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Sectional Anatomy > Quizzes > Flashcards

Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

The alphanumeric keyboard
is used to
a) house the sonologist workstation.
b) indicate which patient will be examined next.
c) enter new patient information.
d) perform the initial configuration at installation of the ultrasound unit.

A

C) Enter new patient information

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2
Q

Annotation On/Off

a) allows comments to be entered on the screen.
b) erases all user-entered annotations, starting at the cursor’s location.
c) clears the patient’s ID number and stored images.
d) erases the last character to the left of the cursor.

A

A) Allows comments to be entered on the screen

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3
Q 
The HELP menu provides
quick access to the
a) on/off switch. 
b) primary imaging controls. 
c) reference manual. 
d) clinical application specialist.
A

C) References manual

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4
Q 
The frequency control
ensures that
a) the image freezes. 
b) imaging depth is appropriate. 
c) the right focal zone is used. 
d) tissue resolution is adequate.
A

D) tissue resolution is adequate

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5
Q

The TGC
control can strengthen echoes that are
a) emitted from the transducer to deep tissues.
b) emitted from the transducer to superficial tissues.
c) returning from superficial tissues.
d) returning from deep tissues.

A

D) returning from deep tissues

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6
Q

When the focal zone indicator is set too deep for the organ being examined

a) the light output is inadequate.
b) the echogenicity is too bright.
c) the resolution is suboptimal.
d) the organ needs to be repositioned.

A

C) The resolution is suboptimal

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7
Q

What action conveys a sense of genuine interest in the patient?

a) Adjusting the tone and expression of your voice
b) Making small talk
c) Discussing your opinion of the ultrasound findings
d) Obtaining a medical history

A

A) adjusting the tone and expression of your voice

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8
Q

During an ultrasound
examination, it is acceptable for a sonographer to
a) discuss his or her opinion of the ultrasound findings.
b) show the patient any abnormal findings.
c) provide a diagnosis.
d) briefly point out one or more structures.

A

D) briefly point out one or more structures

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9
Q

The posterior border of the gallbladder cannot be seen on sagittal view; it appears to be cut off. Which control is most likely to correct this?

a) Cine loop
b) Frequency
c) TGC
d) Depth

A

D) depth

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10
Q

PACS is a computer technology
system that
a) automatically selects the correct frequency, depth, and focal zone controls
b) captures the patient’s demographics and other information from the person’s medical record.
c) unites the Hospital Information System and the Radiology Information System
d) allows for storage of digital images.

A

D) allows for storage of digital images

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11
Q

The hepatic section of the IVC is derived from the

a) subcardinal vein.
b) subcardinal/supracardinal vein.
c) proximal vitelline vein.
d) supracardinal veins.

A

c) proximal vitelline vein

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12
Q

The telencephalon gives rise to the

a) cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles
b) thalamus and hypothalamus.
c) pineal gland, pituitary gland, olfactory bulbs, and optic tracts.

A

A) cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles

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13
Q

Normal formation of the GI tract is complete at

a) 7 weeks.
b) 20 weeks.
c) 12 weeks.
d) 11 weeks.

A

B) 20 weeks

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14
Q

Myelination of the central nervous system begins in the second trimester of pregnancy and continues

a) until the age of 12.
b) into adult life.
c) until the fetus is a neonate.
d) until the age of 2.

A

B) into adult life

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15
Q

Postnatally, the umbilical vein becomes the

a) ligamentum arteriosa
b) ligamentum gastroliena
c) ligamentum venosum.
d) ligamentum teres.

A

D) ligamentum teres

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16
Q

The liver grows rapidly and bulges into the midportion of the abdominal cavity. Hemopoiesis - the formation and development of blood cells - begins during the ____________ of embryonic life and is primarily responsible for the liver’s large size.

a) 3rd week
b) 7th week
c) 4th week
d) 6th week

A

D) 6th

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17
Q 
Swallowing begins at
  20 weeks. 
  16 weeks. 
  12 weeks. 
  7 weeks.
A

12 weeks

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18
Q

The hindgut forms
the distal part of the colon.
part of the mouth, as well as the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and proximal part of the duodenum.
the distal duodenum, small bowel, and proximal part of the colon.

A

the distal part of the colon

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19
Q

The vascular portion of the cardiovascular system develops from the
ectoderm.
endoderm.
mesoderm.

A

mesoderm

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20
Q 
The embryonic heart begins beating at approximately
  8 weeks. 
  6 weeks. 
  22 days of actual embryonic age. 
  7 weeks.
A

22 days of actual embryonic age

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21
Q 
The acoustic window that is the most uncomfortable for patients and typically imaged last during a pediatric echocardiography examination is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ window.
  subcostal 
  apical 
  suprasternal 
  parasternal
A

suprasternal

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22
Q 
The acoustic window that is best for determining cardiac position and situs is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ window.
  apical 
  subcostal 
  suprasternal 
  parasternal
A

subcostal

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23
Q

The size of a ventricular septal defect is measured relative to the size of the:

aortic root
mitral valve annulus
pulmonary artery
ductus arteriosus

A

aortic root

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24
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ atrial septal defects may be closed with transcatheter (nonsurgical) methods.
  Sinus venosus 
  Secondum 
  Stenotic 
  Primum
A

secondum

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25
Q 
A pathology that does not require a patent ductus arteriosus (or left-to-right shunt) for systemic or pulmonary circulation is:
  Tricuspid atresia 
  Pulmonary stenosis 
  Truncus arteriosus 
  Coarctation of the aorta
A

truncus arteriosus

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26
Q 
Ebstein anomaly is characterized by:
  Tricuspid tethering to the left ventricular wall 
  Atrialization of the right ventricle 
  atrial left-to-right shunting 
  pulmonary insufficiency
A

Atrialization of the right ventricle

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27
Q 
Which of the following pathologies is not associated with right-sided heart enlargement?
  Ventricular septal defect 
  Pulmonary stenosis 
  Coarctation of the aorta 
  total anomalus pulmonary venous return
A

coarctation of the aorta

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28
Q 
One of the most common cyanotic lesions in the newborn is:
  hypoplastic left heart 
  tricuspid atresia 
  ventricular septal defect 
  Transposition of the great vessels
A

Transposition of the great vessels

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29
Q 
On the electrocardiogram, what wave signals the onset of ventricular contraction?
  T wave 
  QRS wave 
  E wave 
  P wave
A

QRS wave

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30
Q

The Cardiologist specializes in the diagnosis and treatment while the Thoracic Surgeon specializes in structural modification of the heart.
False
True

A

true

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31
Q

A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is the test of choice for a
45 y/o patient with a unexplained TIA.
65 y/o patient with mitral valve prolapse and regurgitation seen on TTE.
80 y/o with a episode of CHF.
35 y/o patient with an ASD seen on TTE.

A

45 y/o patient with a unexplained TIA

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32
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the evaluation of prosthetic valves?
TTE is better suited to evaluate prosthetic mitral valve dysfunction than TEE.
TEE is more sensitive than TTE for detecting paravalvular leaks.
TTE may be better suited to evaluate Doppler information than TEE.
TEE is more sensitive than TTE in detecting prosthetic valve endocarditis.

A

TTE is better suited to evaluate prosthetic mitral valve dysfunction than TEE.

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33
Q

Three-dimensional echocardiography would be indicated in which patient?
A patient with a normal heart size and function on 2D examination
A patient with mild mitral valve regurgitation on Doppler
A patient with a small to moderate VSD on 2D examination
A patient with a reduced ejection fraction on 2D examination

A

A patient with a small to moderate VSD on 2D examination

34
Q

M-mode echocardiography
provides measurements of cardiac structures for quantitative assessment.
performs the same function as Doppler assessment.
is no longer needed, having been replaced by TEE, TTE, and 3D echocardiography.

A

provides measurements of cardiac structures for quantitative assessment.

35
Q

Blood with a low oxygen content entering the heart comes from the inferior and superior vena cava
False
True

A

true

36
Q

The bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers cannot function as pacemakers.
True
False

A

false

37
Q

The parasternal long axis view shows the right ventricle anteriorly.
False
True

A

true

38
Q

The AV node can provide pacing for the heart in the event of SA node failure.
True
False

A

true

39
Q

The apical four-chamber view displays the ventricles at the top of the screen and the atria at the bottom of the 2D sector image.
False
True

A

true

40
Q

Blood with a low oxygen content entering the heart comes from the coronary arteries.
True
False

A

False

41
Q 
Ovulation is the
  mature ova. 
  No answer text provided. 
  discharge of a mature ovum from its follicle. 
  encasement of immature ova. 
  immature ova.
A

discharge of a mature ovum from its follicle.

42
Q 
Which organ has two sets of capillary beds?
  Spleen 
  Pancreas 
  Liver 
  Kidney
A

Kidney

43
Q 
Which organ allows free mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood within the sinusoids?
  Liver 
  Spleen 
  Kidneys 
  Pancreas
A

Liver

44
Q 
Venous flow in the lower extremities is accomplished primarily by means of
  No answer text provided. 
  skeletal muscle contractions. 
  cardiac diastolic contractions. 
  subatmospheric pressure. 
  cardiac systolic contractions.
A

skeletal muscle contractions.

45
Q 
The pleural sac is associated with the
  lungs. 
  kidneys. 
  spleen. 
  heart.
A

lung

46
Q 
Fertilization typically occurs in the
  fallopian tube. 
  ovary. 
  uterus. 
  cervix.
A

fallopian tube

47
Q 
Which of the following is an accessory organ to the digestive system?
  Kidneys 
  Liver 
  Spleen 
  Trachea
A

Liver

48
Q 
Which is the “master” endocrine gland?
  Pituitary gland 
  Pineal gland 
  Brain 
  Pancreas
A

Pituitary Gland

49
Q 
Which of the following directs and monitors endocrine functions?
  Hypothalamus 
  Parathyroid glands 
  Pancreas 
  Kidneys
A

Hypothalamus

50
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ delivers oxygen, nutrients, and white blood cells to body structures and removes toxins.
  reproductive system 
  cardiovascular system 
  respiratory system 
  urinary system
A

Cardiovascular system

51
Q 
Which structure is NOT intraperitoneal?
  Liver 
  Pancreas 
  Gallbladder 
  Spleen
A

Pancreas

52
Q 
Which structure is NOTretroperitoneal?
  Abdominal Aorta 
  Pancreas 
  Gallbladder 
  Urinary Bladder
A

Gallbladder

53
Q 
Which structure is NOToriented vertically in the body?
  Right Renal Artery 
  Abdominal Aorta 
  Superior mesenteric artery 
  Superior mesenteric vein
A

Right Renal Artery

54
Q 
Which anatomic area is NOT seen on a sagittal scanning plane image?
  Posterior 
  Inferior 
  Medial 
  Anterior
A

Medial

55
Q 
Which anatomic area is NOT seen on a coronal scanning plane image?
  Lateral 
  Medial 
  Superior 
  Anterior
A

Anterior

56
Q

The scanning planes used in sonography are the same as anatomic body planes, but their interpretations depend on the
shape of the transducer and how it is held.
size of the transducer.
location of the transducer and sound wave approach.
body habitus.

A

location of the transducer and sound wave approach.

57
Q 
The single difference between structures seen on an ultrasound image section and a cadaver section is
  sonographic appearance. 
  size. 
  shape. 
  adjacent relationships.
A

sonographic appearance.

58
Q 
In gross anatomy, the abdominal aorta is located \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the left kidney.
  medial 
  lateral 
  inferior 
  anterior
A

medial

59
Q

The crura of the diaphragm are
folds of peritoneum that insert into the diaphragm.
muscular bands that arise from the lumbar vertebrae and insert into the diaphragm.
muscular bands arising from the diaphragm that attach to the abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava.
visceral tissue layers that insert into the diaphragm.

A

muscular bands that arise from the lumbar vertebrae and insert into the diaphragm.

60
Q 
In gross anatomy, the splenic vein is oriented \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and courses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the body of the pancreas.
  vertically oblique, posterior 
  horizontal oblique, anterior 
  vertically, medial 
  horizontally, posterior
A

horizontally, posterior

61
Q

Which statement is NOT true about blood flow to the kidney?

Because of the high metabolic demands of the kidney, flow is forward during diastole.
The Doppler velocity signal from the interlobar arteries demonstrates significant forward diastolic flow.
The velocity spectral waveforms from the medulla and cortex of a kidney are normally pulsatile.
The spectral waveform from the arcuate vessels of the kidney of a patient in chronic renal failure show decreased diastolic flow.

A

The velocity spectral waveforms from the medulla and cortex of a kidney are normally pulsatile.

62
Q

The blood flow pattern in the normal renal artery can be characterized as:

high resistance with high diastolic flow.
low resistance with high diastolic flow.
low resistance with low diastolic flow.
high resistance with high diastolic flow.

A

low resistance with high diastolic flow.

63
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the celiac artery?

The celiac artery has three branches: the common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric arteries.
The celiac artery feeds organs that have low vascular resistance.
The superior mesenteric artery and the celiac artery may share a common trunk at their origin.
The celiac artery originates from the posterolateral wall of the abdominal aorta.

A

The celiac artery originates from the posterolateral wall of the abdominal aorta.

64
Q

Which is NOT a tributary of the inferior vena cava?

Right suprarenal vein
Portal vein
Renal vein
Hepatic vein

A

portal vein

65
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the portal vein?

It supplies approximately 70% of the oxygenated blood flow to the liver.
It is an intraabdominal vein.
It is formed by the confluence of the umbilical, splenic, and superior mesenteric veins
Blood flow in the portal vein normally is hepatopetal in direction.

A

It is formed by the confluence of the umbilical, splenic, and superior mesenteric veins

66
Q

The hepatic artery enters the porta hepatis along with the:

right hepatic vein and common bile duct.
left portal vein and right branch of the hepatic artery.
main portal vein and common bile duct.
right hepatic and splenic veins.

A

main portal vein and common bile duct.

67
Q

The left renal vein serves as a valuable landmark for locating the renal arteries. It courses:

anterior to the abdominal aorta and posterior to the superior mesenteric artery.
anterior to the inferior vena cava and anterior to the abdominal aorta.
posterior to the abdominal aorta and anterior to the left renal artery.
posterior to the inferior vena cava and anterior to the abdominal aorta.

A

anterior to the abdominal aorta and posterior to the superior mesenteric artery.

68
Q

Which statement is correct?

The kidneys and liver are high resistance end organs.
The suprarenal abdominal aortic Doppler velocity waveform is triphasic because of the high resistance vascular bed of the fasting superior mesenteric artery.
A Doppler spectral waveform from the postprandial superior mesenteric artery demonstrates low diastolic flow because of the change in the vascular resistance of the stomach and small intestine that occurs with digestion.
The inferior mesenteric artery lies anterolateral to the abdominal aorta and enters the pelvis as the superior hemorrhoidal artery.

A

The inferior mesenteric artery lies anterolateral to the abdominal aorta and enters the pelvis as the superior hemorrhoidal artery.

69
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the renal arteries?

The left renal artery lies superior to the left renal vein.
The right renal artery courses posterior to the inferior vena cava
The renal arteries originate from the lateral wall of the abdominal aorta.
The proximal renal arteries follow the crus of the diaphragm.

A

The left renal artery lies superior to the left renal vein.

70
Q

The Doppler spectral waveform form the normal renal artery demonstrates:

constant forward diastolic flow
intermittent forward diastolic flow
intermittent flow reversal during diastole
constant flow reversal during diastole

A

constant forward diastolic flow

71
Q

Indirect vascular laboratory evaluations are best defined as
duplex evaluations that examine the velocity spectral patterns distal to the location of the disease.
physiologic test procedures that demonstrate pressure and/or volume changes in vessels distal to the location of the disease.
tests that examine blood vessels at the site of the disease.
B-mode imaging combined with Doppler velocity spectral analysis.

A

physiologic test procedures that demonstrate pressure and/or volume changes in vessels distal to the location of the disease.

72
Q 
Which vessel is NOT part of the cerebrovascular system?
  Common carotid artery 
  Internal iliac artery 
  Vertebral artery 
  Internal carotid artery
A

Internal iliac artery

73
Q

Which is NOT a component of the Doppler equation?
Velocity of blood flow
Angle of the Doppler beam with respect to the path of blood flow
Doppler peak diastolic frequency
Speed of sound in soft tissue

A

Doppler peak diastolic frequency

74
Q 
The Doppler spectral waveform from the normal common carotid artery is characterized by all of the following except
  systolic window. 
  constant forward diastolic flow. 
  rapid systolic deceleration. 
  spectral broadening.
A

spectral broadening

75
Q

Which statement does NOT accurately define the left common iliac artery?
The vessel is the first segment of the peripheral arterial tree distal to the aorta.
The left common iliac vein is posterior to the artery.
The vessel lies posterior to the ureter and anterior to the peritoneum.
The psoas magnus muscle borders the artery laterally.

A

The vessel lies posterior to the ureter and anterior to the peritoneum.

76
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of a normal peripheral artery Doppler spectral waveform?
Systolic window
Narrow systolic Doppler spectral bandwidth
Reversed diastolic flow
Blunted systolic peak

A

blunted systolic peak

77
Q 
Which is NOT part of the deep venous system of the lower extremities?
  Anterior tibial vein 
  Femoral vein 
  Profunda femoris vein 
  Perforator vein
A

perforator vein

78
Q

Which statement best differentiates indirect noninvasive vascular test procedures from direct noninvasive vascular procedures?
Indirect test procedures use continuous wave Doppler as well as plethysmographic testing.
Indirect test procedures provide morphologic information that allows evaluation of the severity of a lesion.
Indirect test procedures detect lesions that are not yet hemodynamically significant, whereas direct test procedures give information only on disease that is flow reducing.
Indirect test procedures are physiologic and indicate the presence of significant occlusive disease by demonstrating pressure or limb volume changes downstream from the site of the lesion, whereas direct procedures evaluate the disease at the site where it is located

A

Indirect test procedures are physiologic and indicate the presence of significant occlusive disease by demonstrating pressure or limb volume changes downstream from the site of the lesion, whereas direct procedures evaluate the disease at the site where it is located

79
Q

The Doppler spectral waveform from the low-resistance internal carotid artery can be characterized by
cephalad flow throughout the cardiac cycle.
rapid systolic upstroke and rapid deceleration to low diastolic flow.
high peak systolic velocity and low diastolic flow.
slow systolic rise time, rapid deceleration, flow reversal in late systole, and low diastolic flow.

A

cephalad flow throughout the cardiac cycle.

80
Q

The goal of the vascular diagnostic laboratory is to answer the following questions using an array of indirect and direct noninvasive evaluations: Is vascular disease present? Where is it located? How severe is the disease process? What are the therapeutic options? Has revascularization been successful?
True
False

A

true

Sectional Anatomy (1 decks)

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