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radar test > radar test > Flashcards

radar test Flashcards

1
Q

radar information is derived from both ______and ______ radar systems.

A

primary and secondary

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2
Q

In what class of airspace may secondary radar be used as the sole display?

A

Class A

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3
Q

If primary radar is temporarily unusable or out of service secondary radar service alone may be used as long as what condition exist?

A

pilot is advised and the condition is temporary. also describe location

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4
Q

what is the correct phraseology to request the cessation of Electronic Attack Activity?

A
  1. stop stream, stop burst in area

2. stop buzzer

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5
Q

Are merging target procedures necessary for aircraft established in holding?

A

no

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6
Q

To which 3 categories of aircraft must merging target be applied?

A
  1. aircraft at 10,000 feet and above
  2. Turbojet aircraft regardless of altitude
  3. Presidential aircraft regardless of altitude
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7
Q

Are controllers required to issue traffic information to aircraft that are separated by more than the appropriate vertical separation minima?

A

no

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8
Q

After an aircraft is informed “radar contact” when will it discontinue reporting ?

A

discontinue reporting over compulsory reporting points

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9
Q

Radar service is automatically terminated and the aircraft needs not to be advised of termination when:

  1. ______
  2. _____
A
  1. aircraft cancels IFR flight plan except when in class b and class c airspace, TRSA or where base radar is provided
  2. Aircraft conducting instrument, visual or contact approach has landed or instructed to change advisory frequency.
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10
Q

Discrete beacon codes are normally are normally assigned by the ______

A

ARTCC computer

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11
Q

Unless otherwise specified in a directive, LOA, or coordinated at the time of handoff when may you request an aircraft to change its beacon code?

A

only when the aircraft enter your area of responsibility

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12
Q

What code will be used in military aircraft operating on VR Routes?

A

4000

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13
Q

What code will be used by an aircraft in emergency status and not radar identified?

A

7700

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14
Q

What code should be used by an aircraft experiencing radio failure?

A

7600

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15
Q

What two VFR code assignments may be used in lieu of 1200 for aircraft in firefighting and Search and Rescue operations?

A

1255 for firefighting

1277 SAR missions

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16
Q

What code is reserved for use by pressure suit flights and aircraft operations above FL600?

A

4400-4465 or “4400 series”

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17
Q

What code may be used by an aircraft in a hijack situation?

A

7500

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18
Q

What factors must be considered when approving or disapproving a request to operate in Class A airspace with a failed transponder?

A

Disapprove or withdraw previously issued approval in Class A airspace with failure of transponder due to traffic conditions or other operational factors. Its controllers discretion

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19
Q

What pilot report is necessary for an altitude readout to be considered valid?

A

Mode C altitude readout

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20
Q

What is the proper phraseology to change the code of an aircraft that is squawking an incorrect code?

A

Reset transponder , Squawk 1234 (correct code)

or Altimeter, verify altitude +/- 300 feet

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21
Q

What is the proper phraseology for requesting an aircraft to turn off the altitude part of its transponder?

A

Stop altitude squawk, altitude differs by (# of feet)

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22
Q

What are the three methods of primary radar identification?

A
  1. observing a departing aircraft target within 1 mile of the take off runway end at airports with a operating control tower,
  2. observing a target who position with respect to a fix or visual reporting point corresponds with a direct position point received from an aircraft and the observed track is consistent with the reported heading or route of flight
  3. observing a target make an identifying turn or turn of 30 degrees or more
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23
Q

What are the four methods of secondary (beacon) radar identification?

A
  1. Request the aircraft to activate the “IDENT” feature of the transponder and then observe the identification display
  2. Request the aircraft to change to a specific discrete or non-discrete code and then observe the target or code display change
  3. Request the a/c to change transponder to “standby”
  4. Enroute. An aircraft may be considered identified when the full data block is automatically associated with the beacon target symbol of an a/c that is squawking a discrete code assigned by the computer.
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24
Q

What is the necessary action when any doubt exists as to the radar identification of an aircraft?

A

re-identify aircraft or terminate radar service

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25
Q

When must an aircraft be informed of its position when radar identification is established?

A

Inform an aircraft of its position whenever radar identification is established by means of identifying turns or by any of the beacon identification methods outline

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26
Q

When must an aircraft be informed of radar contact? 2 answers

A
  1. initial radar identification in the ATC system is established
  2. subsequent to loss of radar contact or terminating radar service, radar identification is reestablished
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27
Q

When may a data block (target marker) be dropped from a radar display?

A

Data block may be dropped after the aircraft has exited the sector or delegated airspace, and all potential contacts have been resolved, include an a/c in a point out.

28
Q

A HAND OFF is

A

An action taken to transfer the radar identification and radio communications from one controller to another controller

29
Q

RADAR CONTACT is

A

used to inform the controller initiating a handoff, the a/c is identified and approval is granted for the a/c to enter the receiving controller’s airspace

30
Q

A POINT OUT

A

an action taken by a controller to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft to another without transfer of radio communications

31
Q

POINT OUT APPROVED

A

term used to inform the controller initiating a point out that the a/c is identified and that approval is granted for the a/c to enter the receiving controllers airspace as coordinated without a communications transfer or the appropriate automated system response.

32
Q

Comparing the terms “ handoff” and “point out” listed above, what is the main difference between the two?

A

During a handoff radio communications with the a/c will be transferred

33
Q

When is the term “traffic” normally issued?

A
  1. In response to a handoff or point out
  2. In anticipation of a handoff or point out; or
  3. In conjunction with a request for control of an aircraft
34
Q

TRAFFIC OBSERVED

A

The term used to inform the controller issuing the traffic restrictions that the traffic is identified and that the restrictions issued are understood and will be complied with

35
Q

List the three methods to transfer radio identifications of an aircraft

A
  1. physically point to the target on the receiving controllers display
  2. use landline voice communications
  3. use automation capabilities
36
Q

By what point must a transferring controller complete a radar handoff to the receiving controller?

A

Prior to an aircraft entering the airspace delegated to the receiving controller

37
Q

What 3 items must be ensured prior to transferring communications with an aircraft to the receiving controller?

A
  1. Potential violations of adjacent airspace and potential conflicts between a/c in their own area od jurisdiction is resolved.
  2. Coordination has been accomplished with all controllers through whose area of jurisdiction the a/c will pass prior to entering the receiving controllers area of jurisdiction unless otherwise specified by a LOA or a facility directive.
  3. Restrictions issued to ensure separation are passed to the receiving controller
38
Q

What is the radar separation minima if single site adapted radar is in use within 40 miles of the radar antenna and below FL180?

A

3 miles

39
Q

The radar separation minima for Enroute centers using mosaic radar is:

Below FL600 ____
At or Above FL600 ___

A

5 mile

10 miles

40
Q

Separate a standard formation flight by adding ___ mile to the appropriate radar separation minima

A

1 mile

41
Q

Separate two standard formation flights from each other by adding ___ miles to the appropriate separation minima

A

2 miles

42
Q

what is the appropriate separation minima for the following scenarios?
A. flight of 4 /F16 from a flight of 2H/B747 ___miles

A

7 miles

43
Q

what is the appropriate separation minima for the following scenarios?
b. H/B747 from a flight of 4/F16___miles

A

6 miles

44
Q

what is the appropriate separation minima for the following scenarios?
c. F16 from a H/B747 ___ miles

A

5 miles

45
Q

State the minima for separating from adjacent radar controlled airspace:
a. When less than 40 miles from single site adapted radar antenna
B. When more than 40 miles from single site adapted radar antenna

A

a. 1 1/2 miles

b. 2 1/2 miles

46
Q

State the minima for separating from adjacent non-radar controlled airspace:
A. Below Flight Level 600
B. At or above FL 600

A

a. 5 miles

b. 10 miles

47
Q

Where and for what purposes may aircraft be vectored?

A

In controlled airspace for separation, safety, noise abatement, operational advantage, confidence maneuver, or when a pilot requests

48
Q

When may vectors be issued to aircraft in Class G airspace?

A

Only upon pilot request and as an additional service

49
Q

Of what must the pilot be advised when the controller is initiating a vector?

A

Advise the pilot of the purpose

50
Q

Compensate for compression when assigning air speed adjustments in an in-trail situation by using one of the following techniques?
1._____
2_____

A
  1. reduce the trailing a/c first

2. increase the leading a/c first `

51
Q

Express speed adjustments in ___increments based on ____speed.

A

5 knot and indicated

52
Q

Express Mach numbers in ___ increments for turbojet aircraft with Mach meters.

A

0.01

53
Q

Pilots complying with speed adjustments instruction should maintain a speed within plus or minus ____ of the specified speed

A

10 knots or 0.02 mach #

54
Q

At what point on an instrument approach may speed restrictions no longer be assigned?

A

Inside the final approach on final or a point 5 miles from the runway, whichever is closer to the runway

55
Q

What three instances when a speed assignment must not be given?

A
  1. At or above FL 390 without pilot consent
  2. Executing a published high altitude instrument approach procedure
  3. In a holding pattern
56
Q

What are the recommended minima when assigning airspeeds?

between FL280 and 10,000

A

no less than 250 knots

57
Q

What are the recommended minima when assigning airspeeds?

Turbojets outside 20 miles of the airport and below 10,000 ft

A

no less than 210 knots

58
Q

What are the recommended minima when assigning airspeeds?

Turbojets within 20 miles of the airport and below 10,000 ft

A

no less than 170 knots

59
Q

What are the recommended minima when assigning airspeeds?

Turbojets on departure

A

no less than 230 knots

60
Q

The Full Data Block (FDB or Target Marker ) requires three lines of data and often contains a fourth line. name each of the fields from the following example

a. UAL495
b. 100 down arrow 240
c. 311 450
d. JAN

A

a. a/c call sign
b. assigned altitude, current altitude, altitude indicator
c. CID- computer identification speed
d. Final destination

61
Q

Line 3 can contain many different items (special conditions). Refer to the FDB below and describe what is contained in line 3.

UAL495
350C
R3110-45
DEN

A

No longer have track control

62
Q 
Label the five different beacon code target symbols 
a. \
b. /
c. V
d. I
E. ==
A

a. unpaired
b. paired
c. code 1200 beacon , vfr
d. Mode C intruder paired track eligible for conflict alert
e. ident

63
Q

What is flat track and the symbol?

A

flight plan aided tracking radar and computer talk to each other , diamond symbol

64
Q

what is the symbol for Free track?

A

triangle symbol

65
Q

What is the symbol for coast track an what does it mean?

A

symbol; lost radar contact

66
Q

100 T 240 ; what does the T mean?

A

“T” Interim altitude, temporary altitude 100 and 240 is current altitude

67
Q

To terminate each landline contact, the controller should close the coordination by stating
The Controller’s _______

A

operating initials

radar test (1 decks)

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