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DIM Bloc TCP > Radiology > Flashcards

Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Left lingula pneumonia because loss of left heart border (silouhette sign)

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2
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Right middle lobe pneumonia because loss of right heart border (silouhette sign)

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3
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Right lower lobe pneumonia because you have a right heart border (no silouhette sign) and a spine sign

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4
Q

What are the five basic disease patterns of interstitial lung disease?

A
  1. Ground glass (cloudy-hazy): acute inflammation
  2. Nodular: miliary TB
  3. Reticular (network of linear opacities): pulmonary edema
  4. Reticulo-nodular (linear opacities with nodules): lymphangitic carcinomatosis
  5. Honeycombing (5-10 mm cysts): pulmonary fibrosis
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5
Q

What are the two important signs in the evaluation of lung consolidation?

A
  1. The air bronchogram
  2. The sillhouette sign
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6
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Ground Glass: Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis

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7
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

TB

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8
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Pulmonary edema

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9
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Reticulo-nodular: Lymphangitic carcinomatosis

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10
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Honeycombing: pulmonary fibrosis

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11
Q

What is Atelectasis?

A

Atelectasis means there is volume loss of the lung, it can involve an entire lung, a lobe, a segment or subsegment

Types of atelectasis:

  • Passive: pneumothorax
  • Obstructive: endobronchial lesion
  • Compressive: pleural effusion
  • Adhesive: surfactant deficiency
  • Cicatrisation: scarring
  • Rounded: from underlying chronic pleural disease
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12
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Passive atelectasis caused by pneumothorax

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13
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Obstructive atelectasis because NO air bronchogram caused by bronchogenic carcinoma

Looks like pneumonia but there is NO air bronchogram

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14
Q

What are the 3 common patterns of pneumonia on CXR?

A
  1. Lobar pneumonia: strep
  2. Bronchopneumonia: staf
  3. Interstitial pneumonia: viral and other organisms
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15
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Lobar Pneumonia: right middle lobe

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16
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Interstitial pneumonia: viral

Could be interstitial fibrosis if chronic

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17
Q

What are the signs of pulmonary edema on a CXR?

A
  1. Cardiomegaly
  2. Kerley B ligns
  3. Interstitial infiltrates
  4. Blunted costophrenic angle (pleural effusion)
  5. Cephalization of vessels: redistribution of vessels
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18
Q

What are the non-cardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema?

A

“NOT CARDIAC”

  • N: Near drowning
  • O: O2 therapy/post-intubation
  • T: trauma/transfusion reaction
  • C: CNS: neurogenic pulmonary edema
  • A: Allergic alveolitis
  • R: Renal failure
  • D: Drugs
  • I: Inhaled (toxins)
  • A: Altitude (high altitude pulmonary edema, ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)
  • C: Contusion
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19
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

ARDS

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20
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Right upper lobe pneumonia

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21
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Pneumothorax

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22
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Tension pneumothorax: EMERGENCY

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23
Q

What are the possible causes of an anterior mediastinal mass?

A
  1. Thymic tumor
  2. Thyroid lesion
  3. Terrible lymphoma
  4. Teratoma
  5. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
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24
Q

What are the possible causes of a posterior mediastinal mass?

A
  • Neurogenic tumor
  • Descending thoracic aortic aneurysm
  • Para-spinal abscess
  • Extra-medullary hematopoiesis
  • Hernia
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Esophageal neoplasm
  • Thoracic meningocele
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25
Q

This person developed chest pain after vomiting. Why?

A

Pneumomediastanum from ruptured esophagus

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26
Q

Why does this person have abdominal pain?

A

Pneumoperitoneum caused by perforated abdominal organ (generally from a perforated peptic ulcer)

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27
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Bilateral pleural effusion

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28
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Aortic dissection

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29
Q

What are the possible causes of abdominal distention?

A
  • Bowel obstruction
  • Mass
  • Constipation
  • Ileus
  • Ascite or other fluid
30
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Large bowel ostruction (from colon cancer)

31
Q

What is the modality of choice for suspected bowel pathologies?

A

CT

32
Q

What is the modality of choice for biliary, gynecologic assessment, good for liver, kidneys, appendix?

A

Ultrasound

33
Q

This patient presented with abdominal pain. What’s your diagnosis?

A

Perforated duodenal ulcer

34
Q

This patient presented with RUQ pain. What’s your diagnosis?

A

Acute cholecystitis

35
Q

This patient presented with RLQ pain. What’s your diagnosis?

A

Acute apendicitis

36
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Intussusception

37
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise: US the ovaries and FT

38
Q

What are the causes of dysphagia?

A
  • Malignant mass
  • Benign stricture (eg, postradiation, post caustic ingestion)
  • Extrinsic compression
  • Esophagitis
  • Esophageal spasm
  • Achalasia
  • Scleroderma
  • Diverticulum (eg Zenker’s)
39
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Esophageal cancer (apple core sign)

40
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Achalasia

41
Q

83 y/o with distented abdomen, what’s your diagnosis?

A

Sigmoid volvulus

42
Q

When is it appropriate to request a radiological study?

A
  1. An examination has not already been performed
  2. Appropriate/complete clinical information is gathered
  3. The type of study will answer the clinical question
  4. The outcome of the exam will alter management
  5. The benefit of the exam outweighs its risks
43
Q

What are the elements of a good radiology request?

A
  1. Study requested
  2. HPI
  3. Specifics: R/O XX

Ex: 34 y.o. female, with 3 day history of RUL pain, elevated ALP/GGT. R/O cholecystitis

44
Q

What are the indications for a bone nuclear scan?

A
  • Bone metastasis
  • Occult fracture
  • Osteomyelitis (+ gallium scan)
45
Q

What are the indications for a gallium scan?

A
  • —Osteomyelitis (+ bone scan)
  • —Fever of unknown origin
  • —Occult abscess, infection
  • —Inflammation
46
Q

What are the indications for a renal nuclear scan?

A
  • —Differential function
  • —Renal outflow obstruction
  • —Renovascular hypertension work-up (+ captopril challenge)
47
Q

What are the indications for MUGA Scan?

A

LVEF in oncology patients

48
Q

What are the indications for Thyroid Uptake & Scan?

A

Evaluation of hyperthryroidism

  • —Graves’
  • —Toxic multinodular goiter (tMNG)
  • —Thyroiditis
  • —Autonomous toxic functional adenoma
49
Q

Which hyperthyroidic disease CANNOT be treated with radioactive iodine 131?

A

Thyroiditis (SELF-LIMITED)

50
Q

What are the special “do not FDG PET” malignancies?

A
  • —Prostate carcinoma: PSMA PET (different radiopharmaceutical)
  • —Leukemia (except if choloroma)
  • —Non-solid bronchoalveolar carcinoma (MIA/AIC)
51
Q

1 month old baby + projectile vomiting, what’s your diagnosis?

A

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

52
Q

What is Hirshsprung’s Disease?

A

Also known as Aganglionic megacolon, is a birth defect in which nerves are missing from parts of the intestine.

Symptom: constipation, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea and slow growth

Complications: enterocolitis, megacolon, bowel obstruction and intestinal perforation

53
Q

What is a A Salter–Harris fracture?

A

A fracture that involves the epiphyseal plate or growth plate of a bone

54
Q

What is the course of treatment for a suspected sublte scaphoid fracture?

A

Xray + Scaphoid cast + new Xray in 14 days

To see it right away, you need an MRI

55
Q

What is the clinical sign of a scaphoid fracture?

A

Tenderness in the anatomical snuff box

56
Q

What is a Bankart injury?

A

An injury of the anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum of the shoulder due to anterior shoulder dislocation

57
Q

What is a a Hill–Sachs lesion?

A

A cortical depression in the posterolateral head of the humerus. It results from forceful impaction of the humeral head against the anteroinferior glenoid rim when the shoulder is dislocated anteriorly

58
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Subtle Tibial Plateau fracture with HUGE Lipohemarthrosis

59
Q

How do you describe a fracture?

A
  1. What bone
  2. Right or left
  3. Which part: dyaphisis, metaphisis, head, base
  4. Intra-articular or not
  5. Displancement or not
  6. Angluation or not
  7. Comminuted or not
60
Q

Appart from fracture, what can cause bone necrosis of the head of the femur?

A

Steroids

61
Q

Trauma –> lucid phase (3-6 hours) –> deficits.

Where is the bleeding?

A

Epidural

62
Q
A
63
Q

Where is the bleeding?

A

Sub-arachnoid

64
Q

Where is the bleeding?

A

Subdural

65
Q

What’s your diagnosis?

A

Disk herniation

66
Q

What is the measurement of renal function to assess for contraindication during a CT?

A

eGFR

67
Q

What can you do to prevent renal injury to the kidney from the contrast?

A
  1. Mild-moderate renal impairment: Oral hydration
  2. Severe renal impairment: Avoid contrast
  3. If necessary: IV hydration / stop metformin if diabetic
68
Q

Is there such a thing as an allergic reaction to contrast agent?

A

Yes, anaphylaxis reaction

69
Q

What if the patient has a shellfish allergy, can he have a CT scan?

A

Yes; does not matter

70
Q

What can you do to prevent allergic reaction before CT contrast?

A

Iodine preparation medication protocol

71
Q

What are some contra-indications to MRI?

A
  1. Ferromagnetic object (check consent form and online list)
  2. Claustrophobic patient
  3. Severe obesity
72
Q

What can’t you bring with you inside the MRI room?

A

Any object containing iron

DIM Bloc TCP (4 decks)

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