Quizzes Chapters 1-9 Flashcards

1
Q

The regular spacing of planets in our Solar System requires a planet be present between Mars and Jupiter. Why isn’t one there?

A

The gravitational pull of Jupiter prevented one from forming.

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2
Q

What is the Geocentric Universe Concept?

A

That everything orbits the Earth

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3
Q

Nebular Theory explains why:

A

All planets orbit the Sun in the same direction and in the same direction the Sun spins

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4
Q

In the expanding Universe, why do nebulae form?

A

Gravitational attraction of particles

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4
Q

When does a protostar become a star?

A

When nuclear fusion reactions begin

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5
Q

When does a Supernova occur?

A

When pressures are so great, electron and protons combine to form neutrons

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT necessarily true of a planet?

A

It has one or more moons.

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7
Q

Differentiation of the core from the mantle early in the Earth’s history was possible because the planet was __________ at the time.

A

very hot

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8
Q

During ancient times, Eratosthenes measured the difference in angles of the Sun’s rays in two different locations in Egypt at the same time to calculate the __________.

A

circumference of the Earth

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9
Q

Our Solar System belongs to a galaxy known as __________.

A

the Milky Way

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about moons is correct?

A

All moons orbit a planet.

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11
Q

By far the most common elements in the Universe and in our Solar System are __________.

A

hydrogen and helium

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12
Q

The Big Bang theory states that __________.

A

all matter in the Universe was once confined to a single point

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13
Q

Which of the following bodies is the smallest?

A

planetesimal

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14
Q

Which planet in our Solar System has the highest mass?

A

Jupiter

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15
Q

The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by:

A

Convection currents in the outer liquid core

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16
Q

Silicate minerals are dominated by two elements. What are they?

A

Silicon and Oxygen

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17
Q

Which rock type dominates the Earth’s mantle?

A

Peridotite

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18
Q

The part of the atmosphere responsible for our weather is the

A

Troposphere

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19
Q

The boundary between the crust and mantle is called the

A

Mohorovicic discontinuity

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20
Q

Earth’s atmosphere is dominated by

A

Nitrogen

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21
Q

The most abundant element in the Earth is

A

Iron

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22
Q

The region of space shown below as a gray oval that represents the outer reach of solar winds is termed the __________.

A

Heliosphere

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23
Q

From left to right, correctly label each section of this slice of the Earth. Note that 1 starts at the surface of the Earth and 6 ends at the center of the Earth.

A

crust, upper mantle, transition zone, lower mantle, liquid outer core, solid inner core

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24
Q

The density of rocks is generally related to composition; rocks with higher silica content tend to be less dense. Which of the following places rock compositions in order of increasing density?

A

felsic, intermediate, mafic, ultramafic

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25
Q

Which of the following lists compositions in increasing order of silica content?

A

ultramafic, mafic, intermediate, felsic

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26
Q

As compared to the asthenosphere, the lithosphere is __________.

A

cooler and less able to flow

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27
Q

If one were to ride a hot-air balloon into the atmosphere, one would experience the concentration of gases __________.

A

decreasing

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28
Q

Is it less strenuous to go for a jog in San Diego (at sea level) than in Denver (at an altitude of 1 mile)? Note: Please base your answer on elevation alone; assume all other factors are equal.

A

True

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29
Q

The atmosphere is divided into several distinct layers. In order from the ground up, they are __________.

A

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere

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30
Q

What is polar wandering?

A

The apparent movement of the poles of the Earth over geological time

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31
Q

What does paleomagnetism record?

A

Normal and reversed magnetic fields,

Relative position of the rock to the poles at time of formation,

Magnetic inclination,

and the rate of seafloor spreading

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32
Q

Magnetic reversals are recorded in ocean crust as

A

Positive and negative magnetic anomalies

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33
Q

What distinguishes fracture zones from transform faults along a mid-ocean ridge?

A

Fracture zones do not exhibit differential movement, transform faults do

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34
Q

Which of these is NOT the result of plate tectonics?

A

convection in the outer core

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35
Q

If a geologist discovered coal deposits in a modern-day cold, snowy location, he or she could conclude that

A

the area was once covered with swamps and/or jungles

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36
Q

If you were using both a compass and a map marked with latitude and longitude to navigate, you might note the angle difference between your compass and what is marked on the map, called

A

magnetic declination

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37
Q

What does an ordinary compass indicate?

A

magnetic north

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38
Q

The oldest basalts on the ocean floor are about ________ years old.

A

200 million

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39
Q

Spreading rates along mid-ocean ridges have ________.

A

changed through time, and today vary between 1 and 10 cm/yr

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40
Q

Wegener’s proposal that the continents had once fit together as a single supercontinent was rejected by geologists at the time because __________.

A

Wegener could not provide a driving force strong enough

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41
Q

Evidence that glaciers once covered an area might include __________.

A

till and striations

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42
Q

All deep-sea trenches border __________.

A

volcanic arcs

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43
Q

Which of the following best describes the global distribution of earthquakes?

A

They occur in distinct zones.

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44
Q

The broad, flat regions that occupy most of the ocean floor are called __________.

A

abyssal plains

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45
Q

Identify the FALSE statement. A subducting plate:

A

Can be either continental or oceanic lithosphere

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about Earth’s tectonic plates?

A

Some tectonic plates contain only continental lithosphere.

47
Q

Earth’s lithosphere will not flow because it ________.

A

is too cool

48
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning rock produced at mid-ocean ridges?

A

Basalt is produced at shallow depths and gabbro at deeper depths.

49
Q

The oceanic lithosphere is typically coated in a layer of sediment. Which of the following is NOT true about this sediment?

A

All of the sediment is eventually subducted along with the lithosphere into the mantle.

50
Q

The global occurrence of earthquakes reveals that:

A

they usually occur on the boundaries of plates or at hot spots

51
Q

Sediments associated with subducting plates give rise to:

A

the accretionary prism

52
Q

Continental lithosphere ________.

A

is thicker than oceanic lithosphere

53
Q

In a hot-spot volcanic island chain, such as the Hawaiian Islands, which of the following is true?

A

The ages of and distance between volcanoes can be used to calculate plate velocities.

54
Q

On either side of a mid-ocean ridge, the lithosphere begins to __________, because __________.

A

sink; it cools and contracts

55
Q

Broad, sediment-covered continental shelves are found along __________.

A

passive margins

56
Q

At transform plate boundaries, __________.

A

earthquakes are common but volcanoes are absent

57
Q

Major fisheries of the world are concentrated along __________.

A

continental shelves

58
Q

Large, thick-crusted, nonvolcanic mountain belts like the Himalayas are associated with __________.

A

continent-continent collisions

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mineral?

A

quartz
diamond
petroleum
gold

60
Q

Minerals are all naturally occurring solid substances with a definable chemical composition. They must also possess ________.

A

a fixed crystalline structure (spatial arrangement of atoms and ions)

61
Q

When two different minerals have the same chemical formula but different crystal structures, they are said to be ________.

A

polymorphs

62
Q

Which of the following is a mineral?

A

tar

cubic zirconia, which is a synthetic diamond substitute

  • ice*
    obsidian, a type of volcanic glass
63
Q

The most recently formed portion of any crystal is always found ________.

A

on the outer edges

64
Q

A covalent bond is one where

A

Electrons are shared

65
Q

On Moh’s Hardness scale, which mineral has a hardness of 3?

A

Calcite

66
Q

On Moh’s Hardness scale, which mineral has a hardness of 7?

A

Quartz

67
Q

Which of the following choices lists atoms and atomic components in order from smallest to largest?

A

electron, proton, nucleus, atom

68
Q

Which of the following is true about minerals?

A

Almost all minerals are inorganic.

69
Q

SiO44−, S2−, and CO32− are all examples of __________.

A

anionic groups

70
Q

Diamond and graphite are both polymorphs of __________.

A

carbon

71
Q

Minerals that do not possess cleavage are said to possess __________.

A

fracture

72
Q

The image below shows a mineral specimen of pyrite. What is the term for the thin parallel corrugations or stripes shown on its crystal faces?

A

striations

73
Q

Trace amounts of impurity can produce significant differences in __________ among individual crystals of a mineral species.

A

color

74
Q

Which of the following would be considered a rock?

A

a chunk of obsidian

75
Q

Imagine you are holding a rock composed of sand grains cemented together. What subclassification of sedimentary rock is this?

A

clastic

76
Q

What type of rock forms from the freezing (solidification) of a melt?

A

igneous

77
Q

Weathering results in _____________.

A

smaller, more-rounded pieces

78
Q

Hydration occurs when minerals _____________.

A

absorb water and expand

79
Q

Which soil horizon contains the most organic material?

A

O

80
Q

Why does physical weathering speed up the processes of chemical weathering?

A

Physical weathering produces fresh surfaces for chemical weathering to attack.

81
Q

Why is the rock cycle important?

A

because it explains how rocks are constantly changing from one type to another

82
Q

What is the progression of rock types if the steps of a process are as follows?

melting and crystallization → erosion, deposition, and lithification → burial in high temperature conditions

A

igneous → sedimentary → metamorphic

83
Q

If a rock is buried and subjected to high heat and pressure, then uplifted, exposed eroded away, and deposited, what rock types were involved in the sequence?

A

metamorphic and sedimentary

84
Q

What type of rock is formed after erosion, deposition, and lithification?

A

sedimentary

85
Q

The rock cycle is driven by __________.

A

the Earth’s internal and external sources of energy

86
Q

Extrusive igneous rocks that are glassy reflect

A

Rapid cooling rate

87
Q

Bowen’s Reaction Series:

A

Allows a geologist to predict what minerals will be found in a given igneous rock

88
Q

A fast-moving wet slurry consisting of a mixture of water and volcaniclastic debris is termed a

A

lahar

89
Q

Which of the following does NOT influence whether an eruption will produce “quiet” lava flows or “violent” pyroclastic debris?

A

depth and residence time of magma

90
Q

What mainly determines the viscosity of a magma?

A

Silica content and magma temperature

91
Q

What causes the mantle to melt?

A

Release of pressure ,
Increase of temperatures ,
Increased water pressure ,
A mixture of minerals

92
Q

The difference between magma and lava is __________.

A

magma is melt underground, whereas lava is melt that has emerged from the surface

93
Q

Volatiles refer to substances that __________.

A

evaporate easily and exist as gases

94
Q

Which type of magma has the greatest Silica (SiO2) content?

A

felsic

95
Q

Intrusive rocks that form deep within the Earth __________ than intrusive rocks that cool near the surface.

A

cool more slowly

96
Q

Because of its physical properties, magma tends to __________.

A

move upward, away from where it formed

97
Q

An igneous rock with a mixed texture consisting of coarse crystals (phenocrysts) surrounded by fine crystals (groundmass) is termed __________.

A

porphyritic

98
Q

Granite, an intrusive igneous rock, is most similar in mineral composition to which extrusive equivalent?

A

rhyolite

99
Q

In 79 c.e., the citizens of Pompeii and Herculaneum in the Roman Empire were buried by pyroclastic debris derived from an eruption of __________.

A

Mt. Vesuvius

100
Q

What was unusual about the 1986 volcano-related disaster near Lake Nyos in Cameroon?

A

Volcanically derived carbon dioxide gas bubbled from the lake and suffocated people and animals nearby.

101
Q

The pillow basalts in the photo below most likely formed __________.

A

underwater at a mid-ocean ridge

102
Q

The Columbia River Plateau is an example of a __________.

A

flood basalt

103
Q

The vertical features preserved in the basalt flow in the image below formed because the lava __________.

A

shrank as it cooled, forming tall polygonal-shaped fractures

104
Q

A fast-moving wet slurry consisting of a mixture of water and volcaniclastic debris is termed a __________.

A

lahar

105
Q

As compared to subaerial basaltic lavas, submarine basaltic lavas differ in that they __________.

A

form pillow-like mounds because they cannot flow as far from their source

106
Q

Which of the following is NOT true? Hot-spot volcanoes __________.

A

only produce mafic lava flows

107
Q

Of the three primary forms of subaerial volcanoes, __________ are large cone-shaped mountains that consist of alternating layers of tephra and solidified lava.

A

stratovolcanoes

108
Q

If you were camping in the area of Mt. Rainier volcano in Washington, which geologist’s tool would be most useful in choosing the safest location to pitch a tent?

A

volcanic hazard map

109
Q

The characteristic “rotten egg” smell of many active volcanoes is derived from __________.

A

hydrogen sulfide gas

110
Q

A large, violent, explosive eruption is termed a __________ eruption.

A

Plinean

111
Q

Olympus Mons, the largest known volcano in our Solar System, is found on __________.

A

Mars

112
Q

If a volcano lies along a convergent boundary but has not erupted in over 1,000 years, the volcano is considered __________.

A

dormant

113
Q

Basaltic lavas __________.

A

have low viscosity and low silica content