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Neuromuscular > Quizzes > Flashcards

Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

A score of 10 on the GCS is indicative of:

A

moderate brain injury

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2
Q

Which potential spinal cord injury complication could be addressed by including tilt table activities?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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3
Q

Which type of CVA is characterized by symptoms that do not fully present until 1-2 days after onset?

A

Stroke in evolution

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4
Q

At what age would a typical infant be expected to crawl forward and begin to walk along furniture?

A

8-9 months

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5
Q

Damage to which structure will result in ipsilateral impairment?

A

Cerebellum

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6
Q

Which sense is assessed by asking a patient to close their eyes and identify the direction in which a joint is moving?

A

Kinesthesia

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7
Q

A PF and inversion response of the foot is produced with which deep tendon reflex associated with the L4-5 spinal level?

A

Tibialis posterior tendon

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8
Q

A therapist performs sharp and dull sensory testing to asses the:

A

trigeminal nerve

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9
Q

Which cranial nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers?

A

Facial

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10
Q

Which muscle is not innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?

A

Anconeus

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11
Q

Which form of aphasia is characterize by severe expressive and receptive impairments?

A

Global aphasia

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12
Q

A tuning fork may be used to assess which cranial nerve?

A

Vestibulocochlear

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13
Q

The adductor muscle group derives its primary innervation from the:

A

obturator nerve

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14
Q

A therapist evaluates a 47-yo male patient with symptoms including distal extremity weakness that has been progressing proximally. This is most indicative of:

A

ALS

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15
Q

Which of the following best describes a cauda equina injury?

A

considered a peripheral nerve injury

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16
Q

Receptive aphasia is also referred to as:

A

Wernicke’s

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17
Q

A 3-month-old infant would be expected to exhibit which of the following reflexes?

A

positive support reflex

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18
Q

A patient’s ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis is best described as:

A

mobility

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19
Q

Which Rancho level of cognitive functioning presents with heightened activity levels, confabulation, inability to follow directions, and non-purposeful behaviors?

A

Confused-Agitated

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20
Q

Which brain structure controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?

A

hypothalamus

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21
Q

Which lobe of the brain receives auditory, motor, sensory, memory, and visual info which is processed to provide meaning to objects?

A

Parietal

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22
Q

Which of the following is an example of a lower motor neuron disease?

A

Muscular dystrophy

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23
Q

Which structure is found within the cerebrum?

A

lateral ventricles

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24
Q

What structure in the diencephalon is responsible for receiving information from the autonomic nervous system and assisting in hormone regulation?

A

hypothalamus

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25
Q

Which of the following structures is not a part of the vestibular system?

A

Cochlea

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26
Q

A patient demonstrates goal directed behaviors with cues from the therapist, but gives incorrect verbal responses in conversation. This is what Ranch level?

A

Confused appropriate

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27
Q

Weakness in serratus anterior is most likely associated with damage to the

A

long thoracic nerve

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28
Q

A lesion at which nerve root level would be associated with weakness of the extensor hallucis?

A

L5

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29
Q

Positional changes detected by the inner ear stimulate which primitive reflex?

A

tonic labyrinthine reflex

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30
Q

Balance and posture are primarily controlled by which brain structure?

A

Cerebellum

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31
Q

Weakness of the SCM would be associated with which myotome?

A

C2

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32
Q

A patient who has had a left hemisphere CVA is most likely to show deficits relating to

A

mathematical calculations

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33
Q

The medial leg and great toe are associated with which dermatome?

A

L4

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34
Q

Which of the following is not innervated by the sacral plexus?

A

Biceps femoris

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35
Q

The buttock, posterior thigh, and posterior lower extremity are associated with which dermatome?

A

S1

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36
Q

Which of the following is a sensory tract responsible for lower extremity proprioception?

A

fasciculus gracilis

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37
Q

Which type of pharm agent may be prescribed during treatment following a spinal cord injury, CV accident, or MS?

A

antispasticity agents

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38
Q

Touch and pain sensations on the skin of the face are associated with which cranial nerve?

A

Trigeminal

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39
Q

What cranial nerve is responsible for voluntary movement of the tongue?

A

hypoglossal

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40
Q

Which neurological rehab model utilizes concepts such as compensation, plasticity, and strategy?

A

Motor control: a Task Oriented Approach

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41
Q

Which of the following is a pyramidal motor tract responsible for contralateral voluntary movement?

A

corticospinal tract

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42
Q

Which of the following is most characteristic of an upper motor neuron disease?

A

hyperactive reflexes

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43
Q

The brachioradialis reflex is associated with which nerve root level?

A

C5

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44
Q

Which of the following is considered a left hemisphere characteristic?

A

production of written and spoken language

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45
Q

A complete spinal cord lesion at the T4 level would be documented as

A

paraplegia

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46
Q

During which developmental stage would a child be expected to demonstrate skipping and manipulation of small buttons?

A

5-8 years

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47
Q

A patient has difficulty performing rapid alternating pronation and supination of the forearms. This would be characterized as

A

dysdiadochokinesia

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48
Q

Which structure is located within the cerebrum?

A

basal ganglia

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49
Q

The supraspinatus muscle is innervated by the

A

suprascapular nerve

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50
Q

Which part o the brain contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus?

A

diencephalon

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51
Q

Sho flexion, adduction, and lateral rotation are components of which UE proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern?

A

D1 flexion

52
Q

The efferent fibers of which cranial nerve can be assessed by stimulating the gag reflex?

A

glossopharyngeal

53
Q

Based on the Motor Control: A Task Oriented Approach for neuromuscular rehab, the ability to utilize previous strategies to return to the same level of functioning is best termed

A

recovery

54
Q

Which muscle is innervated by nerves arising from both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus?

A

pec major

55
Q

Which neuro rehab model defines stages of recovery used to evaluate and document a patient’s progress?

A

Brunnstrom

56
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the production of CSF?

A

choroid plexus

57
Q

A pt who has had a CVA exhibits a UE extensor synergy. Which of the following would not be a component of this pattern?

A

forearm supination

58
Q

Slurred speech due to a motor deficit of the tongue or essential speech muscles is best termed

A

dysarthria

59
Q

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for primitive survival functions?

A

brainstem

60
Q

An example of an upper motor neuron disease is

A

cerebral palsy

61
Q

An infant that exhibits the symmetrical tonic neck reflect would assume which body position with neck flexion?

A

UE flexion and LE extension

62
Q

Which CN’s efferent fibers influence an individual’s ability to swallow and say ah?

A

vagus

63
Q

Which LE proprioceptive NM facilitation pattern is characterized by ankle PF and inversion?

A

D2 extension

64
Q

Which nerve root level would correspond to a muscle-related bladder dysfunction?

A

S4

65
Q

What reflex is elicited through light touch on the cheek and causes an infant’s mouth to open and the head to turn towards the side of the stimulus?

A

rooting reflex

66
Q

What age group is highest risk for acquiring a TBI?

A

15-24 yo males

67
Q

The use of overflow from motor output of unaffected areas to produce active movement of affected areas is encouraged in which neuro rehab model?

A

Brunnstrom

68
Q

A therapist observes a pt ambulating with a Trendelenburg gait due to a neuro deficit. Which nerve is most likely involved?

A

superior gluteal nerve

69
Q

Sx of festinating gait, bradykinesia, and difficulty initiating movement are symptoms commonly associated with

A

Parkinson’s

70
Q

Asking a pt to identify an object placed in their hand without looking at it is used to assess

A

stereognosis

71
Q

A pt performs a combo of bilateral UE movements with hands clasped to facilitate trunk stability. This PNF pattern is termed

A

chopping

72
Q

Damage to which nerve would most likely result in foot drop during gait?

A

deep peroneal

73
Q

The superior oblique muscle of the eyeball is innervated by which cranial nerve?

A

trochlear

74
Q

Depakote, Dilantin, and Klonopin are bran name examples of what type of pharm agent?

A

anti epileptic agents

75
Q

A sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, and high BP are indicative of what type of stroke?

A

hemorrhagic stroke

76
Q

Which nerve root innervates both the poses and the hip adductors?

A

L2

77
Q

A lesion of C8 root would most likely be associated with weakness in

A

thumb extension

78
Q

A pt sustains a corticospinal tract lesion at the level of the brainstem that produces extension of the trunk and extremities. This would be termed

A

decerebrate rigidity

79
Q

Which structure is an extrapyramidal tract responsible for ipsilateral postural adjustments?

A

vestibulospinal tract

80
Q

Broca’s aphasia AKA

A

expressive aphasia

81
Q

Lesion of C4 root would most likely be associated with weakness of

A

levator scapulae

82
Q

Primary risk factor for CVA is

A

heart disease

83
Q

Deltoid weakness would be associated with an injury to which nerve?

A

axillary

84
Q

The majority of CN originate from which structure in the brain?

A

brainstem

85
Q

Which of the following is responsible for providing proprioceptive information to the CNS regarding balance?

A

somatosensory receptors

86
Q

Which balance strategy is most commonly utilized for high level tasks, such as surfing, that require both stability and mobility?

A

suspensory

87
Q

Frontal lobe of the brain is responsible for

A

expression of speech

88
Q

Which of the following is a passive PNF technique used to decrease hypertonia?

A

rhythmical rotation

89
Q

The dermatome that begins in the deltoid area and extends anteriorly to the base of the thumb is

A

C5

90
Q

The use of reflex inhibiting postures to influence abnormal tone and reflexes are components of which model?

A

Neuromuscular Developmental Treatment

91
Q

A pt exhibits a flexor synergy of the LE during an assisted transfer to chair. Which positioning is most likely to be seen?

A

great toe extension

92
Q

Anticipated normal response to brachioradialis reflex testing is

A

elbow flexion and forearm supination

93
Q

Which dermatome level would be assessed by lightly touching the occiput?

A

C2

94
Q

Which of the following terms is not commonly associated with the Brunnstrom approach to neuro rehab?

A

mass movement patterns

95
Q

Which of the following is not considered an inhibitory sensory stimulation technique in the Rood model of neuro rehab?

A

resistance

96
Q

The inability to control the range of a movement and the force of muscular activity is best termed

A

dysmetria

97
Q

The hemispheres of the cerebrum are joined by the

A

corpus callosum

98
Q

A pt who has undergone a radical neck dissection is unable to initiate a shoulder shrug. Which nerve was most likely damaged during surgery?

A

accessory

99
Q

Which of the following is an extrapyramidal motor tract?

A

rubrospinal

100
Q

Which of the following is not innervated by the femoral nerve?

A

quadratus femoris

101
Q

Which of the following is a sensory tract responsible for ipsilateral subconscious proprioception?

A

spinocerebellar

102
Q

Which region of the brain is responsible for an individual’s ability to recognize another person’s face and interpret their emotions?

A

temporal lobe

103
Q

Which form of incomplete spinal injury results from damage to the dorsal columns, spinothalamic, and corticospinal tracts?

A

central cord syndrome

104
Q

An active normal response to DTR testing would be documented as

A

2+

105
Q

Which model of neuro rehab emphasizes sensory stimulation techniques as a key component of treatment interventions?

A

Rood

106
Q

The use of specific handling techniques to facilitate posture, alignment, and motor control is a component of which neuro rehab approach?

A

Neuromuscular Developmental Treatment

107
Q

Which incomplete spinal cord injury presents with motor function that is typically preserved and sensory impairments that include two-point discrimination and stereognosis?

A

posterior cord syndrome

108
Q

Which disease presents with demyelination of myelin sheaths, resulting in brain and spinal cord plaques?

A

multiple sclerosis

109
Q

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that is typically fatal within 15-20 years after the manifestation of clinical symptoms?

A

Huntington’s

110
Q

A pt is asked to distinguish between sweet and salty substances placed on the anterior aspect of the tongue. This assesses the sensory aspect of which CN?

A

facial

111
Q

The medical record indicates that a patient was classified as having a mild brain injury based on the results obtained from the GCS. The pt’s most likely score was

A

14

112
Q

Which of the following structures is not a part of the brainstem?

A

infundibulum

113
Q

Muscle wasting of peroneals and PFors is a characteristic finding of a root lesion at

A

S1

114
Q

Impaired coughing, difficulty clearing secretions, altered breathing pattern, and poor endurance are characteristics of

A

complete C7 tetraplegia

115
Q

A therapist is working on supine activities with a pt who has a complete C6 injury. The pt suddenly complains of a severe headache and heavy sweating. The most appropriate therapist response is to

A

assist the patient into a sitting position

116
Q

A weak or diminished Achilles tendon reflex would be associated with damage to which nerve root level?

A

S2

117
Q

Which dermatome level is typically associated with the abdomen?

A

T8-T12

118
Q

A surgical intervention in which specific spinal cord tracts are severed with the goal of decreasing spasticity and increasing function is best termed

A

myelotomy

119
Q

The normal balance strategy used to compensate for postural sway is

A

ankle

120
Q

Efferent and afferent components are found in which cranial nerve?

A

glossopharyngeal

121
Q

Ataxia is best described as

A

the inability to perform coordinated movements

122
Q

Which finding is typically associated with the presence of a lower motor neuron disorder but not an upper motor neuron disorder?

A

fasciculations

123
Q

A full functional recovery is expected in the majority fo patients diagnosed with

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

124
Q

A pt is asked to close their eyes and identify a letter drawn on their skin by the therapist. This technique is used to assess

A

graphesthesia

125
Q

Which nerve root is associated with triceps DTR?

A

C7

Neuromuscular (4 decks)

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