Quizzes 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which contain polar bonds:
NH2, CH3, O=O, OH, COOH

A

NH2, OH, and COOH

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2
Q

True or false: within cells, sodium ions are usually surrounded by a shell of oriented water molecules

A

True

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3
Q

True or false: as individual monosaccharides join to form a polysaccharide, water is released as part of the chemical reaction

A

True

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4
Q

In this type of bond/interaction, the electrons are physically shared between the interacting atoms

A

Covalent bonds

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5
Q

If a particular carbon atom is present in a stable, geometrically planar structure, it must have at least one of these bonds

A

Double bonds

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6
Q

An acidic amino acid like aspartate interacts with a basic amino acid like lysine in this manner

A

Ionic bond

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7
Q

How do enzymes act

A

By decreasing the activation energy

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8
Q

Tyrosine

A

Can be phosphorylated

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9
Q

A low dissociation constant (Kd) suggests…

A

…a strong binding interaction

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10
Q

Which has the most energy: a H bond, an ionic bond, a carbon-carbon bond, or the bond between the 2nd and 3rd phosphates of ATP?

A

A carbon-carbon bond

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11
Q

Eukaryotic cells are typically __% water by weight

A

70%

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12
Q

True or false: when salt dissolves in water, it breaks down into individual ions, each of which is surrounded by a shell of water molecules

A

True

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13
Q

True or false: in an aqueous solution, the aggregation of smaller lipid droplets into a single large lipid droplet is energetically unfavorable

A

False. It is favorable

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14
Q

True or false: when you dissolve freeze-dried protein powder in water, the proteins break down into individual amino acids

A

False

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15
Q

True or false: Hsp60 chaperonins exist only in higher vertebrates

A

False

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16
Q

True or false: humans have ~100x more protein coding genes than nematode worms or fruit flies

A

False

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17
Q

Which of the following can be observed in a standard light microscope without super-resolution?

A virus, a bacterium, a red blood cell, ATP synthase, a single protein, a carbon atom

A

A bacterium and a red blood cell

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18
Q

In a pair of western blots from 2D gels, you find that “your favorite protein” resolves as a single “dot” in the sample of untreated cells but as a pair of side-by-side “dots” (along the X axis) in the sample of cells that were treated with drug X overnight. What is the MOST likely explanation for this result?

A

In the untreated sample, your protein is phosphorylated. In the treated sample, your protein exists in both a phosphorylated and unphosphorylated form.

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19
Q

Functions of IDRs

A

Protein binding region with the capacity to bind to many different diverse partners

A flexible tether

In combination with others to form a diffusion barrier

Signaling via covalent modifications

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20
Q

What techniques are most commonly used to determine whether two proteins function in the same molecular complex?

A

Co-immunolocalization and co-immunoprecipitation

21
Q

True or false: a mutation in the first 3’ splice site such that the first splice is made to the second 3’ splice site might lead to a smaller than normal mRNA being produced

22
Q

True or false: a mutation in the first 5’ splice site such that the first splicing reaction starts with the second 5’ splice site might lead to a smaller than normal mRNA being produced

23
Q

What changes could repress transcription?

A

Methylation of histone tails

Replacement of histones near the promoter with specialized histones that are normally restricted to centromeric regions

24
Q

What would increase the fraction of AB dimers?

A

Increase the concentration of B, esp if B is “rate limiting”

Introduction of a scaffolding protein that can bind to both A and B

25
Q

True or false: In some cases, an exon might be spliced out as if it was an intron

26
Q

Carboxyl Terminal Domain (CTD) of RNAP 2

A

Functions as a scaffold to recruit different RNA processing factors

Consists of ~50 copies of a repeating sequence of 7 AAs

Can be phosphorylated in distinct patterns that determines both its 3D structure and potential binding partners

27
Q

True or false: RNAP 2’s CTD bind to the TATA box

28
Q

True or false: RNAP 2’s CTP is proteolytically cleaved off by TFIIH so that the RNAP complex can leave the pre-initiation complex and transcribe the gene

29
Q

True or false: RNAP 2’s CTD functions as a loading station for NTPs

30
Q

This modification adds a negative charge

A

Phosphorylation

31
Q

Kinases carry out this modification

A

Phosphorylation

32
Q

When histones in a region of DNA have this modification, it is likely that the genes in that region are being expressed

A

Acetylation

33
Q

This modification can cause a protein to be tethered to the cytosolic side of the plasma membrane

A

Palmitylation, addition of a fatty acid

34
Q

True or false: snRNAs lack the ability to actually cut the RNA or ligate it back together

35
Q

What does snRNA stand for

A

small nuclear RNAs

36
Q

True or false: some snRNAs base pair with each other to help hold everything together

A

True. This ensures that the RNA fragments are not lost

37
Q

True or false: some snRNAs base pair with the splice sites and branch points of the pre-mRNA

A

True. This is key to the recognition process

38
Q

What are the functions of TFIIH?

A

Kinase, helicase

39
Q

True or false: TFIIH does transcript termination

A

False. It has kinase and helicase activity tho

40
Q

Under what circumstances might a protein be subjected to poly-ubiquitination?

A

The protein has exposed hydrophobic residues

The protein has an exposed DEAD box

41
Q

True or false: the C terminal domains of the core histones are intrinsically disordered

42
Q

True or false: over evolutionary time, you would predict that a particular calcium-binding protein will evolve to become every stronger in its calcium-binding affinity

43
Q

Promoter

A

Region of DNA where RNA polymerase II and “friends” (rest of the complex) assemble

44
Q

Branch point

A

A sequence in the middle of an intron that is critical for splicing

45
Q

Exon

A

A transcribed region that is retained in the fully processed mRNA

46
Q

Intron

A

A transcribed region that is ultimately excised from the fully processed mRNA

47
Q

Poly-A tail

A

A non-transcribed region that is part of the fully processed mRNA

48
Q

Where is the first cut made during splicing?

A

5’ exon-intron junction