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Neurology Clerkship > Radiology > Flashcards

Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

What can be evaluated with skull x-ray?

A

Skull bones -> fractures, metastatic lesions, multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease, alteration in the pituitary fossa
Base of skull
Sinuses -> sinus problems

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2
Q

Advantages of CT scan of the brain?

A
  1. Imaging modality of choice in patients with a history of trauma and acute neurologic emergencies
  2. Detects acute blood better than MRI (study of choice if deciding to give fibrinolytic therapy to r/o hemorrhage)
  3. Fast (can be done in as little as 30 seconds)
  4. Detailed evaluation of the bone (trauma, malignant vs. benign tumors)
  5. No risk in patients with implanted medical devices
  6. Cheaper
  7. Useful for routine follow-up of hydrocephalus following shunt placement
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3
Q

What is the purpose of IV contrast in CT scan of the brain?

A
  1. Visualize vessels = CTA

2. Detect whether the BBB is broken (lesions will enhance if this is the case)

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4
Q

Disadvantages to CT?

A
  1. Radiation exposure (not preferred in children or repeated evaluation)
  2. Iodinated contrast -> allergic reactions
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5
Q

Advantages to MRI of the brain?

A
  1. Imaging of choice for any patient with a neurological deficit
  2. More sensitive for sub-acute to chronic hemorrhage, early stroke and cerebral abscess (DWI), structural etiology for seizures
  3. Greater range of soft tissue contrast, depicts anatomy in details (superior to CT)
  4. No radiation
  5. Gadolinium contrast causes fewer allergic reactions
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6
Q

Disadvantages to MRI?

A
  1. Takes longer
  2. Cannot be used if magnetic implanted devices
  3. Gadolinium can cause nephrogenic system fibrosis in patients with compromised renal function
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7
Q

Indications to use U/S of the brain?

A

Children when fontanelles are not closed; neurologic abnormalities like congenital issues, brain tumors, hydrocephalus

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8
Q

Advantages of digital subtraction contrast angiogram?

A
  1. Procedure of choice toe valuate extracranial and intracranial vessels
  2. More precise evaluation of intracranial aneurysm, AV malformation, arterial occlusion, especially when interventional treatment is contemplated
  3. To diagnose vaculitis
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9
Q

Disadvantages of digital subtraction contrast angiogram?

A
  1. Radiation
  2. Contrast allergy
  3. Requires an arterial puncture
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10
Q

Advantages of CTA?

A

Same as digital subtraction contrast angiogram; also procedure of choice to evaluate smaller vessels

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11
Q

Disadvantages of CTA?

A

Same as CTA except, does not require arterial puncture (injected into veins)

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12
Q

How does MRA differ from CTA and invasive digital subtraction angiogram?

A

Does not display the lumen of the vessel, but rather the blood flowing through the vessel

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13
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of MRA?

A

A: does not require contrast, good screening test
D: less sensitive in detecting smaller intracranial vessels compared to CTA

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14
Q

What are plain films of the spine used for?

A

R/o gross fractures, vertebral pathology, or spina instability

Can detect fractures, displacement, alignment problems, metastatic lesions, osteoporosis, vertebral collapse, vertebral infections

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15
Q

Typical work-up of back pain?

A

Initial - plain films
CT if bony lesions
MRI if spinal cord, dura, nerve root, or disc lesions

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16
Q

What is used to rule out bone mets to the entire skeleton?

A

Bone scan

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17
Q

Common indications for brain imaging studies?

A

Symptoms: headache, N/V, change in mental status (acute or chronic), seizures, head trauma

Signs: focal neuro deficits, signs of increased ICP, signs and symptoms suggestive of acute stroke, SAH, brain tumor, meningitis/abscess, demyelinating disease

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18
Q

Common indications for MRI spine?

A

Symptoms: back pain, neck pain, weakness of arms/legs

Signs: UE/LE weakness, focal neuro deficits, congenital disorders, demyelinating disease, suspected spinal trauma, infection, cord tumor, cord compression

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19
Q

How does blood appear on plain films, CT, T1, T2, and U/S?

A 
Plain films: white
CT: hyperdense (bright)
T1: hypointense (dark)
T2: N/A
U/S: anechoic
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20
Q

How does air appear on plain films, CT, T1, T2, and U/S?

A 
Plain films: dark
CT: hypodense/dark
T1: dark
T2: dark
U/S: does not transmit
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21
Q

How does fat appear on plain films, CT, T1, T2, and U/S?

A 
Plain films: dark
CT: hypodense/dark
T1: hyperintense/bright
T2: hyperintense/bright
U/S: hyperechoic or does not transmit
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22
Q

How does CSF appear on plain films, CT, T1, T2, and U/S?

A 
Plain films: N/A
CT: hypodense/dark
T1: hypointense/dark
T2: hyperintense/bright
U/S: anechoic
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23
Q

How does bone appear on plain films, CT, T1, T2, and U/S?

A 
Plain films: white
CT: hyperdense/bright
T1: hypointense/dark
T2: hypointense/dark
U/S: hyperechoic/does not transmit
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24
Q

Imaging procedure of choice with head trauma?

A

CT

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25
Q

Imaging procedure of choice to evaluate skull lesion?

A

CT

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26
Q

Imaging procedure of choice to evaluate brain and intracranial contents?

A

MRI

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27
Q

Imaging procedure of choice for evaluating brain and intracranial contents in a patient with prior aneurysmal clips?

A

CT

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28
Q

Risk of radiation is relatively high in?

A

CT

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29
Q

Edema is described as an area of lucency or low attenuation on what?

A

CT (hypodense)

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30
Q

Emergency evacuation of blood is necessary with…

A

Epidural hematoma

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31
Q

When does cytotoxic edema occur following a stroke?

A

Immediately - hence why DWI images can reveal the area of acute infarction quickly

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32
Q

What type of edema is seen in an acute stroke in the area of infarct?

A

Intracellular; BBB is intact, edema is due to a cytotoxic effect and inadequate functioning of sodium and potassium pump

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33
Q

What type of edema is seen in brain tumors and other lesions?

A

Extracellular - non-specific, due to loss of BBB; does not enhance with contrast

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34
Q

Optimal imaging to evaluate suspected ICH?

A

Pre-contrast CT scan -> acute hematoma appears as high density

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35
Q

Findings of epidural hematoma?

A

Biconvex
Acute blood is hyperdense
Does not cross suture lines
Mass effect due to hemorrhage and edema

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36
Q

Acute vs. subacute vs. chronic subdural hematoma?

A

Acute: 0-2 days, hyperdense
Sub-acute: 3-14 days, isodense
Chronic: 2+ weeks, hypodense

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37
Q

Most common cause of SAH

A

Rupture of arterial aneurysms which release blood into the CSF (trauma most commonly)

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38
Q

Common causes of stroke?

A
  1. Ischemic (atherosclerotic, emboli, decreased perfusion pressure)
  2. Hemorrhagic
  3. Venous sinus thrombosus
  4. Vasculitis
  5. Traumatic arterial dissection
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39
Q

Imaging to evaluate stroke?

A

CT first to r/o hemorrhage

MRI for diagnosis of acute stroke

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40
Q

Does a normal CT r/o stroke?

A

No

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41
Q

Non-contrast CT findings of acute infarction

A

Can be normal
Hypodense area
Loss of gray-white matter differentiation
Cortical sulcal effacement
Blurred basal ganglia
Insular ribbon sign (blurred insular cortex due to edema)
Dense MCA sign (hyperdense MCA, hyperdense basilar artery due to thrombus)
Hemorrhage

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42
Q

MRI findings of acute infarction?

A

DWI: hyperintensity
T2: may be normal within 4-6 hours of acute stroke

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43
Q

Imaging findings of subacute stroke (24 hours to 1 week)?

A

CT and MRI will show edema, mass effect +/- midline shift

Cortical gyral enhancement

May see hemorrhagic transformation

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44
Q

Imaging findings of subacute to chronic infarct (1 week to 2 months)

A

Resolution of edema, mass effect, parenchymal enhancement

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45
Q

Imaging findings of chronic old infarct (>2 months)?

A

Focal well-defined wedge shaped area of low attenuation involving a vascular distribution

Sulci adjacent to an old infarcted area enlarge secondary to parenchymal volume loss

Ventricular enlargement also seen if infarcted area is adjacent to the ventricle

Residual old blood may persist (better on MRI)

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46
Q

Imaging procedure to detect edema?

A

CT or MRI

CT - hypodensity
MRI - hyperintensity on T2 or FLAIR; DWI most sensitive for intracelluar edema

47
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Increased CSF volume in the ventricles

48
Q

4 types of hydrocephalus?

A

Obstructive
Communicating
NPH
Ex-vacuo

49
Q

CSF is produced in what ventricle(s) by the choroid plexus?

A

Lateral, 3rd, and 4th

50
Q

Pathway of CSF?

A

Travels from lateral ventricles through the interventricular foramina -> third ventricle, through the cerebral aqueduct -> fourth ventricle, through midline foramina of Magendie and paired lateral foramina of Luschka -> subarachnoid spaces -> circulates to bathe the brain and spinal cord -> venous sinuses via arachnoid villi

51
Q

Characteristics of obstructive hydrocephalus?

A

CSF flow blockage occurs within the ventricular system -. enlargement of ventricles proximal to the obstruction

52
Q

Causes of obstructive hydrocephalus?

A

Congenital or acquired; common cause -> tumors

53
Q

Characteristics of communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Impaired CSF reabsorption; clinical features like obstructive, but less pronounced, all ventricles dilated
Dx with MRI
Caused by SAH, meningitis, neoplastic meningitis

54
Q

Characteristics of hydrocephalus ex-vacuo?

A

Shrinkage of brain substance -> ventricular dilation (symptoms due to atrophy, not hydrocephalus)

55
Q

List brain tumors common in the first decade of life.

A
  1. Medulloblastoma
  2. Ependymoma
  3. Low grade astrocytoma (grade 1 = pilocystic, grade 2)
  4. Craniopharyngioma
56
Q

Last brain tumors common in adults.

A
  1. Metastasis
  2. High grade gliomas (high grade astrocytomas = grade 3 and grade 4; grade 4= glioblastoma)
  3. Lympoma
  4. Benign tumors -> meningioma, schwanoma, pituitary macroadenoma
57
Q

2 brain tumors common in intra-axial location?

A
  1. Metastasis

2. Astrocytoma

58
Q

2 brain tumors common in intraventricular location?

A
  1. Ependymoma

2. Choroid plexus papilloma

59
Q

4 brain tumors common in extra-axial locations?

A
  1. Anterior cranial fossa -> meningioma

Middle cranial fossa:
2. Pituitary fossa -> craniopharyngioma, pituitary macroadenoma

Posterior cranial fossa;

  1. Cerebellopontine angle -> schwannoma/meningioma
  2. Foramen magnum -> meningioma
60
Q

Brain tumors with fat noted?

A

Lipoma
Dermoid
Teratoma

61
Q

Brain tumors with calcium?

A

Meningioma
Oligodendroglioma
Craniopharyngioma

62
Q

Brain tumors with cystic features?

A

Non-tumoral cyst (arachnoid cyst)

Tumors: pilocytic astrocytoma (grade 1 astrocytoma), craniopharyngioma

63
Q

What imaging is more sensitive to detect calcification within tumors, tumors originating from the skull, and acute hemorrhage within tumors?

A

CT

64
Q

Most tumors enhance due to breakdown of BBB. What has no enhancement?

A

Grade II astrocytoma

65
Q

Most tumors enhance due to breakdown of BBB. What has mild enhancement?

A

Grade III astrocytoma

66
Q

Most tumors enhance due to breakdown of BBB. What has non-homogenous irregular ring ehnahcement?

A

Grade IV astrocytoma (glioblastoma)

67
Q

Most tumors enhance due to breakdown of BBB. What has smooth ring enhancement?

A

Mets

68
Q

Most tumors enhance due to breakdown of BBB. What has homogenous intense enhancement?

A

Meningioma

69
Q

5 common primary brain tumors?

A
  1. Glioblastoma
  2. Medulloblastoma
  3. Pilocytic astrocytoma
  4. Ependymoma
  5. Lymphoma
70
Q

Irregular solitary mass, often with necrosis and surrounding edema?

A

Glioblastoma

71
Q

DDx - ring enhancing lesions

A

Glioblastoma (irregular)

Mets, abscess (circumscribed)

72
Q

Tumor originating from the roof of the 4th ventricle, common in younger people, can cause hydrocephalus

A

Medulloblastoma

73
Q

Slow growing tumor with solid and cystic component, well-circumscribed, enhances with contrast, common in young people

A

Pilocystic astrocytoma

74
Q

Glial tumor arising in the ventricle, may cause obstructive hydrocephlus, may occur within any ventricle, most commonly in 4th, more common in young people

A

Ependymoma

75
Q

Common sites of primary lymphoma of the brain?

A

Corpus callosum
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Periventricular white matter

76
Q

Solitary or multiple, spherical lesions located at the gray-white matter junction

A

Mets

77
Q

Primary malignant tumors that hematogenously spread to the brain?

A 
Lung
Breast
Melanoma
Thyroid
Renal
78
Q

3 common benign brain tumors?

A

Meningioma
Pituitary macroadenoma
Craniopharyngioma

79
Q

Most common intra-cranial benign tumor?

A

Meningioma

80
Q

Extra-axial, dural-based, often calcified, located along the dura, falx, and tentorium?

A

Meningioma

81
Q

Suprasellar tumor, usually cystic, contains calcium, capsule enhances with contrast

A

Craniopharyngioma

82
Q

5 HIV-related infections of the brain?

A 
HIV encephalitis
Toxoplasmosis
Cryptococcosis
TB
CMV ependymitis
83
Q

Ring enhancing mass with a central cavity that involves the brain parenchyma with surrounding edema and mass effect?

A

Abscess

84
Q

Causes of bacterial brain abscess?

A

Staph
Strep
Pneumococcus

85
Q

Causes of granulomatous brain abscess?

A

M. tuberculosis

86
Q

Causes of fungal brain abscess?

A

Cryptococcosis
Aspergillosis
Mucormycosis

87
Q

Causes of parasitic brain abscess?

A

Toxoplasmosis

Cysticercosis

88
Q

DDx - brain abscess?

A

Glioblastoma
Mets

(central portion not as bright as abscess)

89
Q

Imaging findings of meningitis?

A

Intense enhancement of basal cisterns
Meningeal enhancement (non-specific)
Can be normal

90
Q

Imaging of choice for MS?

A

MRI (flair in particular)

91
Q

Imaging findings in MS?

A

Asymmetric periventricular and subcortical lesions in the white matter

92
Q

DDx for white matter lesions?

A

Microvascular disease (predisposing factors include HTN, DM, HLD, vasculitis)
MS
HIV-related infections (HIV encephalitis, PML)
Radiation-induced leukoencephalopathy
Chemo-induced leukoencephalopathy

93
Q

Common conditions presenting as back pain?

A

Vertebral body pathology (mets, fracture, osteoporosis)
Disc disease (herniation)
Spinal cord tumor
Retroperitoneal structure disease (AAA, renal pathology, retroperitoneal LAD)

94
Q

Imaging for lower backache?

A

CT or MRI if severe or prolonged pain, focal neuro deficits, history of cancer or febrile illness -> commonly used to identify disc or vertebral body abnormality (MRI is more accurate)
XR - r/o gross fracture, spinal instability
Bone scan - mets
DEXA - BMD

95
Q

Features of osteoporotic fracture of vertebral body on XR?

A

Wedge shaped, decreased density

If compression fracture -> biconcave vertebral body due to central end-plate collapse

96
Q

Common primary malignancies that met to bones?

A 
Breast
Lung
Renal
Thyroid
Prostate (most commonly blastic)
Lymphoma
Multiple myeloma (lytic)
97
Q

What is a T-score?

A

of SD the BMD is above or below the young (30 y/o) normal mean

98
Q

What is a Z-score?

A

Age-matched

99
Q

Use of T-score?

A

Dx osteoporosis:

  • 1 to 1 = normal
  • 1 to -2.5 = osteopenia
  • 2.5 or less = osteoporosis
100
Q

Use of z-score?

A

Concern for secondary cause

101
Q

Imaging findings of osteomyelitis?

A

Abnormal low signal intensity involving adjacent vertebral bodies and the disc space (T1), hyperintense (T2)

102
Q

Extradural tumors of the spinal cord?

A

Metastatic involvement of vertebral bodies

Primary vertebral body tumors (osteoma, osteogenic sarcoma, chondroma, chondrosarcoma, chordoma)

103
Q

Intradural tumors of the spinal cord?

A

Intramedullary: ependymoma, astrocytoma, hemangioblastoma, mets
Extramedullary: meningioma, neurofibroma

104
Q

Alternative procedure to evaluate spinal cord compression if MRI cannot be done?

A

CT myelography

105
Q

Features of meningioma (SC)?

A

Dural-based intradural tumor
Intensely enhances with contrast
May be calcified
Can produce cord compression

106
Q

Features of schwannoma (SC)?

A

Intradural nerve sheath tumor that enhances

Dumb-bell shaped tumor

107
Q

SC meningioma vs. schwannoma?

A

Schwannoma: follows the exiting nerve root as it exits and enlarges the neural foramina
Meningioma: dural-based, limited to SC, does not follow the nerve root

108
Q

Obstruction at the aqueduct of sylvius results in?

A

Dilation of the lateral and third ventricles

109
Q

Medulloblastoma arises in the floor or roof of the 4th ventricle?

A

Roof; ependymoma arises in the floor

110
Q

Tumors that can occur more commonly in the corpus callosum?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

Lymphoma

111
Q

The rim of brain abscess enhances with contrast. The rim thins towards the cortex or ventricle?

A

Ventricle; it is thick toward the cortex

112
Q

True or false - in metastatic disease, the intervertebral disc is normal.

A

True

113
Q

Tumor located in the center of the spinal cord?

A

Ependymoma (arise from ependymal lining of central canal)

114
Q

When the cord expands in both sagittal and axial views, the tumor is ___.

A

Intramedullary

Neurology Clerkship (25 decks)

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