Radiology and ENT CIS Flashcards

1
Q

rules for x-rays are for what kind of film?

A

P-A

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2
Q

Inspiration vs Expiration

A

good inspiration –> less superior-inferior height, wider chest width, smaller heart shadow, less dense lung parenchyma

Poor inspiration–> more superior-inferior height, narrower chest width, larger heart shadow, more dense (whiter- less air in the alveoli) lung parenchyma

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3
Q

ABCDEFGHI Approach to reading x-rays

A

Assessment of quality

  • Position : AP, PA, or Lateral?
  • Inspiration: You should see 10 to 11 posterior ribs with a good inspiration
  • Exposure: good lung detail and an outline of the spinal column
  • Rotation: space between clavicle and adjacent vertebrae should be roughly equal

Bones and soft tissues
- Scan the bones for symmetry, fractures, osteoporosis, or metastatic lesions. Evaluate the soft tissues for foreign bodies, edema, or subcutaneous air.

Cardiac
- Evaluate the heart size: the heart should be less than 50% of the chest diameter on PA films and <60% on AP films. Check for heart shape, calcifications, and prosthetic valves.

Diaphragms
- Check diaphragms for position (the right is slightly higher than the left due to the liver) and shape (may be flat in asthma or COPD). Look below the diaphragms for free air.

Effusions
- Check the costophrenic angles for sharpness
Check a lateral film for small posterior effusions

Fields and fissures
- Check for infiltrates (interstitial vs. alveolar), masses, consolidation, air bronchograms, pneumothoraces, and bronchovascular markings.
Evaluate the major and minor fissures for thickening or fluid.

Great vessels
- Check aortic size and shape and the outlines of pulmonary vessels.

Hila and mediastinum
- Evaluate the hila for lymphadenopathy, calcifications, and masses. The left hilum is normally higher than the right. Check for widening of the mediastinum (which may indicate aortic dissection) and tracheal deviation (which may indicate a mass effect or tension pneumothorax).

Impression
- In most cases an impression is worthwhile as it not only forces you to synthesize all the findings together but acts as double check.

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4
Q

Things that look white on an x-ray

A

Effusions/Hemothorax

Consolidation (all white)
- +/- air bronchogram

Ground glass (all gray)
- Mosaic pattern (patchy normal black and abnormal white or gray)

Reticular (increased lines) - spiderweb looking

    • Reticulonodular (bumpy reticular pattern)
    • Crazy paving (reticular plus ground glass)

Nodular/tumors/masses

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5
Q

things that look black on x-ray

A

Pneumothorax
Emphysema
Cystic spaces with air
- Honeycoming

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6
Q

A 6 year old male presents with a severe sore throat. He has no other complaints (picture of infection on tonsils)

What should be done next on this patient?
Treatment? complications?

A

Streptococcal screen and/or cultures

Oral penicillin V or amoxicillin

complications:

Acute infectious: Retropharyngeal abscess, peritonsillar abscess, sinusitis, cervical lymphadenitis, otitis media, mastoiditis
Subacute autoimmune: Acute rheumatic fever (carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules) and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (hematuria, edema, and hypertension)
Chronic sequela of autoimmune reaction: Rheumatic heart disease

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7
Q

Group A Streptococcal Disorders: Acute

A
Purulent and self-limited:
Pharyngitis
Tonsillitis
Sinusitis
Otitis media
Arthritis
Osteomyeilitis
Impetigo
Cellulitis
Pneumonia
Necrotizing fasciitis
Sepsis

–> Toxin mediated:

Scarlet fever
(Erythrogenic toxin)

Toxic shock syndrome
(Toxic shock synd. toxin)

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8
Q

Group A streptococcal disorders: delayed

A

Immunological:
Acute rheumatic fever
(M protein)

Rapidly progressive acute (crescentic) glomerulonephritis
(Pyogenic exotoxin B)

Scarring:
Rheumatic valvular disease
Chronic renal failure

Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections (PANDAS)

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9
Q

A 13 y/o girl diagnosed with T- ALL was treated with chemotherapy and steroids. A few days after starting the third intensification block, she developed steroid induced diabetes mellitus, which was controlled with insulin. A week later she presented with a one day history of headache, fever, right orbital pain and impaired vision in the right eye. A day later, she developed proptosis with a round necrotic lesion over right nasal bridge. A CT scan and MRI of brain showed right paraorbital cellulitis, and bilateral ethmoidal and maxillary sinusitis with intracerebral fungal mass. The patient was placed on appropriate emperic medication but died within within 7 days of further spread of the disorder.

A

rhinocerebral mucormycosis

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10
Q

A 37 y/o male with presented with history of four months left sided nasal blockage and discharge associated with left facial pain and two episodes of large amount of epistaxis from left nostril. The left nasal cavity was occupied by a pinkish polypoid mass that did not extend to nasopharynx . No mass was seen in right nasal cavity.
CT scan reported as heterogeneous soft tissue mass seen in left maxillary sinus and nasal cavity with no extension to nasopharynx. Erosion of medial and posterolateral wall of left maxillary sinus noted. The mass was surgically removed. The tumor was reported as having two distinct components. The first was composed of nests of squamous epithelium with minimal atypia within a fibrous stroma invaginating into the underlying tissues and the second of a proliferation of vessels within a dense fibrous stroma.
Diagnoses and prognosis?

A

SINONASAL INVERTED PAPILLOMA AND ANGIOFIBROMA

Poor prognosis with recurrences.

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11
Q

A 57 y/o male presents with several hard lymph nodes in the right neck. A biopsy of one of the lymph nodes demonstrates nests of cells in a swirling pattern that have abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and intercellular bridges

diagnosis… and where is the primary?

A

Metastatic well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma.

Primary most likely in the neck region.

Examine skin (including the scalp and ear), nasal cavity and major salivary glands in the region 
Do radiographic studies and examine mucosae of the mouth, pharynx and larynx with biopsies off all regions, including the tonsils
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12
Q

An 11-year-old male patient presented with anorexia, weight loss and persistent cough with nocturnal paroxysms for the previous 4 weeks with occasional wheezing and chest tightness. No fever, chills, myalgia, sore throat, or rhinorrhea. Treated with amoxicillin, ebastine and bronchodilator therapy but did not improve. The cough was severe with occasional emesis and an end inspiratory whoop. PMHx unremarkable and he was vaccinated according to the National Vaccine Program.Examination temp 37°C , oxygen saturation 96%. Frequent, violent paroxysms of cough. The mucous membranes were moist and the pharynx was slightly injected without exudates. On auscultation had diffuse crackles and expiratory wheezes. A chest x ray was obtained.

A

Pneumonitis with whooping cough

Tuberculin skin test was negative. 
Gastric sample (no sputum) sent for microbiological studies and Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Bordetella pertussis DNA by PCRPCR was positive for Bordetella pertussis DNA

Clarithromycin for patient and all who came in direct contact with the patient. (Two family members developed symptoms of Bordetella pertussis infection)

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13
Q

Bordetella pertussis - Virulence factors

A

adhesins: filamentous hemagglutinin, pertactin, pertussis toxin PT subunits, fimriae

Toxins: Pertussis toxin (toxoid form in vaccine) (inactivates Gi –> increased cAMP and respiratory secretions), adenyl cyclase, tracheal cytotoxin, LPS

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14
Q

A 23-year-old man was found to have congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens during investigations for infertility. A detailed history revealed several previous episodes of acute pancreatitis.

A

cystic fibrosis

What studies should be performed?

Normal sweat test
Normal nasal potential difference study
Homozygosity for CFTR gene mutation

What is the location of the abnormal gene

Chr 7q31.2

Why was this patient not diagnosed earlier

Variable presentation of CF with mutations other than Δ508 or modifier genes
Mannose binding lectin 2, TGFβ1, interferon related developmental regulator 1, etc.

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15
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS Spectrum

A

Class I: complete lack of CFTR protein

Class II: most common (delta F508 gene mutation in 70%). CFTR degrades with complete lack on surface. Abnormal trafficiking, folding, processing.

Class III: defective regulation
Class IV: reduced function
Class V: reduced amount of normal
Class VI- altered regulation of separate ion channels; affect regulatory role of CFTR

Classic cystic fibrosis phenotype: two “severe” (I, II, or III) mutations
Less severe phenotype: “mild” (IV or V) mutation on one or both alleles

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16
Q

What transmembrane channels are affected by the abnormal CFTR structure?

A

CFTR regulates ion channels and cellular processes

  • Epithelial sodium channel (ENaC)
    responsible for intracytoplasmic sodium transport from the luminal fluid (rendering the luminal fluid hypotonic)
  • ENaC is inhibited by CFTR
    In cystic fibrosis, ENaC activity increases*, augmenting sodium transport (e.g. lungs and intestines)
    Exception: In sweat ducts ENaC activity *decreases in cystic fibrosis with both high chloride and sodium content in sweat
    Outwardly rectified * Cl- channels
    Inwardly rectified * K+ channels (Kir6.1)
    Mediates transport of * bicarbonate ions (anion exchangers SLC26)
  • acidic fluids are secreted leading to mucin precipitation
  • Gap junction channels
    Cellular processes involved in ATP transport and mucus secretion
17
Q

Features of Cystic Fibrosis: pulmonary

A

Chronic sinopulmonary disease:

  • persistent colonization/ infection (pseudomonas aeruginosa*, including alginate producing mucoid form)
  • bronchiectasis
  • airway obstruction
  • nasal polyps; need to test any child with recurrent sinonasal polyps fo rCF
  • digital clubbing
  • can develop cor pulmonale
18
Q

Features of cystic fibrosis: GI/ nutritional

A
  • meconium ileus
  • pancreatic insufficiency
  • multilobular cirrhosis
  • failure to thrive (protein-calorie malnutrition), vitamin A,D,K deficiency
    salt depletion; chronic metabolic alkalosis
    95% males infertile (absence of vas deferens)
19
Q

Kerley Lines

A

A=connective tissue near bronchoarterial bundle distends
B=distended interlobular septa
C=reticular network of lines-not related to specific structures

20
Q

capillaries are engorged and prominent, and there is an intra-alveolar granular pink transudate.
diagnosis?

A

cardiogenic edema

most common cause?

Increased hydrostatic pressure from left-sided heart failure is the most common cause of cardiogenic edema

What parts of the lung are likely to be more severely involved by congestion and edema?

Basal regions because hydrostatic pressure is greater.

What histologic findings can be present edema secondary to microvascular injury?

Intraalveolar fluid and hyaline membrane formation

21
Q

signs of chronic passive congestion

A

brown induration in long-standing pulmonary congestion- hemosiderin

What other conditions can also lead to alveolar hemosiderophages and how can we prove the presence of hemosiderin pigment?

Pulmonary thromboembolism, acute left-sided heart failure, Goodpasture syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis, etc.

Prussian blue stain for iron.

22
Q

A 30-year-old white woman presented to the emergency department with fever, chills, and SOB for 24 hours. She was well until 4 days earlier, when she noted pain on urination, followed shortly thereafter by pain in her left flank. She has diabetes treated with insulin. On arrival, B.P. 70/40 mm Hg, pulse 120 beats/min, R.R. 24 breaths/min, and T. 39 °C. Wet rales were present in both lungs, and there was tenderness in the left flank.
Laboratory results: WBC 14,000, 82% PMNs, 7% bands; hematocrit 26% with fragmented red blood cells on peripheral blood smear; platelets 25,000; PT 18 sec (9.8-11.9 sec), PTT 80 sec (23-32.5 sec); creatinine 4.8 mg/dL, glucose 600 mg/dL; urine cloudy with protein and PMNs; blood cultures eventually grew gram-negative bacilli.

X-ray shows Interstitial infiltrates bilaterally.

A

Suspect pneumonia with DIC and renal failure

She died on the second hospital day. At autopsy, her lungs were heavy, firm, red, and boggy. What happened?

She was sick but all of a sudden she got worse and died – suspect ARDS

What was the sequence of events in this patient and final outcomes?

Urinary tract infection → gram-negative septicemia → septic shock → DIC (w/ hemolytic anemia, diffuse alveolar damage (→ ARDS) & renal failure

What caused the radiographic interstitial infiltrates?

Protein-rich edema fluid +/- pneumonic process.

What is the composition of the hyaline membranes?

Fibrin-rich edema fluid mixed necrotic epithelial cells.

If the patient had survived, what would you expect to occur in the lung and what would be the subsequent histologic appearance?

Complete resolution may occur.
Hyperplasia of type II alveolar pneumocytes plus intra-alveolar fibrosis are common. Marked thickening of the alveolar walls and interstitial fibrosis may persist, giving rise to restrictive lung disease.

23
Q

List some of the major causes of ARDS

A

Sepsis
Diffuse pulmonary infections
Aspiration (gastric contents, drowning)
Mechanical trauma (head injury)
Inhalation of toxins and irritants (high O2, chlorine, smoke)
Chemical/drug injury (heroin, methadone, nitrofurantoin);
Hematologic conditions (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
Systemic processes (pancreatitis, uremia, diabetic ketoacidosis)
Hemodialysis
Cardiopulmonary bypass
Hypersensitivity reactions

24
Q

How does the pathogenesis of acute adult respiratory distress syndrome differ from neonatal hyaline membrane disease in newborns?

A

Deficiency of surfactant in neonatal vs. inflammatory damage to the alveolar epithelium in adults.