Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Best of Fives for Dentistry > Radiology > Flashcards

Radiology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is the correct diagnosis for the condition show in the x-ray?
    a. Fractured left body of mandible
    b. Fractured right body of mandible
    c. Fractured left angle of mandible
    d. Fractured right angle of mandible
    e. Fractured right ramus of mandible
A

 C. Fractured left angle of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which one other x-ray should be taken for a fractured left angle of mandible alongside a DPT?
    a. Occipitomental (OM) 0*
    b. OM 30*
    c. OM 50*
    d. Postero-anterior (PA) mandible
    e. Antero-posterior (AP) mandible
A

 D. Postero-anterior (PA) mandible
 With every fracture two views should be taken, and the appropriate x-rays for a fractured mandible are an orthopantomogram (OPG) and a PA mandible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. If the patient had a ‘bucket handle’ fracture, what would the fracture be?
    a. A unilateral condylar fracture
    b. A bilateral condylar fracture
    c. A unilateral body of mandible fracture
    d. A bilateral parasymphyseal fracture
    e. A fracture of the angle of the mandible and a contralateral condylar fracture
A

 D. A bilateral parasymphyseal fracture
 This is known as a bucket handle fracture because the unfavourable muscle pull causes the anterior fragment to be pulled downwards leading to the appearance of a bucket handle. If a patient has a fracture of the body, angle or ramus of the mandible, it is always worth paying attention to the contralateral side as there may well be a condylar fracture, especially if the cause of the injury is inter-personal violence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Post-operatively, the patient with a fractured left angle of the mandible has anaesthesia of a very small circular area on the chin. However, thy have full sensation of the lip. Which one of the statements below correctly explains this deficit in sensation?
    a. The lingual nerve has cross-over with the inferior dental nerve leading to an anomaly in sensation.
    b. The nerve to stylohyoid has been damaged.
    c. The marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve has been damaged.
    d. The mental nerve has been damaged
    e. A few aberrant nerve fibres from the nerve to mylohyoid have been stretched during retraction leading to anaesthesia of the chin.
A

 E. A few aberrant nerve fibres from the nerve to mylohyoid have been stretched during retraction leading to anaesthesia of the chin.
 Occasionally some aberrant nerve fibres from the nerve to mylohyoid are present in the mental region, leading to a paraesthesia or anaesthesia of a small area on the chin when retraction occurs during ORIF (open reduction internal fixation). If the mental nerve had been damaged there would be a loss of sensation to the lip. If the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve had been damaged there would be drooping of the corner of the mouth, but no loss of sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is the correct diagnosis for this condition shown in the x-ray?
    a. Fractured mandible
    b. Fractured nasal bones
    c. Fractured maxilla
    d. Fractured zygoma
    e. Le Fort II fracture
A

 D. Fractured zygoma
 Always use a systematic method when looking at x-rays. Always start at the top of the x-ray, and follow the bones to see if there are any discrepancies or discontinuities and compare with the other side. This is a very easy way of interpreting x-rays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What other x-rays should be taken for the patient with a fractured zygoma alongside the OM 30?
    a. OM 0
    b. OM 50*
    c. Reverse Towne’s
    d. PA mandible
    e. AP mandible
A

 A. To provide a second view of the fracture, an OM 0* should always be performed when a patient has a suspected fracture of the zygoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. When a patient has a fractured zygoma, which nerve is commonly damaged, leading to a paraesthesia or anaesthesia?
    a. Inferior dental nerve
    b. Facial nerve
    c. Infraorbital nerve
    d. Supraorbital nerve
    e. Supratrochlear nerve
A

 C. Infraorbital nerve
 The infraorbital nerve is commonly damaged, leading to paraesthesia or anaesthesia. Rarely there is permanent damage to the nerve structure, and the vast majority of patients recover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which eponymous hook is commonly used to reduce the fracture in the patient who has a fractured zygoma?
    a. Barnes
    b. Gillies
    c. Howarth
    d. Bowdler-Henry
    e. McIndoe
A

 B. Gillies
 The Gillies hook is commonly used to reduce the fractured zygoma into its correct anatomical position. Howarth, Bowdler-Henry and McIndoe are also eponymous instruments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not a complication of a fractured zygoma?
    a. Diplopia
    b. Infraorbital nerve paraesthesia
    c. Trismus
    d. Subconjunctival haemorrhage
    e. Facial nerve palsy
A

 E. Facial nerve palsy
 Facial nerve palsy is usually produced by wounding with a sharp weapon such as a knife or broken glass. Trismus occurs with fractured zygomas because the masseter is attached to the zygomatic arch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is unusual about this x-ray?
    a. There is a dentigerous cyst present
    b. There is a supernumerary present in the maxillary arch
    c. There is a supernumerary present in the mandibular arch
    d. There is a three rooted mandibular first molar
    e. There is nothing unusual
A

 E. There is nothing unusual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which one of the following things would you not warn the patient about when consenting for extraction of the supernumerary, the mandibular first molar and mandibular third molar?
    a. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the inferior dental nerve
    b. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the lingual nerve
    c. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the facial nerve
    d. Pain, swelling and bruising
    e. Antibiotics given may interfere with the contraceptive pill
A

 C. Paraesthesia/anaesthesia of the facial nerve
 All other statements are valid complications of the procedure described.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which one of the following radiographic features would not suggest that the patient would be at high risk of damage to their inferior dental (ID) nerve during the removal of a mandibular third molar?
    a. Loss of tramlines of the ID canal
    b. Deviation of the tramlines of the ID canal
    c. Widening of the tramlines of the ID canal
    d. Narrowing of the tramlines of the ID canal
    e. Radiolucency band across the tooth
A

 D. Widening of the tramlines of the ID canal
 All of the other radiographic features indicate that the patient is at high risk of damage to their ID nerve during extraction of their mandibular third molar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is the radiation exposure when taking an OPG?
    a. 0.001 mSv
    b. 0.01 mSv
    c. 0.1 mSv
    d. 1.0 mSv
    e. 10.0 mSv
A

 B. 0.01 mSv
 The radiation exposure when taking an OPG is 0.01mSv.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most commonly associated pathology with wisdom teeth?
    a. Pericoronitis
    b. Mesioangular impaction
    c. Distoangular impaction
    d. Horizontal impaction
    e. Cystic change
A

 A. Pericoronitis
 Pericoronitis is one of the most common presentations of pain with wisdom teeth. It is inflammation of the opercululm, which is soft tissue, therefore does not show radiographically. Mesioangular impaction > distoangular impaction > horizontal impaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What type of cyst is present on the x-ray below?
    a. Eruption cyst
    b. Odontogenic keratocyst
    c. Dentigerous cyst
    d. Apical periodontal cyst
    e. Lateral periodontal cyst
A

 D. Apical periodontal cyst
 Apical periodontal cysts are the most common cyst to be found as an incidental finding on an x-ray. Radicular cysts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What other x-ray may be appropriate when assessing cysts in the mandible?
    a. PA mandible
    b. AP mandible
    c. OM 0*
    d. Lower occlusal
    e. Reverse Towne’s
A

 D. Lower occlusal
 The lower occlusal enables you to assess the bucco-lingual expansion of the cyst.

17
Q
  1. If the cyst in qu15 was multilocular, what would be the more likely diagnosis?
    a. Eruption cyst
    b. Odontogenic keratocyst
    c. Dentigerous cyst
    d. Eruption cyst
    e. Lateral periodontal cyst
A

 B. Odontogenic keratocyst.
 Odontogenic keratocysts are commonly multilocular and have a high rate of recurrence.

18
Q
  1. Which syndrome is associated with odontogenic keratocysts?
    a. Gorlin-Goltz
    b. Peutz-Jeghers
    c. Gardner’s syndrome
    d. Apert’s syndrome
    e. Horner’s syndrome
A

 A. Gorlin-Goltz
 Odontogenic keratocysts are associated with Gorlin-Goltz syndrome. This syndrome consists of fronto-temporal bossing, calcified falx cerebri and multiple basal cell naevi.

19
Q
  1. Where are odontogenic keratocysts most commonly found?
    a. Maxillary antrum
    b. Mandibular third molar region
    c. Mandibular anterior region
    d. Maxillary anterior region
    e. None of the above
A

 B. Mandibular third molar region
 Odontogenic keratocysts occur most frequently in the mandibular third molar region.

20
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding processing radiographs is true?
    a. The developer is an acidic solution.
    b. The developer needs changing daily.
    c. Fixation is the process by which silver halide crystals are removed to reveal the white area on the film.
    d. The lower the temperature of the developer solution, the faster the film will be developed.
    e. If the film is not left in the developed long enough then the radiograph will be too dark.
A

 C. Fixation is the process by which silver halide crystals are removed to reveal the white area on the film.
 The developer is an alkali solution, which is oxidised by air, and needs changing only every 10 days or so. If the film is not left in the developer long enough it will be too light, as not enough silver will be deposited on it.

21
Q
  1. In order to limit the dose for a periapical radiograph:
    a. Use a low-speed film
    b. Use a lead apron
    c. Use the optimal voltage (700 kV)
    d. Use the bisecting angle technique
    e. Use a rectangular collimator
A

 E. Use a rectangular collimator
 The use of a rectangular collimator decreases the dose of radiation by 50%. Lead aprons are not used anymore and are no longer recommended. The optimal voltage is 70kV and a fast-speed film should be used.

22
Q
  1. The correct order of the stages of processing radiographic film is:
    a. Developing, washing, fixing, washing, drying
    b. Fixation, washing, developing, washing, drying
    c. Washing, developing, washing, fixation, drying
    d. Washing, fixing, washing, developing, drying
    e. Washing, developing, fixation, washing, drying
A

 A. Developing, washing, fixing, washing, drying
 Remember that the film needs to be washed between developing and fixation, and the fixative needs to be washed off before drying.

23
Q
  1. Which one of the following annual dose limits is the correct Ionising Radiation Regulation (IRR) 1999 limit?
    a. General public – 2mSv
    b. Non-classified workers – 2mSv
    c. Non-classified workers – 20mSv
    d. Classified workers – 2mSv
    e. Classified workers – 20mSv
A

 E. Classified workers – 20mSv
 The IRR 1999 annual dose limits are:
o Classified workers – 20mSv
o Non-classified workers – 6mSv
o General public – 1mSv

24
Q
  1. Which one of the following lesions would not present as a multi-locular radiolucent lesion in the mandible?
    a. Ameloblastoma
    b. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour (CEOT)
    c. Odontogenic keratocyst
    d. Odontogenic myxoma
    e. Aneurysmal bone cyst
A

 B. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
 A CEOT is a radiopaque lesion, owing to its calcifying nature.

25
Q
  1. Which one of the following lesions would not present as a radiopaque lesion in the mandible?
    a. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour (CEOT)
    b. Submandibular salivary calculus
    c. Cemento-osseous dysplasia
    d. Complex odontoma
    e. Odontogenic fibroma
A

 E. Odontogenic fibroma
 All of the other lesions are radiopaque

26
Q
  1. Which one of the following lesions could present as a unilocular radiolucent lesion in the mandible?
    a. Dentigerous cyst
    b. Ameloblastoma
    c. Stafne’s bone cavity
    d. Ameloblastic fibroma
    e. All of the above
A

 E. All of the above
 All of the above lesions can present as a unilocular radiolucent lesion in the mandible.

27
Q
  1. What type of filter is used in x-ray machines?
    a. Tungsten
    b. Tin
    c. Copper
    d. Molybdenum
    e. Aluminium
A

 E. Aluminium
 Aluminium is the material which is most frequently used as the filter in x-ray machines. It is the most efficacious of materials for this purpose.

28
Q
  1. Which part of the x-ray machine performs the following function: ‘It removes the peripheral x-rays, therefore minimising the dose to the patient;?
    a. Collimator
    b. Filter
    c. Imagine intensifier
    d. Generator
    e. Ion chamber
A

 A. Collimator

29
Q
  1. What is the optimal shape for a collimator?
    a. Round
    b. Rectangular
    c. Square
    d. Hexagonal
    e. Circular
A

 C. Square
 A square is the most optimal shape for a collimator. A collimator is a device that narrows a beam of particles or waves. To ‘narrow’ can mean either to cause the directions of motion to become more aligned in a specific direct (i.e. collimated or parallel) or to cause the spatial cross-section of the beam to become smaller.

30
Q
  1. What is the radiation dose to a patient in milli-Sieverts (mSv) associated with having an orthopantomogram (OPG)?
    a. 0.034
    b. 0.34
    c. 3.4
    d. 34
    e. 340
A

 A. 0.034
 The natural yearly background radiation dosage on average is 1-3 mSv. Sn OPG provides the same amount of background radiation as a transatlantic flight.

31
Q
  1. Which one of the following does NOT support the ALARP principle?
    a. Minimising errors
    b. Slow-speed film
    c. Aluminium filter
    d. Timer
    e. Collimator
A

 B. Slow-speed film

32
Q
  1. What injury is depicted in the image below?
    a. Left orbit fracture
    b. Right orbit fracture
    c. Left zygomatic arch fracture
    d. Right zygomatic arch fracture
    e. Right mandibular fracture
A

 A. The image shows a left orbital floor fracture. It is very important to correctly ‘side’ the injury.

Best of Fives for Dentistry (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions