most common complication
rheumatic fever: typically occurs 20 days after infection
acute glomerulonephritis: typically occurs 10 days after infection
invasive complications (e.g. bacteraemia, meningitis, necrotizing fasciitis) are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness

18
Q

nitrogen washout test

A

differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes. The infant is given 100% oxygen for ten minutes after which arterial blood gases are taken. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease

19
Q

Drug to maintain PDA

A

PG E1

19
Q

Ix for coeliac disease

A

TTG IgA
Gold standard
Endoscopic intestinal biopsy

villous atrophy
crypt hyperplasia
increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes
lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes

19
Q
A

renal transplant
fever
BL pneumonia, deranged LFT and lymphadenopathy

19
Q

Ix for acromegaly

A

IGF 1 measurements
oral glucose tolerance test with serial GH measurements

20
Q

adjuvant treatment in HER2+ breast cancer treatment

A

transtuzmab

21
Q

at what age does children start walking at

A

13-15 months

22
Q

when do you start antibiotics in whooping cough and what is given

when are pregnant woman given vaccinationa

A

ram-negative bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

an oral macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin) is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread

Women who are between 16-32 weeks pregnant will be offered the vaccine.

23
Q

Discitis features

A

Back pain
General features
pyrexia,
rigors
sepsis
Neurological features
e.g. changing lower limb neurology
if an epidural abscess develops

six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy

need to be assessed for endocarditis

24
Q

features
Ix

A

abdominal pain - in acute mesenteric ischaemia this is often of sudden onset, severe and out-of-keeping with physical exam findings
rectal bleeding
diarrhoea
fever
bloods typically show an elevated white blood cell count associated with a lactic acidosis

CT

25
Q

Hypercalcaemia features

A

Features
‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’
corneal calcification
shortened QT interval on ECG
hypertension

26
Q

Types of heart block

A

First degree heart block
PR interval > 0.2 seconds

Second degree heart block
type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs
type 2 (Mobitz II): PR interval is constant but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex

Third degree (complete) heart block
there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes

27
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism in pregnant woman

A

First trimester - Porpylurathicil
then carbimazole

28
Q

Antibiotics used to treat MRSA

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

29
Q

Features of subclinical hypothyroidism
Mx

A

TSH raised but T3, T4 normal

TSH is > 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range
consider offering levothyroxine if the TSH level is > 10 mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart

TSH is between 5.5 - 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range
if < 65 years consider offering a 6-month trial of levothyroxine if:
the TSH level is 5.5 - 10mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart,and
there are symptoms of hypothyroidism
in older people (especially those aged over 80 years) follow a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used
if asymptomatic people, observe and repeat thyroid function in 6 months

30
Q

Define blindness

A

<3/60 with a full visual field and wearing glasses or contact lenses as prescribed.

31
Q
A