R5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are Primary Tax Sources?

A

•IRC, Regulations, Rev Rulings and Rev Procedures, Court Cases.

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2
Q

What is Substantial Authority?

A

•>33%

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3
Q

What is a Tax Shelter?

A

•Any (I) partnership or other entity; (ii) investment plan or arrangement; or (iii) other plan or arrangement if a significant purpose of such activity is avoidance or evasion of tax.

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4
Q

When is a tax preparer Liable for positions? In terms of Disclosure.

A
  • Reasonable Basis: Must Disclose.
  • Substantial: Do not need to Disclose
  • More Likely Than Not: No Need to disclose unless a tax shelter.
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5
Q

What is a tax preparer’s penalty for understatement of taxpayer liability?

A

Greater of 1K or 50% of income received.

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6
Q

How long must a tax preparer retain records?

A

3 Years

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7
Q

Who has the burden of proof in a civil penalty?

A

The IRS.

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8
Q

Who does IRS Circular 230 apply to?

A

Practitioners in front of the IRS.

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9
Q

When can a tax practitioner charge a contingent fee?

A
  • IRS examination or audit
  • Claim solely for a refund of interest and/or penalties; or
  • A judicial proceeding arising under the IRC.
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10
Q

What basis is required to sign a position under the IRC?

A

•Reasonable Basis standard.

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11
Q

What organization has the power to revoke licenses?

A

•State Board of Accountancy.

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12
Q

Who makes up the PCAOB? What are their duties?

A
  • 2 CPAs, 3 Non CPAs

* Register Firms, Establish Rules, Conduct Inspections.

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13
Q

How often are firms inspected by the PCAOB?

A
  • Large Firms: Annually

* Small Firms: Tri Annually

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14
Q

What is the failure to file penalty? Failure to Pay Penalty?

A
  • Failure to File: 5% Per Month

* Failure to Pay: .5% Per Month

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15
Q

When are Individual Estimated Income Tax Payments made? When are corporate estimated income tax payments made?

A
  • April 15, June 15, September 15, January 15

* April 15, June 15, September 15, December 15

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16
Q

Who has to make estimated tax payments?

A

-If Tax liability > 1K

  • 90% CY
  • 100% of PY, 110% PY if AGI >150K
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17
Q

How can CPA legal liability arise?

A
  • Breach of Contract
  • Tort (Negligence, Fraud, Constructive Fraud
  • Violation of a Statute
18
Q

What are the Elements to Negligence?

A
  • Duty of Care
  • Breach of the Duty of Care
  • Breach Caused Injury
  • Damages
19
Q

Who does a CPA owe reasonable care to?

A
  • Majority Rule: To Clients and Limited Foreseeable Class of Persons CPA knows are relying on work.
  • Ultramares: CPA narrowly limited to those in privity or named in contract.
20
Q

What is a strong defense to a breach of contract?

A

•Client Hindered Performance

21
Q

What is a strong defense to negligence?

A
  • Plaintiff is not a client

* Immaterial

22
Q

What must be proven against a CPA to prove Actual Fraud? Constructive Fraud?

A

-Actual:

  • Material Misrepresentation
  • Actual Reliance
  • Intent
  • Damages
  • Scienter

-Constructive: No Scienter, Only Reckless disregard

23
Q

To whom is a CPA liable in Fraud?

A
  • Anyone who prove the elements of fraud.

* Privity is not a defense.

24
Q

What is the best defense to Fraud?

A
  • Lack of Scienter

* Acted in Good Faith

25
Q

When is a CPA liable under Section 11 of the 1933 Act?

A

L oss

  • A cquired
  • M aterial Misrepresentation
26
Q

When is a CPA liable under Rule 10b-5 of the 1934 Act?

A

-CPA Liable for Fraud

  • L = Loss
  • A = Acquired
  • M = Material Misrepresentation
  • S = Scienter
  • R =Reliance
27
Q

What are the Audit requirements of the 1934 Act?

A
  • Procedures designed to detect illegal acts.
  • Procedures designed to identify related party transactions.
  • Procedures to evaluate going concern.
28
Q

Under SOX, how long must work papers of a public company be stored?

A

7 Years

29
Q

What is the purpose of the Securities Act of 1933 Act?

A

-IPO

  • Provide Investors with sufficient information to make informed investment decisions
  • Most issuers required to register with SEC
30
Q

What parties are required to register with SEC?

A
  • Issuers
  • Underwriters
  • Dealers
31
Q

What is Regulation A?

A

-Partial Exemption

  • Simplified form of registration
  • Offering Statement and an offering circular
  • Sales may not exceed $5 Million in a 12 Month Period
32
Q

What is included in Regulation D?

A
  • Rule 504, 505, 506.
  • General Advertisement OK for 504 and 506.
  • Inform SEC within 15 Days.
  • Immediate Resale to Public Prohibited.
33
Q

What are the Requirements of Rule 504?

A
  • 1 Million Limit Annually

* No Limit on Number or Types of Purchasers

34
Q

What are the Requirements of Rule 505?

A
  • 5 Million Limit
  • Up to 35 Unaccredited buyers, unlimited accredited
  • No General Advertising.
35
Q

What are the Requirements of Rule 506?

A
  • No limit on proceeds.

* Max 35 unaccredited & sophisticated investors, unlimited accredited investors.

36
Q

What companies must register securities under the SEC act of 1934?

A
  • Shares traded on a national exchange
  • > 10 MM in Assets
  • 2,000 Shareholders or 500 unaccredited Shareholders
37
Q

What difference between gross negligence and constructive fraud?

A

There is no difference.

38
Q

When can a corporation begin to make oral offers to sell securities?

A

Immediately after the filing of the registration statement.

39
Q

What is a plaintiff entitled to receive after successful suing under 10b-5? Under Section 11?

A

Entitled to the entire amount of loss caused by the fraud.

Monetary Damages Only.

40
Q

Whom is a CPA liable to under fraud?

A

Any one who suffered a loss.

41
Q

When are disclosures required to investors under Regulation D?

A

504: No Disclosures.

505 and 506: Required when there are unaccredited investors.