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Microbiology lab > Quizzes > Flashcards

Quizzes Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Quiz 1

If you were working with an organism that caused a disease, but treatment was readily available and effective for that disease, which biosafety level would you use when handling that organism?

a) BSL1
b) BSL2
c) BSL3
d) BSL4

A

b) BSL2

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2
Q

Quiz 1

When thinking about innate physiological traits, what one thing that you use as a microbiologist would provide you with information about these traits for your organism?

a) Medium recipe
b) Culturing conditions
c) Hard work
d) Medium recipe plus the culturing conditions

A

d) Medium recipe plus the culturing conditions

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3
Q

Quiz 1

Accurate determination of microbial growth rates is important for a number of things. List one.

A

In order to monitor the growth of bacterial infections

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4
Q

Quiz 1

Which of the following do you not have to do in BSL1 facility, but do have to do in a BSL4 facility?

a) Wear an isolation suit
b) Laboratory separated from the rest of the facility
c) Decontaminate
d) Use all appropriate care

A

a) Wear an isolation suit

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5
Q

Quiz 1

Which biosafety level requires the movement of material in and out of the facility via a two-sided autoclave?

a) BSL1
b) BSL2
c) BSL3
d) BSL4

A

d) BSL4

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6
Q

Quiz 1

List 3 innate traits that are important to know if you are culturing a microbe.

A 
pH
Salt tolerance
NaCl
Oxygen requirements 
Temperature
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7
Q

Quiz 1

In order to properly derive the generation time and growth rate, what type of graphing technique must you use?

A

Semi-log

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8
Q

Quiz 1

When analyzing growth data, you initially plot the data to find which portion of the curve?

A

Linear

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9
Q

Quiz 1

Once you have determined the generation time, how do you calculate the growth rate? Provide the equation.

A

u=0.693/g

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10
Q

Quiz 1

When using a reciprocal plot, how do you determine Ks and the maximum growth rate?

A

Ks and the max growth rate are determined by the Y and X intercepts of the graph, respectively

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11
Q

Quiz 2

You are seeking a set of mutants that are sensitive to low pH. How would you set this mutant screen up?

A

First, isolate a sample of the organism and let it replicate until you have a sufficient amount of cells.

Then, use the pick and patch method to grow cells at a high, neutral, and low pH.

The mutants will not grow in the plate with the low pH but will on the other two plates.

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12
Q

Quiz 2

List three things that you need to consider when designing or adapting a biochemical assay.

A
  • What conditions can be easily changed?
  • What characteristic(s) are you attempting to identify? (pH, temperature, NaCl tolerance, etc)
  • Does a similar assay already exist?
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13
Q

Quiz 2

Define turnover rate

A

The rate at which cells live and die

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14
Q

Quiz 2

Conditional lethal mutations are used to study which of the following genes/proteins?

a) DNA polymerase
b) Arginine biosynthesis
c) Motility
d) None of the above

A

a) DNA polymerase

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15
Q

Quiz 2

Which of the following screen types would be used to find mutations in flagellar biosynthesis?

a) Metabolic
b) Structural
c) Conditional
d) None of the above

A

b) Structural

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16
Q

Quiz 2

If you were studying a thermophile, which of the following parameters might you need to adjust first if you were modifying an assay?

a) pH
b) Temperature
c) Cofactor
d) Substrate concentration

A

b) Temperature

17
Q

Quiz 2

Which of the following mutagenesis techniques provides you with a genetic tag that will help you isolate the gene you’ve interrupted?

a) UV
b) Chemical
c) Deletion
d) Transposon insertion

A

d) Transposon insertion

18
Q

Quiz 2

Which of the following is the definition of Ks?

a) The substrate concentration that yields umax
b) The substrate concentration that yields 1/2 umax
c) The minimum substrate concentration required for growth
d) None of the above

A

b) The substrate concentration that yields 1/2 umax

19
Q

Quiz 3

A cloning site within a plasmid that has multiple cutting sites for restriction endonuclease is known as a ____?

a) lacZ
b) Promoter
c) Multi-cloning site
d) Sites such as this don’t exist

A

c) Multi-cloning site

20
Q

Quiz 3

Which of the following properties allows you to isolate plasmid DNA easily?

a) Negative charge
b) Supercoiling
c) Thermal melting point
d) Length

A

b) Supercoiling

21
Q

Quiz 3

Why would you treat a vector with alkaline phosphatase?

a) Prevent self ligation
b) To cut the vector
c) It inserts the DNA
d) Seal the nicks

A

a) Prevent self ligation

22
Q

Quiz 3

Which of the following statements define a transcriptional fusion?

a) A fusion using a fully functional reporter to determine promoter function
b) A fusion that follows protein synthesis
c) Neither description is valid

A

a) A fusion using a fully functional reporter to determine promoter function

23
Q

Quiz 3

Most but not all restriction endonuclease cut sites have a DNA sequence that is a ____?

a) Direct repeat
b) Palindrome
c) Random sequence
d) None of these

A

b) Palindrome

24
Q

Quiz 3

What is the recommended ration of insert to vector for optimal ligation efficiency?

a) 1:2
b) 1:1
c) 3:1
d) 1:3

A

c) 3:1

25
Q

Quiz 3

Electroporation uses an electrical field to form a ____ to allow the DNA into the cell.

A

pore

26
Q

Quiz 3

There are two enzymes commonly used to join two DNA molecules. What are they?

A

ligase

topoisomerase

27
Q

Quiz 3

List 2 DNA modification enzymes or types of DNA modification enzymes.

A

exonuclease III

restriction enzymes

28
Q

Quiz 3

Describe the process of sizing a DNA or protein molecule.

A

1) Use a restriction enzyme to cut the DNA
2) Use PCR to amplify sample
3) Run sample in an agarose gel using electrophoresis; the larger and heavier DNA molecules will run farther down the gel, and the smaller and lighter ones will be at the top
4) Create a standard curve

29
Q

Quiz 4

Immunoprecipitation experiments are used to test which of the following interactions?

a) DNA-DNA
b) DNA-RNA
c) protein-protein
d) lipid-DNA

A

c) protein-protein

30
Q

Quiz 4

Antibody based affinity purification protocols require you to have an ____ specific to your target molecule

A

antibody

31
Q

Quiz 4

Which of the following types of PCR would be used to insert an epitope into a protein that would allow you to purify it quickly via affinity maturation?

a) Site-directed mutagenesis
b) General PCR
c) Insertional site-directed mutagenesis
d) Quantitative PCR

A

c) Insertional site-directed mutagenesis

32
Q

Quiz 4

Which of the following is/are required for constructing a western blot?

a) Primary antibody
b) Secondary antibody to bind and decide the primary antibody
c) Method to detect binding of the secondary antibody
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

A

d) All of the above

33
Q

Quiz 4

Reverse transcriptase PCR is used to detect the presence of a/an ____.

A

RNA transcript

34
Q

Quiz 4

Multi-plex PCR allows you to ____ the presence of specific bacteria in environmental samples without culturing them.

A

detect

35
Q

Quiz 4

With regard to multi-plex PCR, you use ____ genes to show the presence of your target organism and its relatives

A

housekeeping

36
Q

Quiz 4

When targeting pathogens such as Vibrio species, which of the following types of genes are best to use and identify the presence of pathogenic organisms?

a) Essential genes
b) Toxin genes
c) Porins
d) Metabolic

A

b) Toxin genes

37
Q

Quiz 4

What is the difference between a hypothesis and objective?

A

A hypothesis is when you are trying to gather new data, and therefore new information. A hypothesis is typically used by a basic or theoretical scientist

An objective is when the goal is to obtain a specific product. Usually used by an applied scientist

38
Q

Quiz 4

You have recently cloned and sequenced a gene that you suspect responses to a specific environmental cue.

However, you do not have a mutant strain for this gene.

But you realize that you could use reverse transcriptase PCR to determine if it does respond to the cue.

What would you do to set this experiment up?

A

1) Reverse transcription
2) Primer preparation
3) Set up negative and positive control
4) Run reverse transcriptase PCR

Microbiology lab (2 decks)

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