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ARRT Boards > Radiation Safety > Flashcards

Radiation Safety Flashcards

1
Q

Cycle of infection broken by:

A

destruction, removal, prevention

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2
Q

Approx platelet count range:

A

140,000-400,000/cc

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3
Q

Normal adult respiration

A

20-30 breaths/min

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4
Q

Practice that helps prevent spread of micro-organisms

A

Medical asepsis

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5
Q

Most common route of infection spread

A

Direct contact

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6
Q

Loss of hair after radiation

A

Epilation

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7
Q

A,B,C’s of CPR

A

Airway, breathing, circulating

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8
Q

Artery where pulse is measured

A

Brachial

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9
Q

Normal adult pulse

A

60-80 beats/min

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10
Q

Iodinated contrast

A

Risk of anaphylaxis

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11
Q

radiation recall

A

recurrence of radt skin rxns during chemo

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12
Q

SVC syndrome symptoms

A

Facial/arm edema, cough, neck distention

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13
Q

SVC Syndrome

A

Narrowing of the superior vena cava restricting blood flow to the heart

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14
Q

Most common manifestation of infection in neutropenic patients

A

Fever

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15
Q

Parenteral drug administration uses _____ technique

A

Surgical asepsis technique

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16
Q

Parenteral drug administration is:

A

Providing drugs through the blood stream (ie: IV, IC, IM, SQ, ID, IP)

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17
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

hospital acquired infection

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18
Q

3 routes of drug administration

A

enteral, parenteral, percutaneous

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19
Q

5 rights of drug safety

A
  • Right patient
  • Right time
  • Right dose
  • Right route
  • Right drug
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20
Q

Manifestation of infection

A
  • Germ must be present
  • Germ must have place to live
  • Germ must have susceptible host (not immune)
  • Way for germ to enter host
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21
Q

CPR Compression Ratio

A

30:2 ratio of compression to ventilations

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22
Q

Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) (Stroke)

A

sudden interruption of the blood supply to the brain

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23
Q

Asepsis

A

absence of pathogenic microorganisms

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24
Q

Medical asepsis

A

practices designed to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens; synonym for clean technique

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25
Q

Surgical asepsis

A

techniques used to destroy all pathogenic organisms, also called sterile technique

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26
Q

Contamination

A

Process by which something is rendered unclean/unsterile

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27
Q

Disinfection

A

Pathogenic spores (bacteria) are destroyed

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28
Q

Antiseptic

A

Inhibits growth of bacteria

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29
Q

Sterilization

A

Process by which all micro-organisms are destroyed

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30
Q

Neutropenia

A

Low WBC count

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31
Q

Anemia

A

Low RBC count

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32
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Low platelet count

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33
Q

RBC count range

A

4.2-5.7 mill/cc3

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34
Q

WBC count range

A

3,900-10,000/cc3

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35
Q

HGB count range

A

13.2-16.9/cc3

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36
Q

HCT count range

A

38.5%-44.9%

37
Q

Platelet count range

A

150,000-400,000/cc3

38
Q

Karnofsky Performance Scale

A

0-100 Scale
Based on ability for patient to perform daily activities and care for themselves

39
Q

Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG)

A

0-5 scale (0 = fully active, 5 = dead)
Progression of disease and how it affects daily living

40
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

3-15 scale
Assesses cognitive function

41
Q

Informed Consent

A
  • Nature of disease, procedure, tx
  • Expected outcomes/likelihood of success
  • Reasonable alternatives
  • Known risks
42
Q

Physiologic concerns for patient

A

Maslows Hierarchy of Needs + Pain Relief

43
Q

Maslows Hierarchy of needs

A

physiological, security, social, esteem, and self-actualization

44
Q

Psychological concerns for patients

A

Five stages of grief + anxiety

45
Q

Five stages of grief

A

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

46
Q

Social concerns for patients

A

-support from family/friends
-participation in normal life activities
-intimacy

47
Q

Mores

A

fixed customs or manners; moral attitudes

48
Q

Values

A

Regarded as good + desirable, can be learned

49
Q

7 ethical principles

A
  • beneficence
  • nonmaleficence
  • autonomy
  • justice
  • veracity
  • role fidelity
  • confidentiality
50
Q

Beneficence

A

Act for good of another

51
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

duty to do no harm

52
Q

Autonomy

A

Ability to make independent decisions

53
Q

Justice

A

What’s considered fair

54
Q

Veracity

A

truthfulness

55
Q

Role fidelity

A

Operation within scope of practice

56
Q

Confidentiality

A

Protection of privacy

57
Q

Tort

A

A civil wrong

58
Q

Unintentional tort

A

negligence and malpractice

59
Q

Intentional tort

A

A wrongful act knowingly committed

60
Q

Quasi-intentional tort

A

invasion of privacy, defamation of character

61
Q

Autonomy supported by:

A

Patients bill of rights act (1998)

62
Q

DNR:

A

Request for no resuscitation

63
Q

Living will

A

Healthcare wishes for end of life care if patient cannot make decisions on their own

64
Q

POA/healthcare proxy

A

Active whenever patient is unable to make decisions on their own/states whom they want to make these decisions

65
Q

Advance directive

A

Tells provider what kind of care is preferred in the case of patient being unable to make decisions

66
Q

Linear Attenuation Coefficient

A

The linear attenuation coefficient is dependent on the density of absorbing material and is the fraction of photons attenuated per unit thickness. It has a dimensionless unit of 1/cm.

67
Q

If the intended dose for treatment is 180 cGy, and a shadow tray with a factor of 0.97 is accidentally inserted, what actual dose is received by the patient?

A

The shadow tray factor of 0.97 indicates that about 3% of the dose is absorbed by the tray and/or 97% of the dose is transmitted. 180 x 97% = 175.

68
Q

In which of the following diseases is it important to include regional lymphatics?
A. T1 glottic larynx carcinoma
B. glioblastoma multiforme
C. nasopharynx carcinoma
D. osteosarcoma of the femur

A

nasopharynx carcinoma (has lymphatic drainage)

69
Q

One disadvantage of using a vertex field to treat primary brain malignancies is that the field exits through the:

A

When treating the vertex with the patient in neutral position, the vertex field would exit through the pharynx. If the patient is treated with chin flexed, the vertex field exits through the pharynx and spinal cord.

70
Q

For breast irradiation, internal mammary lymphatics would be best treated using:

A

an anterior electron field

71
Q

When extremities are irradiated for the management of primary bone malignancy, it is important to spare a portion of:

A

tissue along the extremity to prevent obstruction of lymphatic flow

72
Q

A patient is receiving 3000 cGy total dose to a spine port using the SSD technique. The total given dose is 3636 cGy. What is the percent depth dose?

A

82.5 % — Use the applied dose formula. Given dose = TD/%DD. 3636 = 3000/x; 3000/3636 = 0.825.

73
Q

The volume of lung within an anterior supraclavicular field can be reduced when treating breast carcinoma by:

A

moving the breast down on the chest wall and making the match line as superior as possible

74
Q

The normal limits for PSA in the patient under 60 years old is less than or equal to:

A

4 ng/mL

75
Q

While moving a patient with a chest tube, the tube becomes dislodged. The therapist should:

A

apply an airtight dressing over the opening

76
Q

A necessary instrument for examination of the inner ear would be the:

A

otoscope

77
Q

Hair loss (epilation) is usually permanent when the scalp is exposed to radiation doses exceeding:

A

60 Gy

78
Q

The lumen size for a urinary catheter is expressed in:

A

The lumen size of the urinary catheter is expressed in French. The lower the French size, the smaller the lumen.

79
Q

The process of modifying the beam profile to optimize the dose distribution throughout the treatment volume is called:

A

intensity modulation

80
Q

The average rate for respiration in the adult, in breaths/minute is:

A

10 - 20

81
Q

For a clinical whole brain without the use of a face mask, the inferior border will be at the mastoid process and (select two):

A

supraorbital ridge
external auditory meatus

82
Q

Which of the following sites is most likely to show bone metastasis?

A

thoracic spine

83
Q

Adults undergoing total body irradiation may be treated at an extended distance while assuming the position of:

A

semirecumbent, with the knees bent on a gurney

84
Q

The type of nutrition that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and introduces nutrients into the veins is called:

A

parenteral

85
Q

increasing the dose rate on a linear accelerator will _______the percent depth dose.

A

not change

86
Q

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) test measures the function of the

A

kidneys

87
Q

The tolerance dose (TD 5/5) for the whole lung in the adult is:

A

1800 cGy in 10 fractions

88
Q

Treatment machine accessories composed of dense metal should be kept at least_______cm away from the patient’s skin surface.

A

15 cm

ARRT Boards (1 decks)

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