Radiation Safety Flashcards
1
Q
Cycle of infection broken by:
A
destruction, removal, prevention
2
Q
Approx platelet count range:
A
140,000-400,000/cc
3
Q
Normal adult respiration
A
20-30 breaths/min
4
Q
Practice that helps prevent spread of micro-organisms
A
Medical asepsis
5
Q
Most common route of infection spread
A
Direct contact
6
Q
Loss of hair after radiation
A
Epilation
7
Q
A,B,C’s of CPR
A
Airway, breathing, circulating
8
Q
Artery where pulse is measured
A
Brachial
9
Q
Normal adult pulse
A
60-80 beats/min
10
Q
Iodinated contrast
A
Risk of anaphylaxis
11
Q
radiation recall
A
recurrence of radt skin rxns during chemo
12
Q
SVC syndrome symptoms
A
Facial/arm edema, cough, neck distention
13
Q
SVC Syndrome
A
Narrowing of the superior vena cava restricting blood flow to the heart
14
Q
Most common manifestation of infection in neutropenic patients
A
Fever
15
Q
Parenteral drug administration uses _____ technique
A
Surgical asepsis technique
16
Q
Parenteral drug administration is:
A
Providing drugs through the blood stream (ie: IV, IC, IM, SQ, ID, IP)
17
Q
Nosocomial infection
A
hospital acquired infection
18
Q
3 routes of drug administration
A
enteral, parenteral, percutaneous
19
Q
5 rights of drug safety
A
- Right patient
- Right time
- Right dose
- Right route
- Right drug
20
Q
Manifestation of infection
A
- Germ must be present
- Germ must have place to live
- Germ must have susceptible host (not immune)
- Way for germ to enter host
21
Q
CPR Compression Ratio
A
30:2 ratio of compression to ventilations
22
Q
Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) (Stroke)
A
sudden interruption of the blood supply to the brain
23
Q
Asepsis
A
absence of pathogenic microorganisms
24
Q
Medical asepsis
A
practices designed to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens; synonym for clean technique
25
Surgical asepsis
techniques used to destroy all pathogenic organisms, also called sterile technique
26
Contamination
Process by which something is rendered unclean/unsterile
27
Disinfection
Pathogenic spores (bacteria) are destroyed
28
Antiseptic
Inhibits growth of bacteria
29
Sterilization
Process by which all micro-organisms are destroyed
30
Neutropenia
Low WBC count
31
Anemia
Low RBC count
32
Thrombocytopenia
Low platelet count
33
RBC count range
4.2-5.7 mill/cc3
34
WBC count range
3,900-10,000/cc3
35
HGB count range
13.2-16.9/cc3
36
HCT count range
38.5%-44.9%
37
Platelet count range
150,000-400,000/cc3
38
Karnofsky Performance Scale
0-100 Scale
Based on ability for patient to perform daily activities and care for themselves
39
Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG)
0-5 scale (0 = fully active, 5 = dead)
Progression of disease and how it affects daily living
40
Glasgow Coma Scale
3-15 scale
Assesses cognitive function
41
Informed Consent
- Nature of disease, procedure, tx
- Expected outcomes/likelihood of success
- Reasonable alternatives
- Known risks
42
Physiologic concerns for patient
Maslows Hierarchy of Needs + Pain Relief
43
Maslows Hierarchy of needs
physiological, security, social, esteem, and self-actualization
44
Psychological concerns for patients
Five stages of grief + anxiety
45
Five stages of grief
denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
46
Social concerns for patients
-support from family/friends
-participation in normal life activities
-intimacy
47
Mores
fixed customs or manners; moral attitudes
48
Values
Regarded as good + desirable, can be learned
49
7 ethical principles
- beneficence
- nonmaleficence
- autonomy
- justice
- veracity
- role fidelity
- confidentiality
50
Beneficence
Act for good of another
51
Nonmaleficence
duty to do no harm
52
Autonomy
Ability to make independent decisions
53
Justice
What's considered fair
54
Veracity
truthfulness
55
Role fidelity
Operation within scope of practice
56
Confidentiality
Protection of privacy
57
Tort
A civil wrong
58
Unintentional tort
negligence and malpractice
59
Intentional tort
A wrongful act knowingly committed
60
Quasi-intentional tort
invasion of privacy, defamation of character
61
Autonomy supported by:
Patients bill of rights act (1998)
62
DNR:
Request for no resuscitation
63
Living will
Healthcare wishes for end of life care if patient cannot make decisions on their own
64
POA/healthcare proxy
Active whenever patient is unable to make decisions on their own/states whom they want to make these decisions
65
Advance directive
Tells provider what kind of care is preferred in the case of patient being unable to make decisions
66
Linear Attenuation Coefficient
The linear attenuation coefficient is dependent on the density of absorbing material and is the fraction of photons attenuated per unit thickness. It has a dimensionless unit of 1/cm.
67
If the intended dose for treatment is 180 cGy, and a shadow tray with a factor of 0.97 is accidentally inserted, what actual dose is received by the patient?
The shadow tray factor of 0.97 indicates that about 3% of the dose is absorbed by the tray and/or 97% of the dose is transmitted. 180 x 97% = 175.
68
In which of the following diseases is it important to include regional lymphatics?
A. T1 glottic larynx carcinoma
B. glioblastoma multiforme
C. nasopharynx carcinoma
D. osteosarcoma of the femur
nasopharynx carcinoma (has lymphatic drainage)
69
One disadvantage of using a vertex field to treat primary brain malignancies is that the field exits through the:
When treating the vertex with the patient in neutral position, the vertex field would exit through the pharynx. If the patient is treated with chin flexed, the vertex field exits through the pharynx and spinal cord.
70
For breast irradiation, internal mammary lymphatics would be best treated using:
an anterior electron field
71
When extremities are irradiated for the management of primary bone malignancy, it is important to spare a portion of:
tissue along the extremity to prevent obstruction of lymphatic flow
72
A patient is receiving 3000 cGy total dose to a spine port using the SSD technique. The total given dose is 3636 cGy. What is the percent depth dose?
82.5 % --- Use the applied dose formula. Given dose = TD/%DD. 3636 = 3000/x; 3000/3636 = 0.825.
73
The volume of lung within an anterior supraclavicular field can be reduced when treating breast carcinoma by:
moving the breast down on the chest wall and making the match line as superior as possible
74
The normal limits for PSA in the patient under 60 years old is less than or equal to:
4 ng/mL
75
While moving a patient with a chest tube, the tube becomes dislodged. The therapist should:
apply an airtight dressing over the opening
76
A necessary instrument for examination of the inner ear would be the:
otoscope
77
Hair loss (epilation) is usually permanent when the scalp is exposed to radiation doses exceeding:
60 Gy
78
The lumen size for a urinary catheter is expressed in:
The lumen size of the urinary catheter is expressed in French. The lower the French size, the smaller the lumen.
79
The process of modifying the beam profile to optimize the dose distribution throughout the treatment volume is called:
intensity modulation
80
The average rate for respiration in the adult, in breaths/minute is:
10 - 20
81
For a clinical whole brain without the use of a face mask, the inferior border will be at the mastoid process and (select two):
supraorbital ridge
external auditory meatus
82
Which of the following sites is most likely to show bone metastasis?
thoracic spine
83
Adults undergoing total body irradiation may be treated at an extended distance while assuming the position of:
semirecumbent, with the knees bent on a gurney
84
The type of nutrition that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and introduces nutrients into the veins is called:
parenteral
85
increasing the dose rate on a linear accelerator will _______the percent depth dose.
not change
86
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) test measures the function of the
kidneys
87
The tolerance dose (TD 5/5) for the whole lung in the adult is:
1800 cGy in 10 fractions
88
Treatment machine accessories composed of dense metal should be kept at least_______cm away from the patient's skin surface.
15 cm
