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Clinical pharmacy > Quizzes Prelim > Flashcards

Quizzes Prelim Flashcards

1
Q

They represent a powerful tool for risk stratification and have
greater sensitivity and specificity. However, they do provide a
low sensitivity in the early phases of an MI (< 6 hrs after
symptom onset) and require repeat measurements at 12 to 16
hrs, if negative.
I. CK-MB
II. cTnI
IM. TnT
IV. LDH
V. EKG

A

I. III only

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2
Q

NSTEMI is believed to indicate an
impending AM, and the goal of treatment is
to prevent the development of the AMI.
A. True
B. False

A

FALSE - UNSTABLE ANGINA NOT STEMI

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3
Q

A condition that requires immediate
reperfusion therapy, if possible, through either
thrombolysis or percutaneous coronary
intervention (PCI).

A

STEMI

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4
Q

Damage to the myocardial tissue is
routinely reversible, as in the case of
angina pectoris, owing to potential death
of myocardial tissue if reperfusion does
not take place early enough.

A.True
B.False

A

B.False - is NOT routinely reversible

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5
Q

Patients who present without ST-segment
elevation are considered to have either UA
or NSTEMI; the final diagnosis is made
later, after the presence or absence of serial
Cardiac marker is determined

A. True
B. False

A

TRUE

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6
Q

The most serious anhythmic complication of
an AMI is _______, which may occur without warning.

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Atrial tachycardia
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Ventricular tachycardia
E. Atrial flutter

A

C. Ventricular fibrillation

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7
Q

The Overall treatment goals in ACS are

To relieve chest pain and anxiety
II. To prevent/reduce myocardial damage
IlI.To prevent or arrest complications, such as lethal
arrhythmias
IV. To reopen (or reperfuse) closed coronary vessels
V. To increase cardiac workload and destabilize cardiac
rhythm
A. All of the above
B.I, I, IlL, IV only
C.I, I, III only
D.I, Il only
E. I only

A

B.I, I, IlL, IV only

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8
Q

Patients with UA/NSTEMI with ongoing
ischemic discomfort should receive SL
nitroglycerin (NTG) 0.4 mg every 10 minx 5
doses, after which time reassess for potential
need for intravenous nitroglycerin.
A.True
B.False

A

B.False - every 5 minutes × 3 doses

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9
Q

Guidelines for UA/NSTEMI and STEMI from 2007 have stated that morphine is considered a class I recommendation in patients with STEM because Morphine causes

I.venous pooling and reduces preload
I. Increase cardiac workload
Ill. Increase oxygen consumption
IV. Relief of chest pain

A

I and IV only

I.venous pooling and reduces preload
I. Increase cardiac workload - decrease
Ill. Increase oxygen consumption- decrease
IV. Relief of chest pain

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10
Q

In cardiogenic shock vasopressors are used to enhance
blood pressure through B-adrenergic stimulation and V1
receptors within smooth muscle. Vasopressors are:
I. norepinephrine (Levophed®)
II. epinephrine (Adrenalin®)
III. dopamine in high doses
IV. vasopressin (Pitressin®)
V. isoproterenol (Isuprel®)
VI. digoxin (Lanoxin®

A

E.I, I, III, IV only

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11
Q

Intravenous administration of a recombinant tissue-plasminogen activator (t-PA) or a recombinant plasminogen activator (r-PA) may restore blood flow in an occluded artery if administered within 12 hrs of an AMI.
Examples of these are:
I. alteplase (Activase@) II. reteplase (Retavase®)
IlI. tenecteplase (Tnkase®) IV. Bivalirudin (Angiomax®)
V. fondaparinux (Arixtra®) VI. Abciximab (ReoPro®)

A

E.I, I, Ill only

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12
Q

Precautions and monitoring effects of morphine include
I. can produce Orthostatic hypotension and fainting
I. monitor for hypotension and signs of respiratory depression
IlI. can produce bradyarrhythmias
IV. Nausca and vomiting
V. Severe constipation

A

All of the above

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13
Q

Oral antiplatelets used for AMI
includes
I. Aspirin
II. Clopidogrel
III. Warfarin
IV. Ticagrelor
V. Enoxaparin
VI. Prasugrel

A

I, Il, IV, VI only

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14
Q

Vasodilators like nitroprusside
(Nipride®) increase preload, increase
pulmonary capillary wedge pressure by
dilating veins, and reduce afterload by
decreasing resistance to left ventricular
ejection.
A.True
B.False-

A

B.False- reduce preload, lower PCWP

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15
Q

Serving as the main pacemaker of the
heart, the AV node initiates 60 to 100
beats/min.
A.True
B.False-

A

B.False- SA node

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16
Q

Precipitating causes of Arrhythmias result from various
conditions, including
I. coronary artery disease (CAD) II. ischemic heart disease
I. Myocardial infarction (MI) IV. Systemic hypertension
V. Hyperkalemia/hypokalemia
VI. COPD

A

A.All of the above

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17
Q

Beta blockers belong to Class I of
William’s classification of
antiarrhythmic drugs.
A.True
B.False

A

TRUE

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18
Q

This is a chaotic ventricular rhythm; no organized electrical activity, no ventricular contraction, patient requires immediate medical attention to prevent death; immediate
electrical cardioversion necessary or use medical cardioversion.

A.Atrial Autter
B.Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Ventricular fibrillation
E.Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia

A

D.

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19
Q

Calcium Channel blockers belong to
Class Ill of William’s classification of
antiarrhythmicdrugs.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False - Class IV

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20
Q

This is the rhythm you see from the EKG
strips in the patient’s chart. What is the
rhythm?

A.Atrial fibrillation
B.Atrial flutter
C.Normal sinus rhythm
D. Ventricular tachycardia
E.Ventricular fibrillation

A

C.Normal sinus rhythm

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21
Q

Amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide and
ibutilide belong to which Class of
William’s classification of antiarrhythmic
drugs.

A. Class I
B. Class Il
C. Class Ill
D. Class IV

A

C. Class Ill

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22
Q

What is the chronic treatment for patients with history of atrial fibrillation to potential coagulation problems

A. Aspirin
B.Clopidogrel
C.Warfarin
D.Cilostazol

A

C. Warfarin

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23
Q

This is indicated for the conversion of
scute supra ventricular tachycardia (SVT) to normal sinus rhythm.

A. Metoprolol IV
B Amiodarone IV
C.Diltiazem IV
D. Adenosine
E Labetalol IV

A

D. Adenosine

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24
Q

This antiarrhythmic drug has been
incorporated into the ACLS guidelines and
recommended by the expert panel members as
the first-choice antiarrhythmic for shock-
refractory ventricular fibrillation/ventricular
tachycardia.
A.Sotalol
B.Dofetilide
C.Ibutilide
D.Amiodarone
E.Metoprolol

A

D. Amiodarone

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25
Q

It is defined as a polymorphic ventricular
tachycardia with a twisting QRS complex morphology, which sometimes occurs with drugs that prolong ventricular repolarization (QT interval widening).

A.Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
B.Premature ventricular contraction (PVC)
C.Ventricular fibrillation
D.Premature atrial contraction (PAT)
E.Torsades de Pointes (TdP)

A

E.Torsades de Pointes (TdP)

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26
Q

This occurs when the blood or oxygen
supply to the myocardium is impaired and/ or
the heart is working harder than usual to
supply oxygen
A.Heart Attack
B.AMI
C.Angina
D.Arrhythmia
E.Pulmonary Embolism

A

C. Angina

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27
Q

Concurrent use of this medication with
sildenafil (Viagra, Revatio) or other
phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (commonly
used for erectile dysfunction): may increase
hypotension, cause MI or death (severe cases)
A.CCB
B.BB
C.Digoxin
D.Nitrates
E. ACE Inhibitors/ARBs

A

D.Nitrates

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28
Q

MONA”-acronym for the primary emergency
treatments of ischemic chest pain means
A.Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin
B.Metoprolol, olmesartan, nipride, amiodarone
C.Magnesium, oxygen, nitrates, acetaminophen
D.Morphine, oxygen, nitrate, acetaminophen
E.Morphine, oxygen, nitroprusside, amiodarone

A

A.Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin

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29
Q

This occurs when a coronary artery is
obstructed, which leads to prolonged ischemia
that results in death or damage to heart muscle
tissue
A.Angina pectoris
B.Unstable angina
C.AMI
D.Cardiac tamponade
E.Hear failure

A

C. AMI

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30
Q

Beta blockers have negative
chronotropic activity and negative
inotropic activity.
A.True
B.False

A

A. TRUE

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31
Q

This is the preferred drug initially for
treatment of ischemic pain
A.Beta blockers
B.CCB
C. Nitroglycerin
D.Morphine
E.Aspirin

A

Nitroglycerin

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32
Q

This is characterized by persistent chest
pain radiating down the left arm, weak
pulse, pallor
A.Cardiac tamponade
B.Angina
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Ventricular fibrillation
E. Thromboembolism

A

. Myocardial infarction

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33
Q

It is the drug of choice for acute angina
pectoris attacks
A.Morphine
B.Beta blockers
C.ACE inhibitors
D.Nitroglycerin
E.Calcium channel blockers

A

D. Nitroglycerin

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34
Q

It is the most common side effect of
organic nitrates
A.Postural hypotension
B.Facial flushing
C.Tachycardia
D.Headache
E.Tolerance to the drug

A

D.Headache

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35
Q

Coronary Heart Disease risk factors
include
I. Diabetes Il. cigarette smoking
Ill. hyperlipidemia
IV. hypertension
V. Family history
VI. Male
A.All of the above
B.All of the above except VI
C.All of the above except V
D.Il, Ill, IV, V
E.I, Il, IlI, IV

A

E.I, Il, IlI, IV

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36
Q

The cardiopulmonary arrest could be reversed
by
I. early CPR Il. early Automated external
defibrillation (AED)
II1. Early hospitalization IV. Percutaneous
Coronary Intervention
A.All of the above
B.I, Il, Ill only
C. land Il only
D. IV only
E. I only

A

C.

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37
Q

The identification of a
cardiopulmonary arrest victim
includes ensuring that the patient is
unresponsive, pulseless, and having
a normal breathing.
A.True
B.False

A

B.False- abnormal breathing.

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38
Q

The rate of compression for CPR
should be between
per
minute
A.80-100
B.50-100
C.100-120
D. 100-150
E. 150-200

A

C

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39
Q

BASIC LIFE SUPPORT (BLS) is
designed to deliver adequate ventilation,
stabilize the blood pressure along with
the cardiac output, control cardiac
arrhythmias, and restore organ
perfusion.
A.True
B.False

A

False- ADVANCED CARDIAC LIFE
SUPPORT (ACLS)

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40
Q

Various complications can occur during
cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Below are
complications
I. AED failure
Il.
inability to obtain venous
access
IlI. rib fracture
IV. pneumothorax
V. lung laceration
VI.cardiac tamponade

A. All of the above
B.All of the except VI
C.All of the above except V
D.All of the above except IV
E. All of the above except III

A

A

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41
Q

We should try to recognize and treat
reversible causes of cardiopulmonary arrest
commonly referred to as Hs and Ts. H includes
I. Hyponatremia II. Hypovolemia Ill.Hypoxia
IV. Hypothermia.
V. Hypo/hyperkalemia
VI. Hyperpyrexia
A.All of the above
B.I, II, Ill, IV
D.Ill, IV, V, VI
E.I, Ill, VI only

A

C

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42
Q

We should try to recognize and treat
reversible causes of cardiopulmonary arrest
commonly referred to as Hs and Ts. T includes
I. Tetanus Il. Tension pneumothorax
Ill. Toxic overdose of drugs
IV. Thromboembolism/pulmonary embolism
V. Thrombus/acute myocardial infarction
VI. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
A.All of the above
B.l, Il, Ill, IV
C.I, Ill, IV, V
D.Ill, IV, V, VI
E.I, IlI, VI only

A

C

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43
Q

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
can be interrupted for doing blood
or radiological investigation.
A.True
B.False

A

B

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44
Q

Stages in the management of the patient with
confirmed cardiopulmonary arrest are:
I. Initial evaluation plus Basic Life Support
II. Defibrillation
Ill. Advanced Life Support
IV. Post-resuscitation care
V. Long-term management
A All of the above
B. All of the above except V
C.I, Il, Ill only
D.IV and V only
E.Il, Ill, IV, V only

A

A

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45
Q

Two breaths to be given
after 60 chest compressions.
A.True
B.False

A

B

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46
Q

The depth of compression
should be between 2 to 3 inches
for adults.
A.True
B.False

A

B

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47
Q

Common electrical mechanisms in
cardiopulmonary arrest
I. ventricular fibrillation (VF)
Il. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
Ill. asystole.
IV. Pulseless sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT)
A. All of the above
B. 1, 11, I11
C.I, Ill, IV
D.I, Il only
E. None of the above

A

A.

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48
Q

Considered the gold standard
in the treatment of ischemic stroke
A.r-tPA
B.Warfarin
C.Aspirin
D.LMWH
E.UFH

A

A

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49
Q

Stroke can be caused by a blood
vessel rupturing and preventing
blood flow to the brain
A.Ischemic stroke
B.TIA
C.Hemorrhagic stroke
D.Silent stroke
E.Cryptogenic stroke

A

C

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50
Q

The main cause for ischemic
stroke is
A.Bleeding of the vessels
B.Arrhythmia
C. Fatty deposits lining the vessel
walls
D. Uncontrolled hypertension
E. All of the above

A

C

51
Q

It is a strongly recommended
option to remove a clot in eligible
patients with a large vessel occlusion
A. Laparoscopic surgery
B.Mechanical thrombectomy
C.Carotid endarterectomy
D. Cardiac catheterization
E.All of the above

A

B

52
Q

Called a mini-stroke, it is caused by a
serious temporary clot. This is a warning
sign stroke and should be taken
seriously.
A. Ischemic stroke
B.TIA
C.Hemorrhagic stroke
D.Silent stroke
E. Cryptogenic stroke

A

B

53
Q

In some instances, despite
testing, the cause of a stroke can’t
be determined. This is called
A. Ischemic stroke
B.TIA
C. Hemorrhagic stroke
D.Silent stroke
E.Cryptogenic stroke

A

E

54
Q

Risk factors for brain stem stroke are
the same as for strokes in other areas of the
brain
I. high blood pressure.
Il. diabetes,
Ill. heart disease.
IV. atrial fibrillation
V. smoking.
VI. Genetic factor
A.All of the above
B.All of the above except V and VI
C.All of the above except VI
D. I, 11, Ill only
E.I and Il only

A

C

55
Q

A stroke occurs when a
vessel supplying blood to the
brain is obstructed.
A.Ischemic stroke
B.TIA
C.Hemorrhagic stroke
D.Silent stroke
E.Cryptogenic stroke

A

A

56
Q

These are vitamin K-dependent coagulant proteins
or clotting factors
I. Factor Il.
II. Factor VI
IlI. Factor VII
IV. Factor IX.
V. Factor X
A.All of the above
B.All of the above except Il
C.All of the above except IV
D.All of the above except IV
E.All of the above except V

A

B

57
Q

The Virchow’s triad consists of
I.Vascular injury
I. Hypercoagulable state
V. Embolism.
VI. HTN
II. Venous stasis
IV. Ischemia
A.All of the above
BI, I, Ill only
C.I, IlI, IV only
DIII, IV, V only
E.IV. V, VI only

A

B

58
Q

Pharmacologic prevention for VTE can be prevented by
counteracting increased blood congulability with
I. unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I.oral anticongulant therapy with a vitamin K antagonist
Ill.low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
IV. factor Xa inhibitor
V.factor Ila inhibitor.
A. All of the above
B. 1, I, IlI only
C.I, I, II, IV only
D.IV and V only
E. None of the above

A

A

59
Q

UFH’s therapeutic effect is hastened by
administration of a loading dose, which may be
empirically selected (e.g., 5000-units bolus
given intravenously) or individualized by the
patient’s dosing weight.
A.True
B.False

A

True

60
Q

The anticoagulant effects of UFH are
usually monitored by the
A.INR
B. Prothrombin time
C.aPTT
D.CBC
E.BMP

A

C

61
Q

The initial dose of warfarin should
be overlapped with UFH, LMWH, or a
pentasaccharide for a minimum of 5
days for treating established embolic
disease to 7 days
A.True
B.False

A

A

62
Q

PT and INR monitoring are usually
to be performed at baseline and daily
when commencing warfarin in the
inpatient acute care setting.
A.True
B.False

A

A

63
Q

Fondaparinux (Arixtra)can be
administered intramuscularly
A.True
B.False

A

B.False- must not be administered
intramuscularly

64
Q

First-line therapy for hypertension
A.BB
B.CCB
C.ARB
D.ACEI
E.Diuretics

A

E

65
Q

Avoid dihydropyridines in patients
with CHF
A.True
B.False

A

A

66
Q

Antihypertensive Drugs of choice in
patients with diabetes mellitus or CHF
A.Diuretics
B. ACEI
C.CCB
D.Beta Blockers
E.Nitrates

A

B

67
Q

Antihypertensive Drug of choice
in pregnancy
A.ACEI
B.ARBs
C.CCB
D.methyldopa
E.Beta blockers

A

D

68
Q

The beta blocker useful for migraine and
essential tremor
A.Acebutolol
B.Metoprolol
C.Propranolol
D.Timolol
E.Carvedilol

A

C

69
Q

Thiazides are more effective in
lowering blood pressure than loop
diuretics in patients with renal
insufficiency
A.True
B.False

A

B - interchange

70
Q

Examples of Vasodilators are
I.Hydralazine (Apresoline).
I. minoxidil (Loniten)
Ill. sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress)
IV. Nicardipine.
V. Terazosin
A.All of the above
B.I and II only
C.Il and III only
D.I, I, Ill only
E.IM, IV, V only

A

D

71
Q

Potassium-sparing diuretics are
I. amiloride (Midamor).
I. spironolactone
(Aldactone)
IlI. triamterene (Dyrenium).
IV. Eplerenone (Inspra)
V. HCTZ
A. All of the above
B. All of the above except Ill
C. All of the above except IV
D. All of the above except V
E. All of the above except Ill, IV

A

D

72
Q

Drug classes that are used in heart failure
I. Na/K ATPase inhibitors
11. Natriuretic peptide
Ill.Vasodilators
IV.ACEl/ARBs
V.Beta adrenoceptor antagonists
VI.Beta adrenoceptor agonists
A All of the above
B. All of the above except VI
C.All of the above except V
D. All of the above except IV
E. All of the above except Ill

A

A

73
Q

Digitalis glycosides are no longer
considered first-line drugs in the
treatment of heart failure.
A.True
B.False

A

A

74
Q

Pharmacologic therapies for heart failure include
I.the removal of retained salt and water
Il reduction of afterload and salt and water retention
I, reduction of excessive sympathetic stimulation
I.reduction of preload or afterload
V. direct augmentation of depressed cardiac contractility
A. All of the above
B. All of the above except V
C. All of the above except IV
D. All of the above except Ill
E. All of the above except Il

A

A

75
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Right-sided heart failure
include
1.Orthopnea; dyspnea when lying flat
I.Peripheral edema
Ill Ascites
IV.Jugular venous distention
V.Hepatomegaly
A. All of the above
B. All of the above except I
C.All of the above except Il
D. All of the above except Ill
E. All of the above except IV

A

B

76
Q

This is an acute or chronic kidney disease that occurs
when the kidneys are unable to properly remove waste and excess fluids from the body. This occurs when there is glomerular damage from immune or inflammatory reactions and lesions,
A.Fanconi syndrome
B.Glomerulonephritis
C.Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
D.Kidney stones
E.Diabetic nephropathy

A

B

77
Q

It is the most common cause of kidney failure
in the United States, accounts for more than one
third of all patients who are on dialysis
Fanconi syndrome
A.Glomerulonephritis
B.Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
C.Kidney stones
D.Diabetic nephropathy

A

D

78
Q

The Stage in which the GFR has fallen to
approximately 10 mL/min, and renal
replacement therapy is needed.
A.Stage I
B. Stage Il
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
E. Stage V

A

E

79
Q

This is a disorder of the glomeruli (clusters of microscopic
blood vessels in the kidneys that have small pores through
which blood is filtered) in which excessive amounts of protein
are excreted in the urine (proteinuria). This typically leads to
accumulation of fluid in the body (edema), low levels of the protein albumin (hypoalbuminemia), and high levels of fats
(hyperlipidemia) in the blood.
A.Nephrotic syndrome
B.Drug-induced glomerular disease:
C.End-stage renal disease (ESRD)
D.IgA nephropathy
E. Diabetic nephropathy

A

A

80
Q

It often leads to decreased kidney function and
ultimately to kidney failure. The cause of this disease is not known, although most people with the disease have abnormalities in their immune system. Patients are treated with immunosuppressive drugs, such as steroids, may be less likely to develop kidney failure.
A.Nephrotic syndrome
B.Drug-induced glomerular disease:
C.End-stage renal disease (ESRD)
D.IgA nephropathy
E.Diabetic nephropathy

A

D

81
Q

This is a short-term treatment, used in patients
with kidney failure. The kidney failure may be
new or already present. Instead, a positive
hydrostatic pressure drives water and solutes
across the filter membrane from the blood
compartment to the filtrate compartment, from
which it is drained.
A.Hemodialysis
B. Peritoneal dialysis
C.Continuous veno-venous hemofiltration
D.All of the above

A

C

82
Q

It is an oral quinazoline diuretic for the
management of edema and hypertension. It
is not a true thiazide, but it is a sulfonamide
derivative.
A.Hydrocholorothiazide
B.Torsemide
C.Chlorthalidone
D.Metolazone
E.Ethacrynic acid

A

D

83
Q

These drugs inhibit the body’s ability to
reabsorb sodium at the ascending loop of Henle,
which leads to a retention of water in the urine
because water normally follows sodium back
into the extracellular fluid (ECF).
A.Thiazides
B.Osmotic diuretics
CARBs
D.Potassium-sparing diuretics
E.Loop diuretics

A

E

84
Q

These drugs act on the distal tubule and
inhibit the sodium-chloride symporter
leading to retention of water in the urine as
water normally follows penetrating solutes.
A. Thiazides
B.Osmotic diuretics
C.ARBs
D.Potassium-sparing diuretics
E.Loop diuretics

A

A

85
Q

These drugs are filtered in the glomerulus,
but cannot be reabsorbed. Their presence leads
to an increase in the osmolarity of the filtrate.
To maintain osmotic balance, water is retained
in the urine.
A.Thiazides
B.Osmotic diuretics
C.ARBs
D.Potassium-sparing diuretics
E.Loop diuretics

A

B

86
Q

Which Drugs may cause glomerular
disease
I NSAID.
II. rifampin.
Ill. ampicillin.
IV gold
V. captopril
A.All of the above
BI, I, Ill only
C.I, I, III, IV only
D.I, Ill, IV, V only
E.None of the above

A

A

87
Q

These kidney stones are usually caused by chronic
urinary tract infections. The bacteria that cause these infections release enzymes that increase the amount of ammonia in the urine. This excess ammonia may form large, sharp stones that can potentially damage the kidneys.
A.Calcium stones
B.Cystine stones
C.Struvite stones
D.Uric acid stones
E.Jack stones

A

C

88
Q

These stones develop in patients who have
an inherited disorder. This disorder causes the
kidneys to release too many amino acids,
which then form stones.
A.Struvite stones
B.Uric acid stones
C Jack stones
D. Calcium stones
E. Cystine stones

A

E

89
Q

Prerenal ARF stems from impaired renal perfusion, which may
result from
I. reduced arterial blood volume
II. urinary losses from excessive diuresis.
III.decreased cardiac output
IV.renal vascular obstruction.
V. Ureteral ahstruction, as from calculi, unc acid crystals
A. All of the above
B. All of the above except Ill
C. All of the above except IV
D. All of the above except V
E. I, Il only

A

D

90
Q

It is caused by excessive nitrogenous waste
retention, leads to nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
edema, confusion, fatigue, neuromuscular
irritability, and coma.
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Chvostek’s signs.
c. Trousseau’s sign
d. Uremia
e. Metabolic alkalosis

A

D

91
Q

In prerenal ARF, the urine
creatinine concentration increases
and urine sodium level decreases.
A.True
B.False

A

A

92
Q

Intrinsic ARF (intrarenal or parenchymal ARF) reflects structural kidney damage resulting from any of the following conditions.
I. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)Acute glomerulonephritis
II. Tubular obstruction.
III.Acute inflammation
IV. Renal vasculitis.
V. Urethral obstruction
A. All of the above
B. All of the above except V
C. All of the above except IV
D. All of the above except Ill
E. I, Il only

A

B

93
Q

In intrinsic ARF resulting from
AN, the urine creatinine concentration
decreases and the urine sodium level
increases.
A.True
B.False

A

A

94
Q

Because catabolism accompanies
renal failure, the patient should
receive a high-calorie, low-protein
diet.
A True
B.False

A

A

95
Q

Treatment of hyperkalemia
I. Dialysis
II. Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate
III. Sodium bicarbonate
IV. Regular insulin (10 units in 500 mL of 10% dextrose)
V. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS)
VI. Sevelamer (Renagel®)
A. All of the above
B. All of the above except VI
C. All of the above except V
D. All of the above except IV
E. I, IL, III, IV only

A

B

96
Q

Hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis
may be necessary in ARF patients who
develop anuria, acute fluid overload,
severe hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis,
or a BUN level above 100 mg/dL.
A.True
B.False

A

A

97
Q

Aminoglycoside antibiotics
may potentiate nephrotoxicity
when administered with any loop
diuretic.
A.True
B.False

A

False-ototoxicity

98
Q

Treatment of hyperphosphatemia
I. IV calcium
II. Oral calcium salts
III. Sevelamer (Renagel®).
IV. Dialysis
V. Aluminum hydroxide (AlternaGel®)
A.All of the above
B. All of the above except V
C.All of the above except V
D. All of the above except I
E. I, I, III, IV only

A

A

99
Q

Patients who are allergic to
sulfonamides may be hypersensitive
to bumetanide and furosemide.
A.True
B.False

A

A

100
Q

10 to 20 mg of torsemide is
equipotent to 40 mg of furosemide
À.True
B.False

A

A

101
Q

Torsemide offers better
bioavailability compared to other
loop diuretics; however, it is
considerably more expensive.
A.True
B.False

A

A

102
Q

Ethacrynic acid is less commonly
used to treat ARF because nephrotoxicity
(sometimes irreversible) is associated
with its use.
A True
B.False

A

B.False- ototoxicity

103
Q

Loop diuretics are avoided in renal
failure because they are ineffective when
creatinine clearance is less than 25 mL/
min, and they may worsen the patient’s
clinical status.
A.True
B.False

A

B.False-Thiazide

104
Q

Torsemide may be given to
patients unresponsive to or allergic
to furosemide.
A.True
B.False

A

A

105
Q

Treatment of hyponatremia includes
A.fuid restriction.
B.Sodium chloride 3% may be administered
by slow IV infusion
C.5% sodium chloride solution may be
administered by slow IV infusion.
D.All of the above
E.B & C only

A

D

106
Q

Hyponatremia means
A.a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L
B. a serum sodium level below 150 mEq/L
C. a serum sodium level below 170 mEq/L
D. a serum sodium level below 190 mEg/L

A

A

107
Q

Hypotonic sodium chloride must
be administered very slowly to avoid
circulatory overload, pulmonary
edema, or central pontine
demyelination.
A.True
B.False

A

B.False- Hypertonic

108
Q

Avoid administration of IV calcium in
patients taking digoxin as inotropic and
toxic effects are synergistic and
arrhythmias can occur,
A.True
B.False

A

A

109
Q

When used to reverse hypocalcemia,
calcium gluconate is administered
intravenously in a dosage of 1 to 2 g for a
period of 10 mins, followed by a slow
infusion (for 6 to 8 hrs) of an additional 1 g.
A.True
B.False

A

A

110
Q

Aluminum hydroxide (AlternaGel®) (an
aluminum-containing antacid) binds excess
phosphate in the intestine, thereby reducing
phosphate concentration.
A. True
B. False

A

A

111
Q

Three types of graft rejection in renal transplant:
I. Hyperacute (immediate) rejection
II. Slow rejection
III. Acute rejection
IV. Postoperative rejection
V Chronic rejection
A. All of the above except IMI, IV
B.I, I, IlI only
C.I, III, V only
DII. IV, V only

A

C

112
Q

Advantages of peritoneal dialysis include
I.a lack of serious complications
II. retention of normal fluid and electrolyte balance
IlI.simplicity. IV.reduced cost
V. patient independence
VI. reduced need for heparin administration.
A.All of the above
B.I, I, IlI only
C.I, III, V only
D.I, IV, V only
E. IL, III, V, VI only

A

A

113
Q

Hemodialysis is the preferred
dialysis method for patients with
bleeding disorders and
cardiovascular disease.
A.True
B.False

A

B

114
Q

Stage V is kidney failure or a GFR of
A.< 15 mL/min/1.73 m2
B.15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m2
C.30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m2
D.60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m2

A

A

115
Q

Complications of peritoneal dialysis include
I. hyperglycemia. Il.constipation
III. inflammation or infection at the catheter site.
IV. high risk of peritonitis.
V. Electrolyte imbalance
A.All of the above
B.All of the above except I
C.All of the above except V
DI, I, IV, V only

A

C

116
Q

Diuretics are widely used to delay
progression of CKD because they help
preserve renal function and typically
cause fewer adverse effects than other
antihypertensive agents.
A.True
B.False

A

B

117
Q

This is the most commonly used thiazide
diuretic in CKD.
A.Furosemide
B.Hydrochlorothiazide
C.Ethacrynic acid
D.Metolazone
E Torsemide

A

D

118
Q

This is the active form of vitamin D
and is the preferred vitamin D
supplement because of its greater efficacy
and relatively short duration of action.
A.vitamin D1
B.vitamin D2-ergocalciferol
C.vitamin D3 -cholecalciferol
D.vitamin D4
E.vitamin DS

A

C

119
Q

Vitamin D administration may be
dangerous in patients with renal failure
and must be used with extreme caution.
A.True
B.False

A

A

120
Q

Epoetin alfa works best in patients
with a hematocrit below 35%.
A.True
B .False

A

B. 30%

121
Q

Oral supplementation is preferred to
intravenous iron products due to low
oral bioavailability and GI intolerance.
A.True
B False

A

B interchange

122
Q

The technique in peritoneal dialysis
involves shunting of the patient’s blood
through a dialysis membrane- containing
unit for diffusion, osmosis, and
ultrafiltration. The blood is then returned
to the patient’s circulation.
A.True
B.False

A

B. Hemodialysis

123
Q

Epoetin alfa (Procrit®, Epogen®)
advantage is a prolonged plasma half-life,
thus allowing it to be administered once
weekly or biweekly.
A.True
B.False

A

B.False-Darbepoetin (Aranesp®)

124
Q

Dihydropyridine calcium-channel
blockers have similar effects and may be
used instead of ACE inhibitors.
A.True
B.False

A

A

Clinical pharmacy (1 decks)

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