Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sports Medicine > Random > Flashcards

Random Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Sports Trivia flashcards
0
Q

What kind of force usually causes a tibial plateau fracture and which part of the plateau is usually involved?

A

A valgus force with axial loading. Majority involve the lateral plateau.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What has a worse prognosis, distal or proximal 2nd metatarsal stress fractures?

A

Proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Pellegrini – Stieda sign and what does it indicate?

A

Posttraumatic ossification near the MCL margin of the medial femoral condyle indicating an old MCL injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What structures are at the posterior lateral corner of the knee?

A

The posterior lateral joint capsule, biceps femoris tendon, lateral collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, fibular nerve, lateral head of the gastrocnemius muscle, posterior meniscal femoral ligament and lateral meniscus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the dial test?

A

It’s for assessing posterior lateral corner injuries. If there is increased external rotation of the tibia at 30° of knee flexion but not 90° of knee flexion, this indicates a posterior lateral corner injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is worse, a medial tibia stress fracture or anterior tibial stress fracture?

A

Anterior is worse since it is on the tension side. It takes 6 to 12 months to heal and should be treated with nonweightbearing and placed in a cast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What percent of cases of medial tibial stress syndrome are bilateral and what plane of motion will elicit pain?

A

50% are bilateral. Plantar flexion will elicit pain. That is where the tibialis posterior muscle attaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference in treating a Jones fracture versus another metatarsal fracture?

A

Jones fractures or the base of the fifth metatarsal fractures require casting and nonweightbearing for 8 to 12 weeks whereas other metatarsal fractures can be treated in a walking boot for 6-8 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment and most frequent direction of ankle fractures?

A

Surgery

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What physical exam findings will one see with tibialis posterior tendinopathy?

A

Too many toes sign as it is caused by pes planus. Treat with a UCBL orthosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the Ottawa ankle rules?

A

Obtain an x-ray if there is tenderness to palpation over the posterior aspect of the distal 6 cm of the tibia or fibula, or distal tip of medial or lateral malleolus, or inability to walk 4 steps immediately after injury and in the emergency department.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the Ottawa foot rules?

A

Obtain an x-ray of the foot if there is tenderness to palpation over the base of the fifth metatarsal, navicular bone or inability to walk 4 steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What would be considered a positive mortise view for syndesmotic injury on x-ray?

A

Tibiofibular clear space greater than 5 mm, tibiofibular overlap of less than 1 mm or medial tibiotalar clear space of greater than 4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definition of heat exhaustion and how do you treat?

A

Less than 40°C or 104°F. No end organ damage. Mild mental status changes. Treat with rapid cooling by putting ice packs at axilla, neck, groin or submerge in tub of ice water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the major determination in heat stroke that causes mortality?

A

It’s not how hot you get, but how long you’re hot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the definition of exertional heatstroke?

A

Greater than 40°C or 104°F. Will present with CNS dysfunction as cerebellar ataxia happens first.

Will be flaccid.

In classic heatstroke, skin will be hot and dry.

In exertional heatstroke, skin is moist with sweat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can an athlete start exercising after heat exhaustion or heat stroke?

A

Not until seen by physician for follow-up seven days after hospitalization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the physical adaptations to heat acclimatization?

A

1) Increased plasma volume
2) earlier onset of sweating
3) increased sweating rate
4) reduction in electrolyte content of sweat/urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should you stop cooling a person?

A

When they reach 101 to 102° or they start shivering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What temperatures are considered moderate and severe hypothermia?

A

Moderate is 32°C or less and you should go to the ER.

Severe is 28°C or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the recommended rate of rewarming to prevent after drop or rewarming shock?

A

Less than or equal to 2°C per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the four grades of frostbite?

A

1) numb red patch of skin with white or yellow plaques
2) Blisters with clear fluid (you can debride)
3) Blisters with purple fluid (don’t debride)
4) Freezing muscle or bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What medication can you give for prevention of acute mountain sickness?

A

Acetazolimide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Should you use nifedipine for HACE?

A

No, it is used for HAPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common area for barotrauma?

A

Middle ear. Treat with hyperbaric oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long should you wait to get on an airplane after diving?

A

At least 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are risk factors for exercise associated hyponatremia?

A

1) Ingesting too many fluids
2) Race time greater than four hours
3) Low body mass index
4) Possibly female gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How far apart should on course water stations be placed?

A

No closer than every 1.5 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a hyphema and how do you treat it?

A

Hemorrhage into the anterior chamber of the eye and you treated with a rigid nonocclusive shield, bed rest and avoid anticoagulants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When do you do treatment for a compression fracture?

A

Surgery is indicated if there is greater than 40% loss of the anterior body height or greater than 25° kyphotic deformity. Otherwise you can use a TLSO for three months

30
Q

What are the EKG criteria for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Prominent Q waves, deep negative T waves, ST depression, left axis deviation and a marked increase in QRS voltage

31
Q

What are the EKG findings for arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy?

A

Epsilon wave (small terminal notch just after QRS complex in leads V1 or V2), T-wave inversion in V2-V4, prolonged QRS greater than 110 ms and PVCs with left bundle branch block pattern

32
Q

How do you diagnose long QT syndrome by EKG in males and females?

A

Males greater than 470 ms and females greater than 480 ms

They can’t participate in competitive athletics

33
Q

What percentage of Marfan syndrome patients have inherited an autosomal dominant pattern and what are the only 2 single major manifestations in the various categories?

A

85%

Ectopia lentis and Dural ectasia

34
Q

What kind of EKG findings will you see with Brugada syndrome and what countries typically have patients that Brugada syndrome?

A

High take off and downsloping ST segment elevation in V1 – V3 and a right bundle branch block

It is more prominent in South Asians

35
Q

What are the EKG findings for Wolff – Parkinson – White syndrome?

A

Short PR interval, Delta wave (slurred upstroke of QRS complex) and prolonged QRS complex

36
Q

What test does the world anti-doping agency and the international Olympic committee medical commission feel is the best test to confirm exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?

A

Eucapnic Voluntary hyperpnea

37
Q

In order to use a beta-2 agonist in competition, what do you need to have completed?

A

Declaration of use only

38
Q

Can you use inhaled corticosteroids and leukotriene modifiers in competition?

A

Yes and you do not need documentation.

39
Q

What is the clinical presentation for vocal cord dysfunction?

A

Inspiratory strider versus asthma which has expiratory wheezing.

Treatment is reassurance and breathing exercises.

40
Q

What type of symptoms are common with a rectus hematoma?

A

Abdominal mass and low-grade fever is common. Have them contract their abdominal muscles and if the mass gets smaller it’s intra-abdominal and if it stays the same size it’s extra-abdominal.

41
Q

What are the three types of rectus abdomins hematomas?

A

Type I-Unilateral and does not cross fascial planes. Resolves in one month

Type II-Hematoma is intramuscular but crosses the fascial plane. It is usually bilateral. May require hospitalization and usually resolves within 2 to 4 months.

Type III-Hematoma may or may not affect the muscle and blood is observed between the transversalis fascia and the muscle or within the peritoneum. Usually requires hospitalization and possibly surgery. Resolves in three months.

42
Q

What is the presentation and treatment for acute arterial mesenteric ischemia?

A

Diffuse abdominal pain that becomes constant and is accompanied by vomiting, diarrhea and rectal bleeding. Inpatient hospitalization with bowel rest and IV hydration. Flexible sigmoidoscopy may be required.

43
Q

What level values do you have to monitor for exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A

Watch for hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia. Follow BUN and creatinine to assess renal function.

44
Q

Which athletes are most likely to have hematuria?

A

Swimmers

45
Q

What physical exam finding is indicative of testicular torsion and what is the timeframe for treatment in order to salvage the testicle?

A

Loss of cremasteric reflex

Less than four hours yields 90% salvage rate

46
Q

What are Piezogenic papules and how you treat it?

A

Skin colored papules on medial or lateral heel. Seen in heavy athletes or long-distance runners try treating with a heel cup

47
Q

What laboratory findings will you see with footstrike hemolysis?

A

Macrocytic anemia, reticulocytosis and a low haptoglobin

48
Q

What is the most common presentation for sickle cell disease?

A

The patient will come to a stop and possibly fall down, but will be conscious. No cramping or twitching.

49
Q

What thalassemia is protective in individuals with sickle cell trait?

A

Alpha thalassemia which has an excess of beta globin chains

50
Q

How does exercise help control hyperglycemia?

A

1) Glucose within muscle is used for energy
2) Glycogenesis of muscle glycogen
3) Glucagon and other hormone stimulates liver gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
4) Increases the number of slow twitch muscle fibers, increases mitochondrial enzymes, increases muscle capillaries
5) Increases number of glucose transporters on cell surfaces

51
Q

Does exercise help type one diabetics?

A

It does not help control their blood sugar levels as it does with type two diabetics

52
Q

How late after exercise can you see hypoglycemia and how do you prevent it?

A

It can happen up to 28 hours post activity. You prevent it by consuming 40 g of carbohydrate for every 30 minutes of intense exercise

53
Q

How should you adjust an insulin pump prior to exercise?

A

One hour prior to exercise reduce basal rate by 50%. If performing low intensity exercise decrease pre-meal bolus and leave basal rate unchanged.

54
Q

How do you handle an insulin pump in contact sports if they are participating less than one hour of activity and more than one hour of activity?

A

Less than one hour of activity stop insulin pump 30 minutes prior.

More than one hour of activity, decreased pre-meal bolus and give 50% of basal rate as injection each hour.

55
Q

What test should you order if someone has had amenorrhea for greater than six months?

A

Bone density screen

56
Q

How do you tell if a girl is not getting her menses because of hypothalamic and pituitary dysfunction on testing?

A

Low levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone

57
Q

How do you treat athletes who have amenorrhea secondary to exercise?

A

1) address eating disorder if present
2) Take time off such as two months or decrease training by 10%
3) Oral contraception if no contraindications (Smoker, hypertensive or migraines)
4) Calcium supplements 1.5 g per day and vitamin D 800 IU/day

58
Q

What decreases in pregnancy and what remains unchanged?

A

Decreased residual volume, oxygen reserve, hematocrit and hemoglobin.

Vital lung capacity does not change.

59
Q

When should you stop resistance exercise in the supine position when pregnant?

A

After the first trimester

60
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to aerobic exercise during pregnancy?

A

1) Restrictive lung disease
2) Hemodynamically unstable heart disease
3) Incompetent cervix
4) Multiple gestation at risk for premature labor
5) Persistent second or third trimester bleeding
6) Placenta previa after 26 weeks of just gestation
7) Preeclampsia
8) Premature labor or ruptured membranes

61
Q

Can you go diving if you have tubes in your ears or are pregnant?

A

No

62
Q

Can you initiate jogging during pregnancy?

A

No

63
Q

What sport can you not participate in with hepatitis B?

A

Boxing

64
Q

How long does it take for erythema migrans to develop?

A

One month

65
Q

What is the most common food allergy?

A

Wheat

66
Q

What is the drug of choice for cold induced urticaria?

A

Cyproheptadine (Periactin)

67
Q

What causes cholinergic urticaria?

A

Increase in body temperature such as during exercise, warm bath, stress or spicy foods.

Predominantly seen in 20 to 30-year-old patients. Will affect the neck and upper trunk.

68
Q

What’s the difference between urticaria and angioedema?

A

Urticaria affects the superficial dermis and angioedema affects the deep dermis.

69
Q

How do you diagnose cholinergic urticaria?

A

Methacholine challenge

70
Q

What kind of symptoms should make you think of lupus?

A

Unexplained fevers and unexplained symptoms of two or more organ systems

71
Q

What triggers reactive arthritis or Reiters syndrome?

A

Either a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection

Can’t see, can’t pee and can’t climb a tree.

Primarily a clinical diagnosis.

Treat with sulfasalazine

72
Q

What kind of symptoms will you see with psoriatic arthritis and what radiographic evidence will you see?

A

Skin manifestations, asymmetric arthritis and uveitis (can’t urinate)

On x-ray you’ll see pencil in cup deformity seen at the distal interphalangeal joints

Sports Medicine (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions