radiodiagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

PAP
appearance and classic associated infection

A

ground glass and smooth interlobular septal thickening
nocardia infection

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2
Q

conditions that affect the trachea and appearances

A

nodules on trachea and bronchial walls - sparing the posterior membrane. include :

affects the lower 2/3rd of trachea - tracheobronchopathia osteochondroplastica
smooth narrowing - relasping polychondritis

these involved the posterior membrane
wegeners and amyloid

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3
Q

hot quadrate sign is concerning for

A

SVC obstruction due to lung ca or lymphoma

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4
Q

Budd chiari syndrome

A

hepatic vein outflow obstruction
acute = thrombus
chronic = fibrosis
caudate hypertrophy due to separate drainage into IVC
nutmeg liver - delayed peripheral enhancement
regenerative nodules (hyperplastic) can look like HCC
cause is mostly idiopathic

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5
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

autosomal recessive genetic disease
disorder of ion transport - chloride and bicarbonate mediated by an ion channel encoded by the CFTR gene
that affects the exocrine function of the lungs, liver, pancreas, small bowel, sweat glands, and the male genital system

Lung -
bronchiectasis
pneumothorax
recurrent bacterial infection
pulmonary arterial hypertension

pancreas - causes fibrosis (decreased T1 and T2 signal)
fatty replacement - increased T1 signal
pancreatitis (acute and chronic)
pancreatic cysts

liver- hepatic steatosis
focal biliary and multilobular cirrhosis
portal hypertension
biliary system
cholelithiasis
sclerosing cholangitis

gastrointestinal tract
distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS)
meconium ileus: 10-20%
rectal prolapse
esophageal dysfunction / gastro-esophageal reflux

head and neck manifestations
chronic sinusitis
nasal polyposis

urogenital tract manifestations
bilateral seminal vesicle agenesis
testicular microlithiasis
hypoplasia or agenesis of the ductus deferens
hypoplasia or agenesis of the tail and body of the epididymis

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6
Q

Shwachman Diamond syndrome

A

2nd MOST common cause of pancreatic insufficiency in kids
diarrhoea
short stature
eczema

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7
Q

Portal hypertension

A

Increased hepatic venous pressure > 5 mmHg. Clinically significant is >10 mmHg
increased risk of variceal bleeding >12mmHg.
Prehepatic - portal vein thrombosis
extrinsic compression of portal vein
SVC obstruction

hepatic - cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, schistosomiasis

poshepatic causes -
Budd-Chiari syndrome
congestive cardiac failure
constrictive pericarditis

PV >13 mm
biphasic or reveresed flow is pathognominic
varices, splenomegaly and ascites

other complications -
hepatic encephalopathy
hepatorenal syndrome
hepatopulmonary syndrome

spleen - gamma gandy bodies - siderotic nodules - small foci of haemosiderin

treatment -
medications: propranolol (e.g. for varices), diuretics (e.g. for ascites)
interventional procedures
creation of shunts: transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS), surgical portosystemic shunt, surgical splenorenal shunt

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8
Q

Cervical cancer

A

4th most common cancer in women
usually squamous cell carcninoma (80%) - 90% HPV related -HPV 16 (60%) HPV 18 (10%)
ability for virus to act as a carcinogen depends on viral E6 and E7 proteins
Adenocarcinoma (15%)

FIGO staging
Stage I - confined to the cervix

Stage II - beyond the uterus, but has not extended onto the lower third of the vagina or to the pelvic wall
IIA: involvement limited to the upper 2/3 of vagina without parametrial invasion
IIB: with parametrial involvement but not up to the pelvic wall

Stage III: carcinoma involves the lower third of the vagina and/or extends to the pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or non‐functioning kidney and/or involves pelvic and/or paraaortic lymph nodes.
IIIA: carcinoma involves the lower third of the vagina, with no extension to the pelvic wall
IIIB: extension to the pelvic wall and/or hydronephrosis.
IIIC: involvement of pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodes, irrespective of tumor size and extent.

Stage IV: carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis or has involved (biopsy-proven) the mucosa of the bladder or rectum (bullous edema, as such, does not permit a case to be allotted to stage IV)

IVA: spread to adjacent organs
IVB: spread to distant organs
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9
Q

Rectal cancer

A

98% is adenocarcinoma
HPV causes squamous cell
0-5 cm from anorectal angle - lower gets APR - increased risk of recurrence
higher tumours upper 2/3rds LAR
staging via MRI
Staging

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10
Q

PJP (Pneumocystis)

A

Yeast like fungal infection
MOST common pulmonary opportunistic infection in HIV pts
elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase is very sensitive
diagnosis can often be confirmed with bronchoalveolar lavage which has a sensitivity of 85-90%
Gallium-67 lung scintigraphy is highly sensitive for PCP
ground glass - perihilar/midzone
reticular opacities or septal thickening may also be present; a crazy paving pattern may, therefore, be seen when both ground-glass opacities and septal thickening are present

pleural effusions and lymphadenopathy is rare
pneumatoceles

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11
Q

Rectal cancer staging

A

TNM staging
T1: tumour invades submucosa

T2: tumour invades muscularis propria

T3: tumour invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or into non-peritonealised perirectal tissues without reaching the mesorectal fascia or adjacent organs

T4: tumour invades directly into other organs or structures and/or perforates visceral peritoneum

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12
Q

EBV

A

Causes infectious mononucleosis
Associated with several tumours
b-cell Lymphomas and nasopharyngeal carcinoma (and Burkitts)
Infects B cells (people with x-linked agammaglobineamia lack B cells) b cells are main reservoir for infection

peripheral blood - absolute lymphocytosis - with atypical lymphocytes (abundant cytoplasm and multiple clear vacuolizations)

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13
Q

Alzheimer Disease

A

MOST common cause of dementia in older adults.
Accumulation of two proteins AB and Tau in specific brain regions due to excessive production and defective removal
2 pathologic hallmarks = amyloid plaques (AB protein) and neurofibrillary tangles (Tau protein). both contribute to neural dysfunction

AB protein generation is the critical initiating event

Progressive atrophy begins in medial temporal lobes.
hippocampus is first part to atrophy

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14
Q

Rickets

A

Vit D deficiency

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15
Q

Breast Ca - BI-RADS

A

BI-RADS 0: incomplete
need additional imaging evaluation (additional mammographic views or ultrasound)

BI-RADS 1: negative
symmetrical and no masses, architectural distortion, or suspicious calcifications

BI-RADS 2: benign
0% probability of malignancy

BI-RADS 3: probably benign
<2% probability of malignancy
short interval follow-up suggested

BI-RADS 4: suspicious for malignancy
2-94% probability of malignancy
for mammography and ultrasound, these can be further divided:

BI-RADS 5: highly suggestive of malignancy
>95% probability of malignancy
appropriate action should be taken

BI-RADS 6: known biopsy-proven malignancy

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16
Q

inflammatory mastitis

A

“shrinking breast”

17
Q

Lobular carcinoma in situ

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is usually an incidental finding on biopsy for amorphous calcifications. Excision is recommended after core biopsy result of LCIS as there is upgrade to carcinoma in ~ 27%. The relative risk for developing cancer is about 8-12x.

18
Q

Phyllodes tumour

A
19
Q

Endoleak types

A

type I: leak at graft attachment site

type II: aneurysm sac filling via branch vessel (most common)

type III: leak through defect in graft
type IV: leak through graft fabric as a result of graft porosity

type V: continued expansion of aneurysm sac without demonstrable leak on imaging (endotension)

20
Q

Acromegaly

A

type I: leak at graft attachment site
Ia: proximal
Ib: distal
Ic: iliac occluder
type II: aneurysm sac filling via branch vessel (most common)
IIa: single vessel
IIb: two vessels or more
type III: leak through defect in graft
IIIa: junctional separation of the modular components
IIIb: fractures or holes involving the endograft
type IV: leak through graft fabric as a result of graft porosity, often intraoperative and resolves with cessation of anticoagulants
type V: continued expansion of aneurysm sac without demonstrable leak on imaging (endotension)

21
Q

Increased interpeduncular distance is associated with?

A

Dural ectasia - described in conditions
NF1
ankylosing spondylitis
Ehlers Danlos and marfans

22
Q

11 pairs or ribs associated with

A

skeletal dysplasia
downs and edwards syndrome

23
Q

Achalasia

A

dilatation of eosophagus, tertiary contrations but eventually distal sphincter relaxes
5% develop eospophageal ca and usually mid eosophagus

24
Q

Diffuse axonal injury - MRI grading

A

stage 1: lesions confined to the lobar white matter, especially grey-white matter junction most common sites: parasagittal regions of frontal lobes, periventricular temporal lobes

stage 2 (callosal): diffuse axonal injury lesions in the corpus callosum, almost invariably in addition to the lobar white matter. most common sites: posterior body and splenium of corpus callosum involvement) usually unilateral and eccentric but may be bilateral and symmetric

stage 3 (brainstem): diffuse axonal injury lesions in the brainstem, almost invariably in addition to the lobar white matter and corpus callosum. most common sites: dorsolateral midbrain, upper pons, and superior cerebellar peduncles

25
Q

How many pericardial sinuses?

A

There are only 2 pericardial sinuses: The oblique sinus and the transverse sinus. The oblique sinus does not give rise to any pericardial recesses. The transverse sinus and pericardial cavity proper give rise to a series of pericardial recesses.

26
Q

cholangiocarcinoma

A

malignant epithelial tumors arising from the biliary tree, excluding the gallbladder or ampulla of Vater. Cholangiocarcinoma is the third most common primary hepatobiliary malignancy after hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and gallbladder cancer

individuals with ulcerative colitis are at higher risk of having cholangiocarcinoma in comparison to those with Crohn disease

3 types -
mass-forming: definite mass in the liver parenchyma.

periductal-infiltrating: extends longitudinally along the bile duct, often causing peripheral bile duct dilation.

intraductal: proliferates in the lumen of the bile duct-like a papilla or tumor thrombus.

27
Q

Types of dementia - in order of most common

A

Alzheimers - hippocampal atrophy
Multi-infarct dementia (2nd)
Dementia with Lewy bodies (3rd) - hippocampi remain normal size
Decreases FDG uptake in the lateral occiptak cortex and sparing of the mid posterior cingulate gyrus
Picks/Frontotemporal dementia - usually involves the frotnal lobes and anterior temporal lobes
Huntingtons - loss of neurons in the basal ganglia - especially the caudate nucleus (atrophy of the caudate head)

28
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Idiopathic decrease in absorption of CSF. Ventricular enlargement out of proportion of atrophy.