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Final Exam Rad II Study Prep > Rad Procedures II Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Rad Procedures II Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

The bones of the instep are:

  1. Phalanges
  2. Metatarsals
  3. Tarsals
  4. Metacarpals
A
  1. Metatarsals
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2
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an arch of
the foot?
1. Vertical
2. Transverse
3. Longitudinal
4. Both 1 and 2
A
  1. Vertical
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3
Q

The MTP joints are located at the ____ of
the metatarsals
1. bases
2. heads

A
  1. heads
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4
Q 
Which tarsal articulates with the 4th and 5th
metatarsals and the calcaneus?
1. Navicular
2. 1st cuneiform
3. Talus
4. Cuboid
A
  1. Cuboid
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5
Q 
Sesamoid bones are located on the \_\_\_\_
surface of the foot
1. dorsal
2. lateral
3. plantar
4. medial
A
  1. plantar
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6
Q

The lateral malleolus is located on the:

  1. Tibia
  2. Talus
  3. Calcaneus
  4. Fibula
A
  1. Fibula
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7
Q

CR location for the AP Axial Foot:

  1. Head of 5th metatarsal
  2. Base of 5th metatarsal
  3. Head of 3rd metatarsal
  4. Base of 3rd metatarsal
A
  1. Base of 3rd metatarsal
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8
Q 
The foot is rotated \_\_\_degrees for a
medial oblique view
1. 15
2. 30
3. 45
4. 70
A
  1. 30
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9
Q 
Tube angulation for Plantodorsal view of
the heel:
1. 15 degrees cephalic
2. 30 degrees cephalic
3. 30 degrees caudal
4. 40 degrees cephalic
A
  1. 40 degrees cephalic
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10
Q 
The foot must be \_\_\_\_ for all views of the
ankle
1. extended
2. dorsiflexed
3. inverted
4. everted
A
  1. dorsiflexed
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11
Q 
Located between the two tibial condyles on
the superior surface of the tibia
1. Intercodylar fossa 
2. Intercondylar eminence
3. Intercondylar sulcus
4. Tibial tuberosity
A
  1. Intercondylar eminence
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12
Q

The most proximal end of the fibula:

  1. Head
  2. Neck
  3. Apex
  4. shaft
A
  1. Apex
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13
Q

The anterior surface of the femur:

  1. Patellar
  2. Popliteal
  3. Dorsal
  4. Ventral
A
  1. Patellar
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14
Q 
The intercondylar fossa is located on the
\_\_\_\_ aspect of the femur
1. anterior
2. posterior
3. medial
4. lateral
A
  1. posterior
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15
Q

Classified as a fibrous, syndesmosis joint:

  1. Distal tibiofibular joint
  2. Proximal tibiofibular joint
  3. Patellofemoral joint
  4. Femorotibial join
A
  1. Distal tibiofibular joint
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16
Q 
The \_\_\_\_ ligaments attach at the sides of
the knee
1. cruciate
2. collateral
3. retinaculum
4. achilles
A
  1. collateral
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17
Q

In a true AP projection of the tib/fib, the
femoral condyles will appear ___ to the IR
1. Parallel
2. Perpendicular
3. Superimposed

A
  1. Parallel
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18
Q 
How should the CR be angled for an AP
projection of the knee?
1. 5 degrees cephalic
2. 5 degrees caudal
3. 15 degrees cephalic
4. 15 degrees caudal
A
  1. 5 degrees cephalic
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19
Q 
The proximal tib/fib articulation is seen in
the:
1. AP Knee
2. Lateral Knee
3. Medial Oblique Knee
4. Lateral Oblique Knee
A
  1. Medial Oblique Knee
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20
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a name for
the axial view of the patella?
1. Settegast
2. Sunrise
3. Skyline
4. Skyfall
A
  1. Skyfall
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21
Q

The region above the pelvic brim:

  1. False pelvis
  2. Greater pelvis
  3. True pelvis
  4. Both 1 & 2
A
  1. Both 1 & 2 False pelvis & Greater pelvis
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22
Q

The lesser sciatic notch is found on the:

  1. Ilium
  2. Ileum
  3. Ischium
  4. Pubis
A
  1. Ischium
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23
Q

The most inferior structure on the pelvis:

  1. Iliac crest
  2. Obturator foramen
  3. Ischial spine
  4. Ischial tuberosity
A
  1. Ischial tuberosity
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24
Q

What bones comprise the obturator
foramen? 1.ilium 2.ischium 3.pubis

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2, and 3
A
  1. 2 and 3 ischium & pubis
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25
Q 
The most prominent part of the greater
trochanter is in the same plane as the:
1. Ischial spine
2. Ischial tuberosity
3. ASIS
4. Pubic symphysis
A
  1. Pubic symphysis
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26
Q 
The intertrochanteric crest is seen on the
\_\_\_ aspect of the femur
1. anterior
2. posterior
3. lateral
4. medial
A
  1. posterior
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27
Q 
The movement of the pubic symphysis is
classified as:
1. Amphiarthrodial
2. Synarthrodial
3. Diarthrodial
A
  1. Amphiarthrodial
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28
Q 
For the AP Pelvis, the legs should be
rotated internally \_\_\_\_\_ degrees
1. 5-7
2. 10-15
3. 15-20
4. 30-45
A
  1. 15-20
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29
Q 
What should be seen in profile on an AP
hip radiograph?
1. ASIS
2. Greater trochanter
3. Lesser trochanter
4. Femoral condyles
A
  1. Greater trochanter
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30
Q 
The CR enters at the \_\_\_ for a lateral
projection of the hip
1. femoral neck
2. femoral head
3. ischial spine
4. acetabulum
A
  1. femoral neck
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31
Q

Most superior aspect of the sternum:

  1. Manubrium
  2. Body
  3. Xiphoid process
  4. Sternal angle
A
  1. Manubrium
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32
Q

The jugular notch corresponds to:

  1. T1-T2
  2. T2-T3
  3. T4-T5
  4. T10-T11
A
  1. T2-T3
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33
Q

The body of the sternum is also known as:

  1. Corpus
  2. Diaphysis
  3. Gladiolus
  4. 1 & 3 only
  5. 1, 2, & 3
A
  1. 1 & 3 only Corpus & Gladiolus
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34
Q

The xiphoid process corresponds to:

  1. T4-T5
  2. T7
  3. T10
  4. L2-L3
A
  1. T10
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35
Q 
The \_\_\_ of the rib attaches to the body of
the thoracic vertebra
1. head
2. tubercle
3. groove
4. apex
A
  1. head
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36
Q 
Joint between the sternum and the costal
cartilage of the true ribs:
1. Costotransverse
2. Manubriosternal
3. Costochondral
4. Sternocostal
A
  1. Sternocostal
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37
Q

Interchondral joints are found in ribs:

  1. 1-7
  2. 8-12
  3. 6-10
  4. 1-12
A
  1. 6-10
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38
Q 
The exposure for an AP projection of the
lower ribs should be taken on:
1. Inspiration
2. Expiration
3. Shallow breathing
4. No breathing instructions required
A
  1. Expiration
39
Q

What is SID for the RAO sternum?

  1. 30 inches
  2. 40 inches
  3. 48 inches
  4. 72 inches
A
  1. 30 inches
40
Q 
How many degrees is the patient rotated
for the RAO sternum?
1. 0
2. 15-20
3. 30
4. 45
A
  1. 15-20
41
Q

Which of the following curves are primary?

  1. Thoracic & pelvic
  2. Thoracic & cervical
  3. Cervical & lumbar
  4. Lumbar and pelvic
A
  1. Thoracic & pelvic
42
Q

Most posterior aspect of a vertebra:

  1. Pedicle
  2. Lamina
  3. Transverse process
  4. Spinous process
A
  1. Spinous process
43
Q 
Articulation between the superior and
inferior articular processes of two vertebrae:
1. Intervertebral joint
2. Zygapophyseal joint
3. Intervertebral foramina
4. Vertebral foramen
A
  1. Zygapophyseal joint
44
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_ is formed by the inferior
vertebral notch articulating with the superior
vertebral notch of an adjacent vertebra
1. intervertebral disk
2. intervertebral foramina
3. articular pillar
4. costal facet
A
  1. intervertebral foramina
45
Q

The inner part of the intervertebral disk:

  1. Annulus fibrosus
  2. Nucleus fibrosus
  3. Annulus pulposus
  4. Nucleus pulposus
A
  1. Nucleus pulposus
46
Q

Costal facets are found in the ____ vertebrae

  1. cervical
  2. thoracic
  3. lumbar
  4. sacral
A
  1. thoracic
47
Q

When performing the 45 degree RPO view of the
C-spine, the intervertebral foramina are seen on the ____ side
1. up
2. down

A
  1. up
48
Q

In order to see the intervertebral foramina in the T-spine, which view should be performed?

  1. 70-degee RPO/LPO
  2. 70-degree RAO/LAO
  3. 45-degree RPO/LPO
  4. Lateral
A
  1. Lateral
49
Q 
For a lateral c-spine, the CR should be
perpendicular to:
1. C1
2. C4
3. C7
4. T2
A
  1. C4
50
Q 
When performing the AP projection of the
C-spine at 40” SID, the CR should be angled:
1. 15 degrees cephalic
2. 15 degrees caudal
3. 0 degrees
4. 45 degrees cephalic
A
  1. 15 degrees cephalic
51
Q

CR angulation for Fuch’s view:

  1. 15 degrees cephalic
  2. 15 degrees caudal
  3. 30 degrees cephalic
  4. 30 degrees caudal
A
  1. 30 degrees cephalic
52
Q 
Which kVp should be used for a soft
tissue neck exam?
1. 55 kVp
2. 65 kVp
3. 80 kVp
4. 95 kVp
A
  1. 65 kVp
53
Q

CR location for the AP T-spine view:

  1. C7-T1
  2. T5
  3. T7
  4. T10
A
  1. T7
54
Q

The spinal cord terminates at:

  1. T7
  2. L1-L2
  3. L3-L4
  4. L5
A
  1. L1-L2
55
Q 
The part of the lamina between the
superior and inferior articular processes
on a lumbar vertebra
1. Mamilary process
2. Accessory process
3. Spinous process
4. Pars interarticularis
A
  1. Pars interarticularis
56
Q 
How many vertebrae fuse to form the
coccyx?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
A
  1. 4
57
Q

The eye of the Scottie Dog:

  1. Pedicle
  2. Lamina
  3. Transverse process
  4. Inferior articular process
A
  1. Pedicle
58
Q

The body of the Scottie Dog:

  1. Pedicle
  2. Lamina
  3. Superior articular process
  4. Inferior articular process
A
  1. Lamina
59
Q 
In a lateral view of the L-spine, the \_\_\_\_
are seen in profile
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Zygapophyseal joints
3. Spinous processes
4. Vertebral bodies
A
  1. Spinous processes
60
Q 
The CR is angled \_\_\_\_\_ for an AP
projection of the coccyx
1. 10 degrees cephalic
2. 10 degrees caudal
3. 15 degrees cephalic
4. 15 degrees caudal
A
  1. 10 degrees caudal
61
Q

Medial junction of the upper and lower eyelids:

  1. Inner canthus
  2. Outer canthus
  3. Nasion
  4. Acanthion
A
  1. Inner canthus
62
Q

There is a __ degree difference between OML and IOML

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9
A
  1. 7
63
Q

Reid’s baseline is another name for:

  1. GML
  2. OML
  3. IOML
  4. AML
A
  1. IOML
64
Q

The ____ is a posterior extension of the IOML

  1. nasion
  2. TEA
  3. gonion
  4. inion
A
  1. inion
65
Q

The ethmoidal notch is on the:

  1. Ethmoid bone
  2. Temporal bone
  3. Maxillary bone
  4. Frontal bone
A
  1. Frontal bone
66
Q

The basilar portion of the occipital bone
articulates with the body of the ______ bone
1. frontal
2. sphenoid
3. temporal
4. parietal

A
  1. sphenoid
67
Q

The thick, conical process projecting from
the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone:
1. Crista galli
2. Labyrinth
3. Anterior clinoid process
4. Dorsum sellae

A
  1. Crista galli
68
Q

Posterior boundary of the sella turcica:

  1. Tuberculum sellae
  2. Dorsum sellae
  3. Anterior clinoid process
  4. Clivus
A
  1. Dorsum sellae
69
Q

Most vulnerable portion of the skull to fracture:

  1. Parietal eminence
  2. Frontal squama
  3. Squamous portion of temporal bone
  4. External occipital protuberance
A
  1. Squamous portion of temporal bone
70
Q

The zygomatic process is found on the:

  1. Frontal bone
  2. Maxillary bone
  3. Temporal bone
  4. Zygomatic bone
A
  1. Temporal bone
71
Q 
If using the GML to position for a PA
Caldwell of the skull, the CR should be angled:
1. 15 degrees cephalic
2. 15 degrees caudal
3. 23 degrees cephalic
4. 23 degrees caudal
A
  1. 23 degrees caudal
72
Q

When evaluating an AP Caldwell view of the skull, the _____ should be seen in the lower 1/3 of the orbits

  1. sella turcica
  2. petrous pyramids
  3. cristal galli
  4. maxillary sinuses
A
  1. petrous pyramids
73
Q

For a Towne’s view of the skull, the CR should exit the:

  1. foramen magnum
  2. jugular foramen
  3. nasion
  4. glabella
A
  1. foramen magnum
74
Q

When positioning the patient for a Lateral view of the skull, the _____ should be perpendicular to the edge of the cassette

  1. IP line
  2. MSP
  3. OML
  4. IOML
A
  1. IOML
75
Q

Only facial bone to contain a paranasal sinus

  1. Zygoma
  2. Maxillary
  3. Mandible
  4. Vomer
A
  1. Maxillary
76
Q

The posterior ethmoid sinuses drain into the

  1. Middle nasal meatus
  2. Superior nasal meatus
  3. Sphenoethmoidal recess
  4. Both 1 & 2
A
  1. Superior nasal meatus
77
Q

The sphenoid sinuses lie directly below:

  1. Sella turcica
  2. Petrous pyramids
  3. Lesser wing of sphenoid
  4. Optic foramen
A
  1. Sella turcica
78
Q

The orbits project ___ degrees superiorly from the OML

  1. 15
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 37
A
  1. 30
79
Q

The ____ separates the superior orbital fissure and the optic canal

  1. optic foramen
  2. sphenoid sinus
  3. orbital apex
  4. sphenoid strut
A
  1. sphenoid strut
80
Q

The ____ bone forms most of the orbital roof.

  1. zygomatic
  2. maxillary
  3. frontal
  4. temporal
A
  1. frontal
81
Q

Which view best demonstrates the frontal sinuses?

  1. PA Caldwell
  2. PA Towne’s
  3. PA Waters
  4. SMV
A
  1. PA Caldwell
82
Q

Which sinuses are best seen in the SMV projection?

  1. Frontal & maxillary
  2. Frontal & sphenoid
  3. Sphenoid & ethmoid
  4. Ethmoid & maxillary
A
  1. Sphenoid & ethmoid
83
Q

Best view to demonstrate a blowout fracture:

  1. Waters
  2. Caldwell
  3. Rhese
  4. Lateral
A
  1. Waters
84
Q

Smallest facial bone:

  1. Vomer
  2. Lacrimal bone
  3. Palatine bone
  4. zygoma
A
  1. Lacrimal bone
85
Q

The anterior nasal spine is found on the:

  1. Zygomatic bone
  2. Maxillary bone
  3. Mandible
  4. Frontal bone
A
  1. Maxillary bone
86
Q

The malar bone is another name for:

  1. Mandible
  2. Maxilla
  3. Zygomatic bone
  4. Lacrimal bone
A
  1. Zygomatic bone
87
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ of the palatine bone helps to
form the posterior nasal cavity
1. vertical plate
2. horizontal plate
3. temporal process
4. nasal spine
A
  1. vertical plate
88
Q

Forms the inferior part of the nasal septum:

  1. Maxilla
  2. Palatine bone
  3. Vomer
  4. Nasion
A
  1. Vomer
89
Q

Anterior end of the mandibular notch:

  1. Condyle
  2. Coracoid process
  3. Tubercle
  4. Coronoid process
A
  1. Coronoid process
90
Q

Only bone that does not articulate with any other bone:

  1. Hyoid
  2. Patella
  3. Sesamoid
  4. Flabella
A
  1. Hyoid
91
Q

The CR is perpendicular to the _____ for the SMV view of the facial bones

  1. MSP
  2. IOML
  3. OML
  4. IP line
A
  1. IOML
92
Q

Which view of the nasal bones is performed table-top?

  1. Waters
  2. PA Caldwell
  3. Lateral
  4. SMV
A
  1. Lateral
93
Q

The CR enters at the ____ for a lateral view of the nasal bones.

  1. inner canthus
  2. outer canthus
  3. nasion
  4. EAM
A
  1. inner canthus
94
Q

The CR exits the ____for a PA view of the mandible

  1. Nasion
  2. TMJ
  3. Acanthion
  4. Mental protuberance
A
  1. Acanthion

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