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PC12 > Quizz > Flashcards

Quizz Flashcards

1
Q

How is the MOR affected by altitude?

A

So high altitudes it is possible to achieve full engine power when operating the MOR system.
At low altitudes with the MOR lever fully forward the MOR system may not give full engine power

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2
Q

In case of an engine failure in flight, the MOR should be used if (Ng & FF )

A

Remaining FF around 90lbs/h

AND Ng>50%

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3
Q

When will Setting the CL to Ground Idle will open the safety valve and depressurize the cabin ?

A

Only in case of a failure of the Air/Ground Switch

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4
Q

Beta Range is defined as the range where :

A

Propeller pitch is controlled by the PCL

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5
Q

Which of the following parameters, displayed on the EIS, are measured in real time by probes ?

  • fuel flow
  • fuel qty (digital value)
  • fuel endurance
  • fuel qty (analog gauges)
A 
FF 
fuel qty (analog gauges)
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6
Q

What are the conditions required to perform a LVTO, in accordance with Jetfly’s procedure?

A

CPT is PF
Rwy opened to Low Visibility
150mY

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7
Q

What is the minimum possible MDH for an NDB Apprach ?

A

350 ft

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8
Q

How much do you need to add to a MDA of a NPA with CDFA?

A

20ft in Cat A

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9
Q

If both the CSU and the Overspeed Governor fail, the propeller speed is ultimately limited to 1853 RPM thanks to :

A

The Nf Governor

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10
Q

How does the CSU act on the pitch change mechanism?

A

It controls the oil pressure supplied to the propeller

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11
Q

What is the propeller operating speed in flight? The maximum transient speed?

A

1700 RPM - 1870 RPM

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12
Q

What is the propeller operating speed on ground?

A

1060 RPM

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13
Q

What is the propeller operating speed in reverse mode?

A

1650 RPM

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14
Q

What is the standard mass for a crew?

A

188 lbs

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15
Q

What is the standard mass for a man?

A

199 lbs

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16
Q

What is the standard mass for a woman?

A

159 lbs

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17
Q

What is the standard mass for a crew luggage?

A

22lbs

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18
Q

What is the standard mass for a passenger luggage?

A

33 lbs

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19
Q

What is the standard mass for the standard Jetfly equipment?

A

75lbs

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20
Q

What is the standard mass for a baby (

A

0 lbs

He is included in the mass of the person holding him

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21
Q

What is the standard mass for an infant (between 2 and 12)

A

77lbs

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22
Q

Which of the following systems use the Py?

  • propeller governor
  • the torque limiter
  • the Ng governor
  • the Nf governor
A

Torque limiter and Nf governor

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23
Q

The compressor section consists of

a. Four-stage axial flow and dual stage centrifugal flow compressors
b. Four- stage axial flow single stage centrifugal flow compressors
c. Two-stage axial flow and single stage centrifugal flow compressors
d. Three-stage axial flow and dual stage power turbines

A

B

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24
Q

With the power lever in the ground idle position, the propeller RPM is approximately

a. 2000 RPM
b. 1700 RPM
c. 1200 RPM
d. 1000 RPM

A

D : 1060 RPM

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25
Q

If you encounter a complete loss of pneumatic pressure in the Fuel Control Unit, the engine would :

a. Advance to full power
b. Decrease to idle
c. Fail completely
d. Be unaffected

A

B

90lbs/h

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26
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the function of the compressor bleed valves :

a. To compress air from each axial flow compressor during periods of low engine power
b. The high pressure bleed valve opens and closes under low power conditions, while the second bleed valve is a safety valve
c. The high pressure bleed valve will only open when P3 pressure exceeds 91%
d. The bleed valves function primarily to bleed interstate air from the compressor assembly to reduce compressor stalls during starts and under low power conditions

A

D

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27
Q

The wingspan of the PC12 is :

a. 16,28 m
b. 14,40 m
c. 45’ 1’’
d. 5,20 m

A

A

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28
Q

The length of the PC12 is :

a. 16,28 m
b. 14,40 m
c. 45’1’’
d. 5,20 m

A

B

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29
Q

The maximum permitted cabin differential on the PC12 is :

a. 5,75 Psi
b. 6,25 Psi
c. 5,25 Psi
d. 6,00 Psi

A

A

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30
Q

The starter disengage relay should activate at :

a. 63%
b. 56%
c. 50%
d. 45%

A

C : 50% ou 60”

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31
Q

Which statement describes the PT6A combustion section?

a. It looks similar to a cylinder from a piston engine
b. It has two spark plugs and two magnetos
c. It has 14 nozzles and two igniter plugs
d. It has 7 nozzles and two igniter plugs

A

C

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32
Q

The Inertial separator can be opened by :

a. Activating the inertial separator switch
b. Pulling the inertial separator lever to open
c. The inertial separators are always open on the PC12
d. Activation of Surface and Propeller De Ice together

A

A

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33
Q

The maximum permitted ITT for starting is :

a. 800°C
b. 880°C
c. 1000°C
d. 1313°C

A

C

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34
Q

The maximum permitted speed to operate with 30° of flaps extended is?

a. 136 KIAS
b. 125 KIAS
c. 130 KIAS
d. 118 KIAS

A

C

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35
Q

The PC12 is certified to what altitude?

a. FL300
b. FL270
c. FL250
d. FL200

A

A

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36
Q

The feathering solenoid is

a. Pneumatic
b. Hydraulic
c. Electric
d. None of the above

A

D
Solenoid connected to BAT BUS which opens a valve fitted in parallel with the Overspeed Governor. The valve let’s all the oil in the cylinder flow out, allowing the feathering spring to act alone on the blades

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37
Q

What is the stalling speed at maximum weight, on a PC12 45, in the clean configuration?

a. 99 KIAS
b. 79 KIAS
c. 91 KIAS
d. 85 KIAS

A

C

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38
Q

In the event of a Fuel Control Unit Failure, the power lever should be positioned :

a. To the idle position
b. To the maximum position for power
c. To the ground idle detent
d. Immediately to the maximum forward position

A

A puis MOR

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39
Q

The low pressure switch of the fuel delivery line, found between the collector tank and the engine driven fuel pump is set to activate the amber FUEL PRESS light when :

a. System pressure exceeds 2.0 Psi
b. System pressure falls below 4.0 Psi
c. System pressure falls below 2.0 Psi
d. None of the above

A

C

FUEL PRESS Caution 3,5 PSI

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40
Q

Fuel quantity is measured by :

a. Float type sensors displaying quantity in USG
b. Capacitance type sensors displaying quantity in USG
c. Capacitance types sensors displaying quantity in pounds
d. Float type sensors displaying quantity in pounds

A

C

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41
Q

According to Pratt & Whitney recommended procedures, setting power in cruise flight should be done by reference to :

a. Torque
b. Ng
c. Fuel Flow
d. ITT

A

A ??

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42
Q

If the propeller operation is stabilized at 1850 RPM, that indicates that :

a. A shorter blade optional propeller has been installed
b. The Control Speed Unit has probably failed
c. The Overspeed Governor has probably failed
d. Both B and C are true

A

C : CSU and Overspeed Governor failed, Power Turbine (Nf) is regulating to 1853RPM, 109%

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43
Q

The ITT is measured :

a. In the compressor section
b. In the combustor section
c. Between the compressor turbine and the power turbine
d. At the exhaust stack

A

C

Inter Turbine Temperature

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44
Q

The total oil capacity is :

a. 13,6 litres
b. 13 litres
c. 7,6 litres
d. 24,10 litres

A

A

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45
Q

The maximum torque setting permitted for takeoff is :

a. 51,25 Psi
b. 44,34 Psi
c. 36,95 Psi
d. 61,00 Psi

A

B

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46
Q

The PC12 47 and the PC12 45 are certificated in :

a. Normal Category only
b. Normal and utility category
c. Utility category if no passengers of baggage is carried
d. None of the above

A

A
Normal Category
+3,3G -1,32G flaps up
+2G -0G flaps down

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47
Q

Where does the LH Windshield heating get its power from?

a. NON ESS BUS
b. GEN 1 BUS
c. GEN 2 BUS
d. BAT BUS

A

B

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48
Q

What is the maximum flap setting with “Boots ON” for landing?

a. 0°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 40°

A

B

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49
Q

The Pressure regulating valve of the oil system gives a nominal pressure in the system:

a. From 90 to 135 Psi
b. Above 160 Psi
c. From 135 to 160 Psi
d. From 60 to 90 Psi

A

A

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50
Q

The hydraulic pump functions as the source of main hydraulic system pressure. The pump nominally produces :

a. 2900 Psi
b. 1800 Psi
c. 500 Psi
d. 1500 Psi

A

A

Starts when

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51
Q

All three landing gear assemblies are held in the retracted position by :

a. Mechanical unlocks
b. Electric pressure switches
c. Hydraulic pressure
d. None of the above

A

C

Hydraulic then in case of failure by nitrogen charged accumulator 200min

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52
Q

To test the shaker/pusher on the ground, the flaps must be set to :

a. Any position
b. Greater than 15°
c. 15°
d. 30°

A

C

Flaps 15 + TQ>5 PSI

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53
Q

When using a GPU for engine start, it must be capable of supplying stabilized voltage and current of :

a. Greater than 30 VDC, amps not important
b. 27 to 29 VDC, 1000 A
c. 30 to 35 VDC, 500 A
d. 27 to 30 VAC, 1000 A

A

B
1000A
23

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54
Q

What item(s) is/are powered by the BAT DIRECT BUS

a. The clock
b. The dome light at 50%
c. The cargo door motor
d. All of the above

A

D

Clock
Cockpit Dome Light
Cargo Door Motor
Baggage and Cargo Door Light

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55
Q

The aim of the inverter is to convert from :

a. 28 VDC to 26 VAC 400 Hz
b. 28 VDC to 28 VAC and 115 VAC
c. 28 VDC to 26 VAC 60 Hz
d. 28 VDC to 115 VAC 50 Hz

A

A

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56
Q

In order for the CWS function to operate :

a. Both roll and pitch axis modes must be engaged
b. The CWS button must be depressed and held
c. The autopilot must be turned off
d. Flight Director mode must be engaged

A

B

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57
Q

If the Amber FLAPS annunciator light illuminates, what is the correct action?

a. Pull and reset the “Flap” Circuit Breaker
b. Pull and reset the “Flap” Warn Circuit Breaker
c. Select the flaps to 0° then back to the previous setting
d. Take no action because the flap system has failed and it cannot be reset or corrected in flight

A

D

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58
Q

The main landing gear tyres should be properly inflated to :

a. 50 Psi
b. 55 Psi
c. 60 Psi
d. 65 Psi

A

C

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59
Q
  1. An amber FLAPS CAWS light indicates a flap position asymmetry of more than :
    a. 10°
    b. 7°
    c. 8°
    d. 5°
A

D
FLAPS + PUSHER Caution 10”
= Assymmetry 5 degrees
Or twist 2 degrees

FLAPS Caution alone = overheat or stall motor driving flaps
This one only can be reset CB after 5”

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60
Q

What is the stalling speed, on a PC12 45, at maximum weight in the landing configuration (Vso)?

a. 79 KIAS
b. 75 KIAS
c. 69 KIAS
d. 64 KIAS

A

D

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61
Q

llumination of the amber HYDR CAWS light just after landing indicates that the system pressure switch has, within an hour, activated the pump motor more than :

a. 3 times
b. 6 times
c. 8 times
d. 4 times

A

B

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62
Q

Which statement is true regarding the electrical busses on the PC12?

a. There are 5 busses, all protected by separate contact breakers
b. The Non-Essential Bus is powered by an 80 Amp contact breaker
c. To isolate an Avionics Bus, its associated contact breaker as well as the bus-tie contact breaker must be pulled
d. The Non-Essential Bus is connected to the main battery line through an automatic load shedding device

A

D

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63
Q

The landing gear warning will sound under which of the following conditions?

a. Whenever the TQ is greater than 60 Psi
b. Whenever the landing gear is down and locked
c. Whenever the landing gear is not down, and flaps are set at more than 15°
d. When the gear is up, the torque is 10 Psi or more, and the speed is 130 KIAS or more

A

C

  • gear up + flaps more than 15
  • gear up + KIAS
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64
Q

If while using a Ground Power Unit the AVAIL annunciator extinguishes, this indicates that :

a. The battery switch is selected ON
b. The Ground Power Unit is supplying less than 23 VDC or is not connected
c. The aircraft batteries are fully charged
d. The battery power available is sufficient for engine start

A

D

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65
Q

During a GPU start :

a. The Battery, GEN 1 and 2 switches should be selected ON
b. The Battery, GEN 1 and 2 switches should be selected OFF
c. The switch position does not affect the start
d. The Battery switch should be selected ON while GEN 1 and 2 switches should be selected OFF.

A

D

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66
Q

The starter generator is capable of supplying :

a. 24 VDC and 300 Amps load capability
b. 24 VDC and 150 Amps load capability
c. The aircraft’s entire electrical needs in the event of a generator failure
d. Both A and C.

A 
C
28VDC 300A (max 450A 2min)
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67
Q

Illumination of the N ESNTL BUS annunciator indicates that

a. The battery voltage is low but is not powered
b. The non-essential bus is not powered
c. The tie-bus voltage has fallen below 25VDC
d. The non-essential bus voltage has fallen below 22VDC

A

D

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68
Q

The Landing gear on the PC12 can be described as

a. Electrically controlled
b. Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated with a free fall emergency gear extension system
c. Hydraulically controlled
d. Electrically controlled and hydraulically controlled

A

C

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69
Q
  1. A failure of the stall warning system is indicated by :
    a. No stall warning horn when performing stalls
    b. An Amber [ PUSHER] annunciator
    c. A yellow [PUSHER] annunciator
    d. No movement of the lift transducer while doing a preflight check
A

B

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70
Q
  1. The recommended flap position for a normal takeoff is
    a. 40°
    b. 30°
    c. 15°
    d. 0°
A

B

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71
Q
  1. The aileron/rudder interconnect mechanism connects the :
    a. Aileron and rudder together at all times
    b. Aileron and rudder together when in Pusher Ice Mode
    c. Aileron and rudder only with the flaps retracted
    d. Aileron and rudder only with the flaps extended
A

A

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72
Q

The ECS will automatically shut down under which of the following conditions?

a. During engine start
b. Whenever an over-temperature or over-pressure condition is detected in the air supply duct
c. The cabin altitude is higher than that selected by the cabin controller
d. Both a and b are correct

A

D

Sauf si en mode Manuel

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73
Q

The illumination of the red CABIN PRESS annunciator indicates that :

a. The maximum cabin pressure differential is exceeded
b. The cabin altitude is less than that which is selected on the controller
c. The cabin altitude has risen to greater than 10 700 ft
d. Both A and C are correct

A

D

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74
Q

Which of the following describes the pilot oxygen system?

a. The pilot’s oxygen source is different from the copilot’s
b. The oxygen source is supplied by oxygen generators
c. The oxygen will supply the entire passenger load for 30 minutes
d. The pilot oxygen mask is quick donning and located behind the pilot seat in a holder

A

D

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75
Q
  1. A failure of the stall warning system is indicated by :
    a. No stall warning horn when performing stalls
    b. An Amber [ PUSHER] annunciator
    c. A yellow [PUSHER] annunciator
    d. No movement of the lift transducer while doing a preflight check
A

B

76
Q
  1. The recommended flap position for a normal takeoff is
    a. 40°
    b. 30°
    c. 15°
    d. 0°
A

B

77
Q
  1. The aileron/rudder interconnect mechanism connects the :
    a. Aileron and rudder together at all times
    b. Aileron and rudder together when in Pusher Ice Mode
    c. Aileron and rudder only with the flaps retracted
    d. Aileron and rudder only with the flaps extended
A

A

78
Q

The ECS will automatically shut down under which of the following conditions?

a. During engine start
b. Whenever an over-temperature or over-pressure condition is detected in the air supply duct
c. The cabin altitude is higher than that selected by the cabin controller
d. Both a and b are correct

A

D

Sauf si en mode Manuel

79
Q

The illumination of the red CABIN PRESS annunciator indicates that :

a. The maximum cabin pressure differential is exceeded
b. The cabin altitude is less than that which is selected on the controller
c. The cabin altitude has risen to greater than 10 700 ft
d. Both A and C are correct

A

D

80
Q

Which of the following describes the pilot oxygen system?

a. The pilot’s oxygen source is different from the copilot’s
b. The oxygen source is supplied by oxygen generators
c. The oxygen will supply the entire passenger load for 30 minutes
d. The pilot oxygen mask is quick donning and located behind the pilot seat in a holder

A

D

81
Q

On an aircraft fitted with a large capacity oxygen system, and 9 passengers masks connected, while you read on the oxygen system pressure gauge 1 500 Psi at an ambient temperature of 0°C, with 2 crew on diluter demand, for how long the system will supply oxygen?

a. 37 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 17 minutes
d. 44 minutes

A

bouteille chargée 86%,
bouteille pleine, 9 masques + 2 crew diluter demand = 44min
donc 37min

82
Q

The WSHLD HEAT annunciator illuminates whenever

a. The windshield heat has failed on either the pilot or co-pilot side
b. The windshield over temps on both the pilot and co-pilot sides
c. The temperature sensor has failed
d. The power from the main bus has over temped

A

A

83
Q

The windshield on the PC12 is :

a. Made of glass, de-iced on the pilot side
b. Made of stretched acrylic
c. Made of glass, de-iced on both pilot and co-pilot side
d. Heated all the time

A

C

84
Q

The de-ice boots should be selected ON :

a. All the time
b. When the green DE ICE BOOTS annunciator illuminates
c. When OAT is below +5°C and flying in visible moisture
d. When ice accretion is visible on the airframe and wing leading edges

A

C

85
Q

The datum line on the PC12 is located :

a. 118 inches ahead of the firewall
b. At the wing root
c. At the centre of gravity
d. 100 inches forward of the pressure bulkhead

A

A

86
Q

The maximum baggage weight allowed in the baggage area is :

a. 200 lbs
b. 300 lbs
c. 400 lbs
d. 500 lbs

A

C
400lbs EX-6S-2
265lbs EX-6S-STD-2

87
Q

The basic empty weight of the aircraft includes :

a. Unusable fuel and oil
b. Usable fuel and oil
c. Unusable fuel, oil, charts and baggage
d. Usable fuel, oil, charts and baggage

A

A

88
Q

The minimum OAT for operation of the PC12 45 is :

a. -56°C
b. -10°C at sea level
c. Dependant on engine oil temperature
d. -55°C

A

D

89
Q

What is the effect of the inertial separator?

a. To increase engine performance by reducing available air pressure to the compressor
b. To increase the pressure ration across the inlet system
c. To protect the inlet air screen from icing
d. All of the above

A

B

90
Q

The correct procedure when adding anti icing additive is :

a. Pour between 0,007 and 0,015% of fuel volume to be added in each tank prior refuelling
b. Add the prescribed amount after fuel delivery has started and finish before the end of the fuel delivery
c. Add the required amount of fuel then calculate and add the correct amount of additive
d. Not to add any additive when Jet B is used

A

B

between 0,06% and 0,15%

91
Q

During normal cruise operations, bleed air will be taken from :

a. P3 supply
b. P2,5 supply
c. P4 supply
d. P3,5 supply

A

B

92
Q

According to the AFM, if the green overpressure (rupture) disc which provides overpressure protection for the oxygen bottle is found to have been activated, the airplane may be flown but not above :

a. 15 000 ft
b. 12 500 ft
c. 14 000 ft
d. 10 000 ft

A

D

93
Q

How does the Torque Limiter reduce Engine Power in case of an over-torque?

a. It creates a leak in the Fuel Flow
b. It reduces the propeller pitch
c. It reduces the Py sensed by the FCU
d. It reduces the Oil Pressure in the Reduction Gearbox

A

C

94
Q

What is the compression ratio of the reduction gearbox?

a. Approximately 41, from 39 000 RPM to 950 RPM
b. Approximately 32, from 30 000 RPM to 950 RPM
c. Approximately 23, from 39 000 RPM to 1700 RPM
d. Approximately 18, from 30 000 RPM to 1700 RPM

A

D

95
Q

When is it recommended to check the Oil level?

a. Within 10 minutes after engine shutdown
b. As soon as possible after engine shutdown
c. When engine is cold
d. Anytime, temperature doesn’t matter

A

A

96
Q

What de icing switches must be selected ON, in order to activate the Pusher Ice Mode?

a. Inertial Separator OPEN
b. BOOTS
c. Propeller
d. A and C

A

D

97
Q

Match the different types of fluids and their respective functions :
Type I fluid Anti-Icing
Type II and IV fluid De-icing
Type III fluid De/anti-icing

A

Type I = De-icing
Type II and IV = Anti-icing
Type III = De/anti-icing

98
Q 
Select the different factord affecting the HOT (HoldOver Time)?
The intensity of the Present Weather
The type of Aircraft
The type of Present Weather
The outside air temperature
A
  • intensity of present weather
  • type of present weather
  • outside air temp
99
Q 
What is the fluid that gives the longest HoldOver Time?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
A

Type IV

100
Q

When does the HoldOver Time start running?

A

For a One-Step procedure, HoldOver Time starts running at the beginning of the fluid application.
For a two step procedure, the HOT starts at the beginning of the anti-icing fluid appliction.

101
Q

An AIRMET is issued for a hazard with less severity than a SIGMET?

A

True

102
Q

What is the difference between an AIRMET and a SIGMET?

A

an AIRMET is issued for low-level operations, while a SIGMET regards a specified En-Route Weather Phemona

103
Q

Which of the following phenomeba could lead to the creation of a SIGMET?
SEV icing, SEV turbulence, Radioactive cloud, Isolated TS, HVY Dust Storm, TS

A

SEV icing, SEV Turbulence, Radioactive Cloud, HVY Dust Storm, TS

104
Q

How is a medium to good surface friction defined?
A - either by 5 when estimated, or by 0,40 and above when measured
B - either by 4 when estimated, or by 0,36 to 0,39 when measured
C - either by 3 when estimated, or by 0,30 to 0,35 when measured
D - either by 2 when estimated, or by 0,25 and below when measured

A

B

105
Q 
What means :
SNOWTAM
C)16
F)2/1/1
H)4/3/3
regarding the deposit on RWY 34?
A

RWY 34 is damp on the 1st 2/3 and wet on the last 1/3

106
Q

Name the rotation speeds of the following elements :
Power Section
Propeller
Gas Generator

A

Power section = Nf
Propeller = Np
Gas Generator = Ng

107
Q

What do you find in the accessory gearbox?

  • oil pumps
  • low pressure fuel pumps
  • electrical generators
  • high pressure fuel pumps
A

oil pumps, low pressure fuel pumps, electrical generators, high pressure fuel pumps

108
Q 
The pressure regulating valve of the oil system gives a nominal pressure in the system :
A - from 60 to 90 PSI
B - above 160 PSI
C - from 135 to 160 PSI
D - from 90 to 135 PSI
A

D

109
Q

How does the torque limiter reduce engine power in case of an over-torque?
A - it creates a leak in the fuel flow
B - it reduces the propeller pitch
C - it reduces the oil pressure in the reduction gearbox
D - it reduces the Py sensed by the FCU

A

D

110
Q

What is the aim of the bleed valve?
A - bleed valve is used for air conditioning
B - spills excess of air to prevent compressor stall
C - bleed valve is used for pressurisation

A

B

111
Q 
What is the maximum allowed flap position for take-off with de-ice boots ON in icing conditions?
A - 0°
B - 15°
C - 30°
D - 40°
A

B

112
Q

Whilst holidng in icing conditions, your fuel flow will increase by 25% up to 50% on a PC12-45.
True/False?

A

True

113
Q 
What is the minimum recommended speed for landing in icing conditions, flaps 0, with a de-ice boot failure in pusher ice mode?
A - 108 kt
B - 114 kt
C - 118 kt
D - 134 kt
A

D

114
Q 
Which of the following parameters, dsplayed on the EIS, are measured in real time by probes?
A - Fuel endurance
B - Fuel Flow
C - Fuel Quantity (analog gauges)
D - Fuel Quantity (digital value)
A

B and C

115
Q

You arrive at an airflield with a RWY eqquiped with HIALS and HIRL. The reported visibility is 400m, by day. The required RVR for landing is 700m.
Can you perform the entire procedure?

A

NO

400 x 1,5 = 600m

116
Q 
If both the CSU and the Overspeed Governor fail, the propeller speed is ultimately limited to 1853 RPM thanks to :
A - The Ng Governor
B - The Beta Valve
C - The Nf Governor
D - The Propeller Governor
A

C

117
Q

How does the CSU act on the pitch change mechanism?
A - it controls the oil pressure supplied to the propeller
B - through the Overspeed Governor
C - it controls the force of the feathering spring
D - it acts on the counterweight whose play is to move the blades towards a fine pitch

A

A

118
Q

Prop Speed above 1760 RPM causes EIS Caution and RPM value blinking.
What should your first action be in that situation?
A - check PCL is forward the idle detent
B - set the CL to cut-off/Feather
C - wait for the overspeed governor to resolve the problem
D - reduce power

A

D

119
Q 
During the cruise,  a propeler speed of 1840 RPM is the ocnsequence of :
A - a failure of the overspeed governor
B - an incorrect position of the PCL
C - a failure of the FCU
D - a failure of the CSU
A

A and D

in case failure of the CSU + overspeed governor, Nf Governor limits to 1850 RPM approx

120
Q

The propeller is feathered when the CL is moved in the cut-off position. This is due to :
A - the feathering spring powered with electricity to apply greater force
B - a mechanical lock which is hydraulically removed
C - the centrifugal force caused by engine rotation
D - a solenoid which lets oil flow out of the governor

A

D

121
Q 
Speeder springs in the CSU and Overspeed Governor are used to measure :
A - a rotational speed
B - a torque
C - an oil pressure
D - the Py
A

A

122
Q

What are the consequences of an aft CG?

More manoeuvrable, Less manoeuvrable, More stable, Less stable, Vs Decreases, Fuel consumption increases

A

More manoeuvrable, Less Stable, Vs Decreases

123
Q 
The CG limits are expressed as a distance from a reference dtum, which is chosen by the manufacturer. Where is this datum for the PC 12?
A - 3m aft of the firewall
B - at the firewall
C - 118 inches forward of the firewall
D - 118 inches afteward of the firewall
A

C

124
Q

For the safety of flight, what part of the flight do you need to calculate your CG?
A - for T/O only
B - for T/O and Landing
C - for any time during T/O and Landing, and taking into account the possibility of a fuel leak
D - for Landing

A

C

125
Q 
When purging fuel, how many drain valves should be used?
A - 8
B - 6
C - 4
B - 2
A

B

126
Q

After refuelling, on the ground, the fuel gauges indicate an imbalance of 10 segments. The auto-balancing system :
A - is able to restore a perfect balance
B - only operates with the CL in the Flight Idle position
C - will process whatever volume is necessary to T/O within the limits
D - will only process 6 LCD segments

A

D

127
Q

When on AUTO mode, the Boost Pumps :
A - are always disabled with the CL at the Cut-off/Feather position
B - starts immediately in case of a fuel imbalance
C - starts immediately in case of a drop in pressure
D - stop immediately when the pressure is restored

A

C : pumps ON for start up even before CL to ground idle
B -> wait for 3 LCD imbalance
D -> stops 10” after reaching 3,5 PSI

128
Q

The ejector pumps, or motive flow jet pumps :
A - use fuel in excess returning from the engine
B - are used as a backup system in case of a failure of the boost pumps
C - are powered by the BAT BUS
D - are only effective when the engine is already running

A

A and D

129
Q

The High- Pressure Fuel Pump is driven by :
A - an electrical motor powered by GEN 1 BUS
B - the accessory gearbox
C - the reduction gearbox
D - an hydraulic motor driven by oil pressure

A

B

130
Q 
It is forbidden to T/O with a fuel imbalance equal to or greater than :
A - 2 LCD segments
B - 3 LCD segments
C - 4 LCD segments
D - 5 LCD segments
A

C

131
Q

In case of failure of the fuel auto-balancing system, how can you transfer fuel from one tank to the other?
A - set both pumps ON
B - pull the fuel pump breaker on the fuller side
C - it is not possible, land ASAP
D - pull the fuel pump breaker on the emptier side and set the fuel pump ON on the fuller side

A

D

132
Q 
Depending on the circumstances, The STBY BUS may be powered by :
A - AV 1 BUS
B - AV 2 BUS
C - GEN 1 BUS
D - Battery
A

A and D

133
Q

A failure of the fuel quantity indication on one side :
A - is acceptable provided the AP is disconnected every 20min to check for possible fuel imbalance
B - requires to activate the fuel pump on the failes side
C - requires an immediate landing
D - is acceptable provided the low fuel cautions are both operative

A

A

134
Q

When compared to Lead-acid batteries, NiCd batteries :
A - are heavier
B - provide energy for a longer duration in case of a power failure
C - offer better performance
D - have the disadvantage of possible thermal runaway

A

C and D

135
Q

Afet an emergency landing, when switching OFF the Master Power Switch, the cockpit dome light is no longer operative.
True / False?

A

False.

Dome Light on the HOT BUS = toujours connecté sur batterie

136
Q

In case of a fuel pressure caution, the first required action is :
A - land ASAP
B - monitor oil T° and P°
C - reduce engine power
D - increase engine power to increase fuel pressure

A

C (then monitor P°)

137
Q

If the STBY is set to OFF, in case of an AV 1 BUS failure :
A - the STBY BUS is powered by the EPS
B - the STBY BUS is lost and the only way to get it back is to power AV 1 BUS again
C - COM 1 is no longer operative
D - the STBY BUS is powered by the Battery

A

C

138
Q

What are the normal position of the BUS TIE and the GEN 2 TIE in normal operation?

A

BUS TIE is closed

GEN 2 TIE is open

139
Q

Which of following statements is true?
A - GEN 1 is offline so GEN 1 BUS is no longer available
B - the pilot has to disconnect the NON ESSENTIAL BUS manually
C - GEN 1 BUS should still be powered but not all systems may be serviceable
D - This is a minor issue since GEN 2 can take it all

A

C

140
Q

When both Generators are offline or failed :
A - GEN 2 TIE will open, BUS TIE will close
B - Both BUS TIES will open
C - BUS TIE will open, GEN 2 TIE will close
D - Both BUS TIES will close

A

D

141
Q 
In normal operations, where is the bleed air taken from ?
A - P2
B - P2,5
C - P3
D - Both P2,5 and P3 at the same time
A

B

142
Q 
What are the consequences of pulling the emergency shut-off valve?
A - close the primary Shut-off valve
B - open the Emergency Ram Air Inlet
C - open the outflow valve
D - close the firewall shutoff valve
A

A, B and D

143
Q

The Temperature Control Valve :
A - sets the portion of the bleed air taken from P3
B - sets the power of the fan in the Heat Exchanger
C - sets the portion of the air flow going into the Heat Exchanger
D - sets the air flow across the RAM air used by the Heat Exchanger

A

C

144
Q

Hot air provided by the ECS is distributed in the cabin through :
A - floor ducts
B - the grill in the step below the cargo area
C - overhead ducts
D - the underfloor heater system

A

A (

145
Q

Since it uses a RAM air inlet, the Heat Exchanger is only efficient while the Aircraft is flying.
True / False?

A

False

146
Q 
The NON ESNTL BUS Caution is likely to be triggered by :
A - BAT Caution
B - GEN 1 OFF Caution
C - GEN 2 OFF Caution
D - ESNTL BUS Warning
A

B

A -> GEN 1 is powering system
C ->GEN 1 is powering

147
Q 
The airflow through the grill below the cargo hold is :
A - the output of the cabin heater
B - the output of the cooling system
C - the inlet of the cabin heater
D - the inlet of the cooling system
A

C

148
Q 
The underfloor heater is activated :
A - As soon as the ECS is ON
B - when the ECS is set to AUTO
C - when the ECS is set to MANUAL
D - when the Cabin Heater is ON
A

A

Underfloor Heater ON between 5° and 11° for the avionics bay, with Fan operating continuously

149
Q

The temperature control knob operates :
A - the amount of bleed air extracted from the compressor
B - the amount of bleed air passing through the heat exchanger
C - the power supplying the cabin heater
D - the cooling system

A

B

150
Q 
The " Flood" is part of the :
A - Temparature control of the ECS
B - Cabin heater
C - Cooling system
D - Underfloor Heater
A

C

151
Q 
At the maximum operating altitude of 30000ft, the maximum DeltaP will result in a Cabin Altitude of :
A - 8000 ft
B - 10000ft
C - 12000ft
D - 14000ft
A

B

152
Q 
Your flight plan is fillerd with a cruising level of FL 90. How do you set the Cabin Controller prior to the climb?
A - ACFT ALT = 9000ft
B - CABIN ALT = 10000ft
C - ACFT ALT = 8500ft
D - ACFT ALT = 10000ft
A

D

9500ft recommended PIM but 10000ft recommended Jetfly’s procedure

153
Q

The manual control valve should be turned clockwise to :
A - Decrease the DeltaP
B - Dump the Cabin air
C - Decrease the Cabin Altitude

A

A

C-> decreasing the cabin alt mean to pressurize it

154
Q 
Dumping the cabin air is needed in case of :
A - craked windshield
B - smoke in the cockpit/cabin
C - excessive cabin altitude
D - engine failure
A

B

A-> procedure ne demande pas de dumper mais de descendre au FL 100

155
Q

The Cabin is depressurised on landing by :
A - The CL set to Ground Idle
B - The PCL set to Idle Power
C - none of the above : it is only set by the cabin controller
D - the air / ground switch

A

D

and in case Air/Ground failure, CL to ground idle

156
Q

According to EASA Part NCO, how much Oxygen do you need to carry on board in a pressurised Aircraft flying above FL 250?
A - as long as needed to descend to FL 100 or below
B - 10min/occupant
C - 15min/occupant
D - 20min/occupant

A

B

157
Q

Oxygen is available for the passengers :
A - when the Cabin Alt is above 10000ft with the control valve in AUTO
B - when the Cabin Alt is above 13500ft with the control valve in AUTO
C - as soon as the oxygen supply lever is set to ON
D - with the oxygen control valve ON

A

B and D

158
Q 
The oxygen relief valve disc is found ruptured during the preflight :
A - flight is possible below FL250
B - flight is possible below FL100
C - flight is possible, but without PAX
D - the aircraft cannot fly
A

B

159
Q

When setting the WX radar tilt during the cruise, the beam should finally target :
A - the cloud base, usually below 18000ft
B - the ground
C - the clouds directly in the flight path
D - it dépends on the Aircraft pitch

A

A

160
Q

A larger WX Radar Antennae provides :
A - a larger beam
B - a beam of the same size, but with more power
C - a smaller beam
D - a beam of the same size, but with less power

A

C

161
Q 
Radar shadow caused by attenuation is likely to happen due to :
A - a TS
B - a mountain
C - ice accumulation on the antennae
D - fog
A

A, B and C

162
Q

After climbing to a much higher cruising level :
A - the tilt angle should be adjusted upwards
B - the tilt angle should not be changed
C - the tilt angle should be adjusted downwards

A

C

163
Q 
What is the MTOW of the PC12-47?
A - 4500kg
B - 4760kg
C - 4540kg
D - 10450lbs
A

D
PC12-47 : 4740kg = 10450lbs MTOW (4760=Ramp W)
PC12-45 : 4500kg = 9921lbs MTOW

164
Q 
the fuel total capacity of the PC12 is :
A - 2736lbs
B - 1521 L
C - 2693lbs
D - 1516 L
A

A
total capacity : 2736lbs = 1540L
usable : 2703lbs = 1521 L

165
Q

What is the effect of the inertial separator?
A - to increase engine performance by reducing available air pressure to the compressor
B - to increase the pressure ratio across the inlet system
C - to protect the air inlet lip from icing
D - all of the above

A

B

166
Q 
In case of a Py leak, the FCU will :
A - spool down to flight idle Ng
B - shut off fuel flow to the metering unit
C - switch to the MOR mode automatically
D - spool down to minimum fuel flow
A

D

90lbs/h

167
Q

During MOR operation :
A - the ITT is automatically limited to 700° C
B - the max TQ may not be reached at lower altitude
C - the prop governor remains perative for reverse operation only
D - the max TQ may ot be reached at higher altitudes

A

B

168
Q

MOR operation :
A - is unrestricted when Ng is below 50%
B - is available on the ground only
C - requires starter assistance when Ng is below 50%
D - is used in the same manner as the PCL without limitations

A

C

169
Q

The purpose of the condition lever is :
A - to switch off the air pressurization when IDLE is selected
B - to select the gas generator idle speed
C - to electrically Feather the propeller upon engine shutdown
D - B and C

A

B

A -> case of failure of Air/Ground

170
Q

During engine shutdown the propeller is feathered :
A - when moving the PCL to reverse position
B - electrically when the CL is moved to cut-off position
C - by a spring loaded nitrogen accumulator in the prop hub
D - hydraulically when the BATT is switched to OFF

A

B

electrical order but feathered by enabling oil to be removed

171
Q

What is the function of the fuel/oil exchanger?
A - to preheat the fuel before start when OAT is below freezing
B - to reduce the oil temperature while preheating the fuel
C - to increase oil temperature in extreme cold weather start
D - to remove water particles from fuel

A

B

172
Q 
During normal operation, the Fuel Control Unit is controlled by :
A - the MOR
B - the PCL
C - the Air Data Computer
D - the fuel flow transducer
A

B

173
Q

The engine oil is used to :
A - cool the bearings
B - cool down the fuel temperature if it is above 21°C
C - supply heat to the cabin through a oil/air heat exchanger
D - A and B

A

A

B -> to heat the fuel if it is below 21°C

174
Q

Which statement is true regarding TRQ ?
A - if TRQ is greater than 44,34 PSI, the torque limiter will increase the Py pressure, reducing fuel flow to the FCU to avoid an over-torque
B - due to ambiant pressure at altitude, max TRQ may not be obtained
C - in MOR operations, the torque limiter is set to 36,9 PSI max
D - none of the above is true

A

B : the engine torque limiter limits the engine torque to below 44,3 PSI. Due to ambiant air pressure at altitude and interference with the FCU maximum governing speed, maximum torque may not be obtained.

A -> torque limiter will create a leak in Py so will decrease Py pressure, reducing FF to the FCU, causing engine speed and engine torque to decrease

175
Q

The PROP LOW P red warning on the CAWS panel indicates that :
A - Low Nitrogen pressure in the accumulatore located in the prop hub
B - propeller blade has gone below the 6° in flight pitch when the Aircraft is not on the ground
C - the propeller is rotating between 350 and 950 RPM on the ground and is not feathered
D - propeller active air braking is in operation

A

B

176
Q

If during flight the oil quantity falls below a prescribed level :
A - OIL QTY red warning will be activated on the CAWS panel
B - OIL QTY amber caution will be activated on the CAWS panel
C - the propeller will go into reverse
D - none of the above

A

D

A -> when engine not running
B -> OIL QTY caution (engine running) has been desactivated

177
Q

The red ENG FIRE CAWS light indicates :
A - an over temperature condition in the engine compartment
B - a confirmed engine fire
C - a failure of the engine fire detection system
D - that the automatic engine fire extnguishers have been triggered

A

A

C -> FIRE DETECT amber Caution indicates a malfunction in the negine fire detection circuit

178
Q

For improved engine starting with a cold engine
A - use the MOR level to override the PCL in order to add more fuel
B - use the FLIGHT IDLE position for engine starting
C - use double the fuel anti-icing additive prescribed dosage
D - none of the above is correct

A

B

179
Q

The IGNITION switch is used to :
A - ignite the mixture in the compressor section
B - power the EIS
C - to start the engine on cold days (

A

D

A -> not in the compressor section!

180
Q

The FIRE DETECT CAWS light will be illuminated when :
A - a possible fire is suspected in the engine compartment
B - a high temperature is detected in the engine compartment
C - the fire detection system is inoperative
D - the automatic fire extinguishers are below normal pressure

A

C

181
Q

Propeller pitch is adjusted by
A - oil pressure regulated through the Prop governor
B - an electric solenoid in the propeller hub regulating oil through the prop governor
C - a system of nitrogen accumulators and springs regulating oil flow through the hub
D - Py pressure sensed at the torque limiter

A

A

182
Q 
The feathering solenoid is located in the
A - FCU
B - Overspeed governor
C - Constant Speed Unit (CSU)
D - Torque limiting sensor
A

B : 7-12 the overspeed governor incorporates a feathering solenoid valve which is energized when the CL is moved to the cut-off position. The BAT BUS mus be powered to enable propeller feahering

183
Q

The blade angle is set by :
A - controlling the force of feathering springs
B - counterweight moving the blades to a fine pitch
C - feathering springs moving the blades to a fine pitch
D - controlling the oil pressure supplied to the propeller

A

D

184
Q 
The term used to determine the power available to drive the propeller on a turboprop engine is :
A - fat rating
B - shaft horsepower
C - thermodynamic rating
D - equivalent shaft horsepower
A

B

185
Q 
The ITT is measured downstream of the :
A - gear box
B - compressor turbine
C - power turbine
D - exhaust stack
A

B

186
Q 
In reverse operations, the RPM is :
A - controlled by the Beta Valve
B - controlled by the overspeed governor
C - controlled by the CSU
D - uncontrolled
A

D

PC12 (2 decks)

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