Random Flashcards

1
Q

statins RFs

when to stop

who gets it

A

include advanced age, female sex, low body mass index and presence of multisystem disease such as diabetes mellitus. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin) than relatively hydrophilic statins (rosuvastatin, pravastatin, fluvastatin)

3x upper limit

Who should receive a statin?
all people with established cardiovascular disease (stroke, TIA, ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease)
following the 2014 update, NICE recommend anyone with a 10-year cardiovascular risk >= 10%
patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should now be assessed using QRISK2 like other patients are, to determine whether they should be started on statins
patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago OR are aged over 40 OR have established nephropathy

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2
Q

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes

A

If the patient is symptomatic:
fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/

C-peptides low

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3
Q

first line Mx for neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

tramadol is rescue therapy

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4
Q

organism after influenza A

A

staph aureus

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5
Q

most common bone mets place

A

The spine is the most common site for bone metastases due to its high content of red marrow, which contains many blood vessels that provide a suitable environment for tumor cells to grow. Additionally, the spine’s venous plexus allows for easy access of circulating tumor cells to the vertebral column.

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6
Q

In which conditions should uliprilsal be used in caution

A

severe asthma

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7
Q

Diagnosis of a mesothelioma

A

is made on histology, following a thoracoscopy

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8
Q

when to screen for diabetes in first time pregnant woman

A

All obese (BMI>30) women should be screened for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks

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9
Q

worst prognostic factor for melanoma

A

Melanoma: the invasion depth of the tumour is the single most important prognostic factor

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10
Q

Meningitis in children < 3 months mX

A

give IV amoxicillin in addition to cefotaxime to cover for Listeria

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11
Q

CT changes for HSV encephalitis

A

medial temporal and inferior frontal changes (e.g. petechial haemorrhages) - normal in one-third of patients

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12
Q

Mx of osteoporosis

A

1st line - oral alendronate
then denosumab - diarrhoea, dyspnoea
rare hypocalcaemia, URTI

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13
Q

HOCM sound

A

ejection systolic murmur, louder on performing Valsalva and quieter on squatting

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14
Q

First line treatment for leigonella

A

macrolide - clartihromycin

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15
Q

RF for adhesive capsulitis

A

Diabetes mellitus

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16
Q

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), formerly known as Wegener’s granulomatosis.

A

The combination of ENT, respiratory and renal involvement

upper respiratory tract: epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting
lower respiratory tract: dyspnoea, haemoptysis
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (‘pauci-immune’, 80% of patients)
saddle-shape nose deformity
also: vasculitic rash, eye involvement (e.g. proptosis), cranial nerve lesions

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17
Q

scarlet fever features

A

Group A haemolytic streptococci
2-6 years
malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting
sore throat
‘strawberry’ tongue
rash - sandpaper

oral penicillin V for 10 days

complications
otitis media: the most common complication
rheumatic fever: typically occurs 20 days after infection
acute glomerulonephritis: typically occurs 10 days after infection
invasive complications (e.g. bacteraemia, meningitis, necrotizing fasciitis) are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness

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18
Q

nitrogen washout test

A

differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes. The infant is given 100% oxygen for ten minutes after which arterial blood gases are taken. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease

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19
Q

Drug to maintain PDA

A

PG E1

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19
Q

Ix for coeliac disease

A

TTG IgA
Gold standard
Endoscopic intestinal biopsy

villous atrophy
crypt hyperplasia
increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes
lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes

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19
Q
A

renal transplant
fever
BL pneumonia, deranged LFT and lymphadenopathy

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19
Q

Ix for acromegaly

A

IGF 1 measurements
oral glucose tolerance test with serial GH measurements

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20
Q

adjuvant treatment in HER2+ breast cancer treatment

A

transtuzmab

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21
Q

at what age does children start walking at

A

13-15 months

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22
Q

when do you start antibiotics in whooping cough and what is given

when are pregnant woman given vaccinationa

A

ram-negative bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

an oral macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin) is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread

Women who are between 16-32 weeks pregnant will be offered the vaccine.

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23
Q

Discitis features

A

Back pain
General features
pyrexia,
rigors
sepsis
Neurological features
e.g. changing lower limb neurology
if an epidural abscess develops

six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy

need to be assessed for endocarditis

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24
Q

features
Ix

A

abdominal pain - in acute mesenteric ischaemia this is often of sudden onset, severe and out-of-keeping with physical exam findings
rectal bleeding
diarrhoea
fever
bloods typically show an elevated white blood cell count associated with a lactic acidosis

CT

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25
Q

Hypercalcaemia features

A

Features
‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’
corneal calcification
shortened QT interval on ECG
hypertension

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26
Q

Types of heart block

A

First degree heart block
PR interval > 0.2 seconds

Second degree heart block
type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs
type 2 (Mobitz II): PR interval is constant but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex

Third degree (complete) heart block
there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes

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27
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism in pregnant woman

A

First trimester - Porpylurathicil
then carbimazole

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28
Q

Antibiotics used to treat MRSA

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

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29
Q

Features of subclinical hypothyroidism
Mx

A

TSH raised but T3, T4 normal

TSH is > 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range
consider offering levothyroxine if the TSH level is > 10 mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart

TSH is between 5.5 - 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range
if < 65 years consider offering a 6-month trial of levothyroxine if:
the TSH level is 5.5 - 10mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart,and
there are symptoms of hypothyroidism
in older people (especially those aged over 80 years) follow a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used
if asymptomatic people, observe and repeat thyroid function in 6 months

30
Q

Define blindness

A

<3/60 with a full visual field and wearing glasses or contact lenses as prescribed.

31
Q

H.Pylori complications

A

peptic ulcer disease, MALT, Gastric adenocarcinoma, IDA, Coronarits

32
Q

contraindication of MMR vaccine

A

undiagnosed neurological condition

33
Q

Mx of corneal abrasion

A

topical antibiotics

34
Q

Myelofibrosis feature

A

Myelofibrosis is associated with ‘tear drop’ poikilocytes on blood film

35
Q

Stroke Mx

A

aspirin 2 weeks then clopidogrel
in AF warfarin direct Xa inhibitor

36
Q

common cold is caused by

A

rhinovirus

37
Q
A
38
Q

how long does it take for finasteride to work

A

6 months

39
Q

Tx for hot flushes

A

SSRIs

40
Q

Mx of unilateral descended testis when to refer

A

3 months

41
Q

cyst management

A

pre menopausal
<5cm repeat US in 8-12 weeks

42
Q

if they are at high risk of developing what do we give

A

aspirin

43
Q

definition of HTN in pregnancy

A

Hypertension in pregnancy in usually defined as:
systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg
or an increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic

labetalol

44
Q

Mx of HTN in diabetic patients

A

ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are first-line regardless of age

45
Q

do we continue antcoag if DC cardioversion is successful

A

yes

46
Q

what is cushings triad

A

hypertension and bradycardia irregular breadthing
raised intracranial pressure

47
Q

when to give contraception or stop it in menopausal woman

A

> 50 stopped a year no contraception
<50 2 years stopped

48
Q

MS Mx
fatigue
spasticity
bladder dysfunction
oscillopsia

A

fatigue - amantadine
spasticity - baclofen and gabapentin
bladder dysfunction -
oscillopsia

49
Q

Mx of stress
urge incontinence

A

stress -> Duloxetine
Urge -> oxybutynin/ mirabegron

50
Q

Mx for keloid scarring

A

intralesional steroids

51
Q

antidote for antifreeze
antidote for organophosphate insecticide poisoning

A

fomepizole

atropine

52
Q

what type of anaemia can phenytoin cuase

A

megaloblastic anaemia

53
Q

which medication cannot be prescirbed with methotrexate

A

co-trimoxazole

avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently - increases risk of marrow aplasia
high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity secondary to reduced excretion

54
Q

kallmans syndrome

A

LH & FSH low-normal and testosterone is low

55
Q

isolation criteria
mumps
Rubella
measles

A

5 days from onset of glands
Rubella - 5 days from rash
Measels 4 days from rash

56
Q

how to wean off temazepam

A

switch to diazepam then wean off 2 1/2 months
as diazepam has a longer half life

57
Q

Mx of bacterial vaginosis

A

oral metronidazole

58
Q

ARMD
RFs
Dry v Wet

A

smoking FH advancing age
Dry - yellow deposits
wet - choroidal neovascularisation - in wet ARMD well demarcated red patches

Sx- distortion ->

Dry Mx zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A,C and E reduced progression

Wet Mx - anti vegf

59
Q

Adverse effects of sulphonylurea

A

hypoglycaemia, weight gain
avoid in breastfeedng and pregnancy

60
Q

Mx of umbilical hernia in children

A

resolve by 3 years of age

61
Q

Mx
Generalised tonic clonic seizures
Focal seizures
Absence seizures
Myoclonic seizures
Tonic or atonic seizures

A

Generalised tonic clonic seizures
males: sodium valproate
females: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

Focal seizures
first line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
second line: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide

Absence seizures (Petit mal)
first line: ethosuximide
second line:
male: sodium valproate
female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

Myoclonic seizures
males: sodium valproate
females: levetiracetam

Tonic or atonic seizures
males: sodium valproate
females: lamotrigine

62
Q

Mx of impetigo

A

localised hydrogen peroxide cream
topical fusidic acid

extensive oral fluclox

63
Q

Sx of HUS

A

HUS is associated with a triad of microangiopathic haemolytic uraemia, acute kidney injury and thrombocytopenia

64
Q

HSP features

A

Features of HSP are typically a non-blanching rash affecting the legs and buttocks, arthralgia and abdominal pain

65
Q

when to refer to maternal unit if you cant feel any kicks

A

24 weeks

66
Q

if a woman is rhesus -ve Mx

A

28 + 34 weeks

67
Q

antibody of drug induced lupus

A

antihistone

68
Q

which antibiotic lowers threshold for seizures

A

ciprofloxacin

69
Q

triad of shaken baby syndrom

A

Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma and encephalopathy is the triad of the shaken baby syndrome

70
Q

what does the grace score include

A

age ECG troponin renal function

71
Q

when can you given sidenalfil after MI

A

6 Months

72
Q

achalasia define

A

dysphagia both liquids and solids

73
Q

Rubella features

A

congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness and pulmonary artery stenosis

74
Q

Mx of blepharitis

A

hot compression and removal of lid debris

75
Q

donepezil cannot be used with what condition

A

bradycardia

76
Q
A