RAAS System Flashcards

1
Q

the RAAS system is a physiologic regulator of 2 things

A

total peripheral resistance and blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

renin cleaves ____ to ____

A

angiotensinogen to ang I, if no renin then Angiotensinogen will be degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many AA does ang 1 and ang 2 have

A

Ang 1 has 10 and Ang 2 has 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Angiotensin 2 affects what 4 things after binding to the AT1 receptor

A
  1. adrenal (medullary thick ascending lib of henle, collecting duct) - increases NaCl absorption
  2. renal proximal tubule (increased NaCl absorption)
  3. Renal Efferent arterioles (vasoconstriction maintains GFR)
  4. Hypothalamus (thirst, increased ADH secretion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what stimulates RAAS

A

decreased blood volume, Na+ depletion, increased sympathetic outflow, leads to the release of renin (rate limiting step) to start the RAAS cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Role of ACE

A

expressed in the lung. inactivates bradykinin (vasodilator), converts Ang 1 to Ang 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what releases renin

A

JG cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what 3 things regulate renin release

A
  1. intra macula densa pathway (NaCl concentration low inc renin release)
  2. intrarenal baroreceptor pathway ( high pressure dec renin release and visa versa)
  3. beta adrenergic pathway (SNA system- B1 receptor, NE release)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

short loop negative feedback

A

releases renin - inc ang 2 - goes to AT1 transporter, once body sees response it inhibits renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

long loop negative feedback (2)

A
  1. increased BP- increased pressure at preglomerular vessels - dec renin
  2. increased BP- activation of baroreflex sytem decreased sympathetic tone - decreased NE release - decreased renin release (inc parasympathetic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

diuretics and vasodilators affect on renin

A

decrease blood volume and decrease arterial pressure - this increases renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

loop diuretics affect on renin

A

decrease NaCl reabsorption - increases renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NSAIDS affect on renin release

A

decrease PG synthesis (more pressure) - decrease renin release (PG usually blocks reabsorption of Na+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Beta Blockers affect on renin release

A

decrease activation of beta 1 receptors on JG cells- decreases the renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ang II effect on the kidney

A
intrarenal blood-pressure constriction (increases GFR, GFR plateaus then decreases )
renal tubules (increases Na+ and H2O reabsorption) - this increases Na+ and H2O retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ang II effect on the adrenal gland

A

cortex - increases aldosterone (Na+ reabsorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ang II effect on the vascular smooth muscle

A

vasoconstriction, increase TPR, increase arteriolar resistance, increase cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ang II effect on the CNS

A

increase ADH (inc H2O reabsorption), increase thirst (inc H2O ingestion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ang II effect on the myocardium

A

increase contractility, hypertrophy, collagenase, increase wall thickness, remodeling of the heart can block blood flow out of the ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what 3 things do drugs targeting the RAAS cascade do

A
  1. decrease vascular constriction
  2. decrease aldosterone secretion
  3. decrease ADH release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bradykinin

A

vasodilator and is inhibited by ACE, causes a dry cough, activates nitric oxide, increased with an ace inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

aldosterone effects

A

AT1 activates, Na+ and H2O retention and Mg+ and K+ loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what 3 drugs effect the RAAS cascade

A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. AT1 blockers
  3. Renin inhibitors
  4. Aldosterone receptor antagonists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

where is the ACE site of cleavage on the

25
Q

what was the first ACE

A

venom of the south american pit viper - drop in bp - lead to development of catopril

26
Q

enalapril

A

ACE inhibitor, prodrug, enalaprilat is the active form of enalapril to be used IV - because it is a prodrug it has to be metabolized in the stomach

27
Q

lisinopril

A

ACE inhibitor, not a prodrug

28
Q

ACE inhibitors are used to treat

A

hypertension, including those with DM, CHF, MI, CKD, left ventricular dysfunction, high coronary artery disease

29
Q

adverse effects of ACEIs

A

dry cough, hyperkalemia (K+ sparing diuretics should not be given), angioedema (allergic reaction and swelling under the skin, can be life threatening, stop therapy to admin epi), acute renal failure

30
Q

why can acute renal failure occur in patients taking ACEIs

A

can occur in patients with decreased renal perfusion bc ang II mediated constriction of the efferent arteriole is inhibited and decrease GFR

31
Q

what drugs should ACEIs not be given with

A

NSAIDs - inhibits PG - NSAIDs cause vasoconstriction and PG causes vasodilation - take tylenol instead, anything that would change Ang II need to take caution

32
Q

ACEI contraindications

A

renal artery stenosis (blockage = decrease flow), angioedema, “black box warning” pregnancy (category D) benefit may outweigh the effect

33
Q

fosinopril

A

ACEI, not cleared by the kidney but through urinary and biliary routes,

34
Q

pharmacokinetics of ACEIs

A

all agents are cleared via the kidneys, dose adjustments should be made in individuals with renal impairments

35
Q

ACEI drug names

A

all end in pril

36
Q

catopril

A

ACEI - good choice for kids because it is easily crushable

37
Q

ARBs MOA

A

Angiotensin receptor blockers bind to the AT1 receptor with high affinity/selectivity for AT1 versus AT2, inhibit Ang 2, differs from ACEI bc ACE is not the only enzyme that can convert Ang I to Ang II, ARBs do not affect bradykinin levels (no cough)

38
Q

how does ACEI and ARB affect negative feedback

A

disrupts the negative feedback on renin - increases renin, with ARBs

39
Q

ARBS effect on the receptors

A

AT1 receptors occupied, AT2 receptors cause vasodilation with the high Ang II levels

40
Q

losartan

A

ARB, diabetic nephropathy, stroke prophylaxis

41
Q

irbesartan

A

ARB, diabetic nephropathy

42
Q

valsartan

A

heart failure

43
Q

pharmacokinetics of ARBS

A

liver/renal excretion

CYP metabolism

44
Q

contraindications of ARBS

A

renal artery stenosis (blockage = decrease flow), angioedema, “black box warning” pregnancy (category D) benefit may outweigh the effect

45
Q

Aliskiren

A

renin inhibitor - monotherapy, used in combination with diuretics and ARBS for hypertension

46
Q

Aliskiren MOA

A

inhibits renin, works upstream RAAS (ARBs and ACEI work downstream), reduces the cleavage of angiotensinogen to ANG I. reducing both Ang I and Ang II

47
Q

renin inhibitors adverse effects

A

dose related GI, dizziness, fatigue, cough, angioedema, headache, hyperkalemia, hypotension

48
Q

renin inhibitors contraindications

A

black box warning, angioedema, hyperkalemia

49
Q

pharmacokinetics renin inhibitors

A

poor absorption (oral), metabolized by CYP 3A4, t 1/2 hangs around for a long time and antihypertensive effect lasts throughout the day, anti-infective and antidepressant

50
Q

aldosterone antagonist

A

potassium sparing diuretics, inhibit the Na+ in the CD and K+ excretion is reduced. on the apical membrane in the collecting duct, the epithelial sodium channels allows for Na+ reabsorption, driven by the activity of Na+/K+ ATPase on the basolateral membrane of the cells. Na+ reabsorption is balanced by K+ excretion and H+ secretion

51
Q

two subclasses of aldosterone antagonists

A
  1. ENAC channel inhibitors

2. aldosterone antagonists

52
Q

amiloride

A

Enac channel inhibitor

53
Q

triametrene

A

enac channel inhibitor

54
Q

eplerenone

A

aldosterone antagonist, metabolized by 3A4

55
Q

spirnolactone

A

aldosterone antagonist, may cause significant GI effects, including bleeding, contraindicated in patients with peptic ulcer disease (risk of exacerbating those GI effects, use eplerenone instead!)

56
Q

aldosterone antagonist

A

inhibits the aldosterone receptor but indirectly inhibits the activity of ENaC

57
Q

advantage of eplerenone vs spironolactone

A

eplerenone is more selective and just works better

spironolactone- has some adverse effects

58
Q

what drugs may contribute to potassium sparing drugs contraindicated for hyperkalemia

A

non-selective b-blockers (cause uptake of K+, inc K+ level) + aldosterone antagonist would not be good

59
Q

both eplerenone and spirnolactone cause what adverse effect

A

metabolic acidosis