Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

The review of financial statements to assess their fairness and adherence to GAAP is:

Multiple Choice
•	auditing.
•	accounting.
•	accounting system.
•	management advisory services.
A

auditing

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement to become a certified bookkeeper?

Multiple Choice
• Pass the national certified bookkeeper exam
• Sign a code of ethics
• Complete a number of required college courses
• Submit evidence of work experience

A

Complete a number of required college courses

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a common internal control and fraud prevention policy?
Multiple Choice

  • requiring written proof that transactions are authorized
  • separating duties among employees
  • requiring written proof that payments are authorized
  • preventing multiple payments to a single creditor from being made in a single day
A

preventing multiple payments to a single creditor from being made in a single day

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a service typically provided by a public accounting firm?

Multiple Choice
•	Auditing
•	Tax accounting
•	Management advisory services
•	Investing services
A

Investing services

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5
Q

The entity that has final authority over the financial reporting of publicly owned corporations is the:

Multiple Choice
• Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
• Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB).
• Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
• Internal Revenue Service (IRS).

A

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

Multiple Choice
• The Sarbanes-Oxley Act allows accountants to offer a broad range of consulting services to publicly traded companies that they audit.
• The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires accounting firms to change the lead audit or coordinating partner and the reviewing partner for a company every five years.
• It is a felony to “knowingly” destroy or create documents to “impede, obstruct or influence” any existing or contemplated federal investigation.
• Wall Street investment firms are prohibited from retaliating against analysts who criticize investment-banking clients of the firm.

A

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act allows accountants to offer a broad range of consulting services to publicly traded companies that they audit.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a user of financial information who is considered to be inside the business?

Multiple Choice
•	owners
•	suppliers
•	customers
•	unions
A

owners

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8
Q

The following are all characteristics of a sole proprietorship except:

Multiple Choice
• The owner of a sole proprietorship is legally responsible for the debts of the business.
• A sole proprietorship is legally separate from its owner.
• The owner’s income and the income of the business are combined to compute the total tax responsibility of the owner.
• The life of the business ends when the owner is no longer willing or able to keep the business going.

A

A sole proprietorship is legally separate from its owner.

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9
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be a social entity?

Multiple Choice
•	public school
•	city
•	for-profit business
•	public hospital
A

for-profit business

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an S Corporation?

Multiple Choice
• the corporation’s owners are personally responsible for the debts of the business
• the corporation pays no income tax
• the corporation is a separate entity from its owners
• the corporation has an indefinite life

A

the corporation’s owners are personally responsible for the debts of the business

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11
Q

What is the purpose of a discussion memorandum written by the FASB?

Multiple Choice
• to describe a proposed statement of financial accounting standards
• to summarize the opinions of interested parties expressed at public hearings
• to explain the topic being considered in anticipation of an upcoming statement of financial accounting standards
• to evaluate public comments about the proposed statement

A

to explain the topic being considered in anticipation of an upcoming statement of financial accounting standards

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12
Q

Which of the following is not accurate regarding the auditor’s report?

Multiple Choice
• It contains the auditor’s opinion about the fair presentation of the operating results and financial position of the business.
• It confirms that the financial information is prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles.
• It is made available to the public.
• It is excluded from the financial statements.

A

It is excluded from the financial statements.

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13
Q

Amounts that are owed to a business are known as:

Multiple Choice
•	accounts receivable.
•	accounts payable.
•	capital.
•	expenses.
A

accounts receivable.

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14
Q

What does a single line within an amount column of a financial statement indicate?

Multiple Choice
• That the underlined figure is the final amount in a column.
• That the underlined figure is a key item within the financial statement.
• That the amounts above it are being added or subtracted.
• That the amounts below it are being added or subtracted.

A

That the amounts above it are being added or subtracted.

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15
Q

When the owner invests cash in a business,

Multiple Choice
• assets and revenue increase.
• assets increase and owner’s equity decreases.
• liabilities decrease and owner’s equity increases.
• assets and owner’s equity increase.

A

assets and owner’s equity increase.

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16
Q

When equipment is purchased for cash,

Multiple Choice
• assets and liabilities increase.
• assets increase and liabilities decrease.
• assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity are all unchanged
• assets and expenses increase.

A

assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity are all unchanged

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17
Q

When a business purchases supplies on credit:

Multiple Choice
• assets decrease and owner’s equity increase.
• assets increase and revenues increase.
• assets and liabilities increase.
• liabilities increase and owner’s equity decreases.

A

assets and liabilities increase.

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18
Q

When a business collects an account receivable:

Multiple Choice
•	total assets do not change.
•	assets increase and revenues increase.
•	assets and liabilities increase.
•	assets increase and owner's equity increases.
A

total assets do not change.

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19
Q

When the firm pays its utility bill upon receipt of that bill:

Multiple Choice
•	assets and owner's equity increase.
•	assets decrease and expenses increase.
•	assets and liabilities decrease.
•	expenses increase and owner's equity increases.
A

assets decrease and expenses increase.

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20
Q

When the owner withdraws cash for personal use:

Multiple Choice
• assets decrease and expenses increase.
• assets decrease and owner’s equity increases.
• assets decrease and owner’s equity decreases.
• owner’s equity decreases and revenue decreases.

A

assets decrease and owner’s equity decreases.

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21
Q

Assume that, after analyzing its business transaction, a firm has the following ending balances: accounts payable $3,400, accounts receivable $2,000, cash $1,000, capital $3,600, equipment $3,000, prepaid rent $600, and supplies $400. What is the total amount of assets that will be reported on the firm’s balance sheet?

Multiple Choice
•	$6,400
•	$7,000
•	$9,800
•	$14,000
A

$7,000

The assets reported on the balance sheet would include: cash $1,000, accounts receivable $2,000, supplies $400, prepaid rent $600, and equipment $3,000. These assets would total $7,000. The fundamental accounting equation remains in balance since assets of $7,000 equal liabilities (accounts payable) of $3,400 plus owner’s equity (capital) of $3,600.

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22
Q

Assume that a firm has the following information in its analysis of its business transactions during its first year of business: fees income of $12,000, an investment by the owner of $3,000, salaries expenses of $9,000, and withdrawals of $5,000. What is the total amount of owner’s equity that will be reported on the firm’s balance sheet?

Multiple Choice
•	$1,000
•	$3,000
•	$10,000
•	$15,000
A

$1,000

The statement of owner’s equity for the first year of operations would report the following: beginning capital of $0 (since it is a new company) plus investments of $3,000 plus net income of $3,000 (or revenues of $12,000 minus expenses of $9,000) less withdrawals of $5,000 equals ending capital of $1,000. That ending capital balance would then appear in the owner’s equity section of the firm’s balance sheet.

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23
Q

Identify the missing figure from the list of account balances shown below for Crowdfunding Company. Cash: $15,000, Accounts Receivable: $3,000, Supplies: $2,000, Equipment: $7,000, Accounts Payable: ????, Daniel Owens, Capital: $26,000.

Multiple Choice
•	$0
•	$1,000
•	$27,000
•	$54,000
A

$1,000

The fundamental accounting equation must remain in balance, therefore we can use it here to solve for the missing accounts payable figure. Total assets equal $27,000 ($15,000 cash + $3,000 accounts receivable + $2,000 supplies + $7,000 equipment). When we subtract total owner’s equity of $26,000 from this amount we arrive at accounts payable of $1,000.

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24
Q

Which of the following items appear within multiple financial statements?

Multiple Choice
•	net income (or net loss) and cash
•	ending capital balance and net income (or net loss)
•	cash and withdrawals
•	ending capital balance and withdrawals
A

ending capital balance and net income (or net loss)

Financial statements are completed in a specific order, as they are dependent upon one another. Net income, the final figure within the income statement, is needed to complete the statement of owner’s equity. Similarly, the ending capital balance, the final figure within the statement of owner’s equity, is required within the balance sheet. Cash is only reported on the balance sheet and withdrawals are only reported on the statement of owner’s equity.

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25
Q

Carpet Co. paid cash to purchase equipment. To record this transaction, the accountant would:

Multiple Choice
• debit Equipment and credit Cash.
• debit Cash and credit Equipment.
• debit Equipment and credit Accounts Payable.
• debit Accounts Payable and credit Equipment.

A

debit Equipment and credit Cash.

In this transaction Equipment (an asset) increases and Cash (an asset) decreases. Assets increase via a debit and decrease via a credit, therefore Equipment is debited and Cash is credited as a result of this transaction.

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26
Q

Modern products paid cash to a creditor. To record this transaction, the accountant would:

Multiple Choice
• debit Cash and credit Accounts Payable.
• debit Accounts Receivable and credit Cash.
• debit Accounts Payable and credit Cash.
• credit Cash and credit Accounts Payable.

A

debit Accounts Payable and credit Cash.

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27
Q

Which of the following account types are listed last within the chart of accounts?

Multiple Choice
•	income statement accounts
•	statement of owner’s equity accounts
•	permanent accounts
•	balance sheet accounts
A

income statement accounts

The order in which accounts are listed on the chart of accounts is: balance sheet accounts; statement of owner’s equity accounts; income statement account. Note that income statement accounts (revenue and expense accounts) are temporary accounts, not permanent accounts.

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28
Q

Which of the following types of accounts normally have debit balances?

Multiple Choice
•	Assets and revenue
•	Assets, liabilities, and owner's equity
•	Expenses and assets
•	Liabilities and owner's equity
Explanation
A

Expenses and assets

Asset, expenses, and the owner’s drawings account normally have debit balances because those accounts increase with debits. On the other hand, liabilities, revenues, and the owner’s capital account normally have credit balances because those accounts increase with credits. Note that “owner’s equity” encompasses both accounts with normal debit balances (owner’s drawings and expenses) and accounts with normal credit balances (owner’s capital and revenues).

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29
Q

Which of the following groups contain only accounts that normally have credit balances?

Multiple Choice
•	Accounts Receivable and Fees Income
•	Salaries Expense and Accounts Payable
•	Fees Income and John Smith, Capital
•	Accounts Payable and Equipment
A

Fees Income and John Smith, Capital

Liabilities (such as Accounts Payable), revenues (such as Fees Income), and the owner’s capital account (such as John Smith, Capital) normally have credit balances because those accounts increase with credits.

On the other hand, assets (such as Accounts Receivable and Equipment), expenses (such as Salaries Expense), and the owner’s Drawing account normally have debit balances because those accounts increase with debits.

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30
Q

When using a T account to determine an account balance, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Multiple Choice
• The balance always appears on the side of the T account on which the account increases.
• A footing may be used to total a single side of the T account.
• The balance is placed on the side of the T account with the larger total.
• If a T account contains only one amount, then that amount is the balance.

A

The balance always appears on the side of the T account on which the account increases.

When using a T account to determine an account balance a footing is often used on one side of the T account to determine the total debits or total credits. The balance within the account is always placed on the side with the larger total, and if only one amount is displayed within the T account then it becomes the balance for the account. However, while it is typical for a balance to appear on the side on which the account increase (the normal balance side), this does not always occur.

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31
Q

If the trial balance totals are not equal, the error may have been caused by a transposition if the difference is evenly divisible by:

Multiple Choice
•	2.
•	7.
•	9.
•	5.
A

9.

A transposition is an accounting error involving misplaced digits in a number. If the difference is evenly divisible by 9, there might be a transposition. A transposition occurs when the digits of a number are switched. For example if 357 is written or input as 375, the difference is 18, which is evenly divisible by 9.

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32
Q

The three financial statements are linked together because the:

Multiple Choice
• net income from the income statement is used on the statement of owner’s equity and the ending balance of the capital account, computed on the statement of owner’s equity, is used on the balance sheet.
• net income that is computed on the statement of owner’s equity is used on the income statement and the ending balance of the capital account, also computed on the statement of owner’s equity, is used on the balance sheet.
• net income from the income statement is used on the statement of owner’s equity and the ending balance of the capital account, computed on the balance sheet, is used on the statement of owner’s equity.
• net income from the balance sheet is used on the income statement and the ending balance of the capital account, computed on the statement of owner’s equity, is used on the balance sheet.

A

net income from the income statement is used on the statement of owner’s equity and the ending balance of the capital account, computed on the statement of owner’s equity, is used on the balance sheet.

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33
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the withdrawal of cash by the owner of a company?

Multiple Choice
• The withdrawal leads to a decrease in liabilities
• The withdrawal leads to an increase in owner’s equity
• The withdrawal leads to a decrease in owner’s equity
• The withdrawal leads to an increase in liabilities

A

The withdrawal leads to a decrease in owner’s equity

When cash is withdrawn by an owner the Cash account (an asset) is reduced, and the owner’s drawing account (an owner’s equity account) increases. Note that there are two owner’s equity account types (drawing and expenses) which reduce total owner’s equity. As a result, this increase in drawing leads to a decrease in owner’s equity.

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34
Q

When revenue is earned, which of the following would not be a common result of the transaction?

Multiple Choice
• A debit to the Cash account
• A credit to the Accounts Payable account
• A credit to the Fees Income account
• A debit to the Accounts Receivable account

A

A credit to the Accounts Payable account

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35
Q

Which of the following accounts would decrease on the debit side of the T account?

Multiple Choice
•	Equipment
•	Rent Expense
•	Andrew Martins, Drawing
•	Accounts Payable
A

Accounts Payable

Asset accounts (such as equipment), expense accounts (such as rent expense), and withdrawal accounts (such as Andrew Martins, drawing) increase on the debit side of the T account and decrease on the credit side. Liability accounts, however, increase on the credit side of the T account and decrease on the debit side.

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36
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• The income statement contains only temporary accounts
• The balance sheet contains only nominal accounts
• The statement of owner’s equity contains only permanent accounts
• The statement of owner’s equity contains only real accounts

A

The income statement contains only temporary accounts

Temporary accounts and nominal accounts are synonymous, while permanent accounts and real accounts are also synonymous. The statement of owner’s equity displays the drawing account, which is a temporary account. The balance sheet displays multiple permanent accounts, the balances for which carryover from one period to the next. The incomes statement displays revenue and expense accounts, all of which are temporary accounts.

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37
Q

Which of the following statements about a journal entry is inaccurate?

Multiple Choice
• The description is listed on the final line.
• The debited account(s) are indented.
• The credited account(s) are listed after the debited account(s).
• It is possible for all accounts in a journal entry to increase.

A

The debited account(s) are indented.

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38
Q

The journal entry to record the payment of cash on account to a creditor should include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Payable.
• debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Receivable.
• debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Accounts Receivable and a credit to Cash.

A

debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Cash.

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39
Q

The journal entry to record the payment of a bill for advertising expense would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Advertising Expense and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Advertising Expense and a credit to Accounts Payable.
• debit to Cash and a credit to Advertising Expense.
• debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Advertising Expense.

A

debit to Advertising Expense and a credit to Cash.

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40
Q

The journal entry to record the receipt of cash from clients on account would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Cash and a credit to Fees Income.
• debit to Fees Income and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Receivable.
• debit to Accounts Receivable and a credit to Cash.

A

debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

The journal entry to record the receipt of cash from clients on account must both increase Cash (via a debit) and reduce Accounts Receivable (via a credit).

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41
Q

The journal entry to record the withdrawal of cash by Sue Snow, the owner, to pay a personal utility bill would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Sue Snow, Capital, and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Utilities Expense and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Sue Snow, Drawing and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Sue Snow, Drawing and a credit to Utilities Expense.

A

debit to Sue Snow, Drawing and a credit to Cash.

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42
Q

The journal entry to record a payment made in January for rent for the months of February and March would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Sue Snow, Capital, and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Rent Expense and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Prepaid Rent and a credit to Cash.
• debit to Sue Snow, Drawing and a credit to Rent Expense.

A

debit to Prepaid Rent and a credit to Cash.

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43
Q

Which of the following is not made possible through the use of the audit trail?

Multiple Choice
•	trace information
•	analyze results
•	locate errors
•	prevent fraud
A

analyze results

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44
Q

The Posting Reference column of a journal is used to:

Multiple Choice
• record the page number of the ledger account.
• record the date on which an amount is posted to a ledger account.
• record the number of the ledger account to which the information is posted.
• record the source document for the transaction.

A

record the number of the ledger account to which the information is posted.

The posting reference recorded in the journal is the general ledger account number that was impacted by the account listed in the journal and is used to trace the transaction to its impact on the account balances.

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45
Q
The process of transferring data from the journal to the ledger is known as:
Multiple Choice
•	balancing.
•	journalizing.
•	ledgering.
•	posting.
A

posting

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46
Q

A firm recorded the receipt of cash on account from a creditor as a debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Payable. The error was discovered after the data posted. The correcting entry should contain:

Multiple Choice
• a debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Receivable.
• a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Cash.
• a debit to Accounts Receivable and a credit to Accounts Payable.
• a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

A

a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Accounts Receivable

To correct this error a correcting entry must be recorded within which the Accounts Payable account is reduced (as it was erroneously credited in the original entry, it must be debited within the correcting entry to reduce its balance), and Accounts Receivable is reduced (as it should have been reduced via a credit in the original entry, it must be reduced within the correcting entry to arrive at the proper balance).

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47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a compound entry is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• A compound entry contains two or more accounts.
• A compound entry must contain multiple debits and multiple credits.
• The total value of the debits within a compound entry must equal the total value of the credits.
• A compound entry includes all credits on top, with all debits displayed on the lines below.

A

The total value of the debits within a compound entry must equal the total value of the credits.

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48
Q

Which of the following is not included within a column of the balance ledger form?

Multiple Choice
•	account number
•	description
•	posting reference
•	date
A

account number

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49
Q

Which of the following is not a section of a worksheet?

Multiple Choice
•	Depreciation
•	Adjustments
•	Adjusted Trial Balance
•	Income Statement
A

Depreciation

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50
Q

Centrum Services purchased $4,400 worth of equipment. The equipment has an estimated useful life of seven years and a salvage value of $200. Using the straight-line method, the depreciation for the first month is:

Multiple Choice
•	$50.
•	$52.38.
•	$600.
•	$628.57.
A

$50.

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51
Q

On a worksheet, the adjusting entry to account for depreciation of equipment consists of a:
Multiple Choice
• debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Equipment.
• debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation.
• debit to Equipment and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation.
• debit to Accumulated Depreciation and a credit to Equipment.

A

debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation.

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52
Q

If $3,450 of insurance is purchased for the subsequent six months, what would be the credited account and amount within the necessary adjusting entry after the first month of insurance coverage has expired?

Multiple Choice
•	Insurance expense for $575
•	Insurance Expense for $3,450
•	Prepaid Insurance for $575
•	Prepaid Insurance for $3,450
A

Prepaid Insurance for $575

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53
Q

If an adjusting entry relating to prepaid insurance is not entered onto the worksheet, assets on the balance sheet:

Multiple Choice
•	will be overstated.
•	will be understated.
•	will not be affected.
•	may be either overstated or understated.
A

will be overstated.

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54
Q

What is the purpose of the adjusting entry related to supplies?

Multiple Choice
• To account for the supplies that were used during the period.
• To account for the supplies purchased during the period.
• To account for the supplies on hand at the beginning of the period.
• To reduce the Supplies account balance to zero in preparation for the beginning of the next period.

A

To account for the supplies that were used during the period.

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55
Q

The adjusted Accumulated Depreciation balance will appear within which of the following worksheet columns?

Multiple Choice
•	Income Statement Debit column
•	Income Statement Credit column
•	Balance Sheet Debit column
•	Balance Sheet Credit column
A

Balance Sheet Credit column

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56
Q

After all account balances have been transferred from the Adjusted Trial Balance section of the worksheet to the financial statement sections, the Income Statement section of the worksheet includes the following totals. The Credit column total is $120,000 and the total of the Debit column is $80,000. The Income Statement section of the worksheet:

Multiple Choice
• is now complete.
• would be completed by entering $40,000 in the Credit column with the words “Net Income” in the Account Name column.
• would be completed by entering $40,000 in the Debit column with the words “Net Income” in the Account Name column.
• must have been completed in error since the two columns do not balance.

A

would be completed by entering $40,000 in the Debit column with the words “Net Income” in the Account Name column.

The totals of the Income Statement section columns are used to determine the net income or net loss. The smaller column total is subtracted from the larger one and the difference is entered on the line below the smaller total. Then, “Net Income” or “Net Loss” is entered the Account Name column. In this case the total of the Credit column of $120,000 (which represents revenue) exceeds the total of the Debit column of $80,000 (which represents expenses). The difference between the two amounts is a net income of $40,000. The $40,000 would be entered in the in the Debit column of the Income Statement section so the debit and credit columns will balance, with the words “Net Income” added to the Account Name column.

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57
Q

On the worksheet, the Balance Sheet columns should balance:

Multiple Choice
• before the net income amount is added to the Balance Sheet Debit column.
• before the net income amount is added to the Balance Sheet Credit column.
• after the net income amount is added to the Balance Sheet Credit column.
• after the net income amount is added to the Balance Sheet Debit column.

A

after the net income amount is added to the Balance Sheet Credit column.

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58
Q

If the Supplies account lists $600 in the Trial Balance Debit column of a worksheet, and lists $480 in the Adjustments Credit column of the worksheet, what will appear within the Adjusted Trail Balance columns for the Supplies account?

Multiple Choice
• $120 in the Adjusted Trial Balance Debit column
• $1,080 in the Adjusted Trial Balance Debit column
• $120 in the Adjusted Trial Balance Credit column
• $1,080 in the Adjusted Trial Balance Credit column

A

$120 in the Adjusted Trial Balance Debit column

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59
Q

Red Company purchased $900 of Prepaid Advertising on September 1, 20X1. The advertising will run for the next three months. What adjusting entry should be recorded on September 30, 20X1 to properly account for this advertising?

Multiple Choice
• Debit Advertising Expense for $300, credit Cash for $300
• Debit Prepaid Advertising for $300, credit Advertising Expense for $300
• Debit Cash for $300, credit Advertising Expense for $300
• Debit Advertising Expense for $300, credit Prepaid Advertising for $300

A

Debit Advertising Expense for $300, credit Prepaid Advertising for $300

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60
Q

Publications Unlimited purchased machinery for $20,000 on March 1, 20X1. The machinery has an estimated useful life of 10 years and an estimated salvage value of $2,000. As of March 31, 20X1, after the firm has recorded the adjusting entry for depreciation of this machinery, what is the book value of the machinery?

Multiple Choice
•	$17,850
•	$18,000
•	$19,850
•	$20,000
A

$19,850

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61
Q

One purpose of closing entries is to

Multiple Choice
• transfer the results of operations to owner’s equity.
• reduce the owner’s capital account balance to zero so that the account is ready for the next period.
• close all accounts so that the ledger is ready for the next accounting period.
• adjust the ledger account balances to provide complete and accurate figures for use on financial statements.

A

transfer the results of operations to owner’s equity.

Closing entries (1) transfer the results of operations (net income or net loss) to owner’s equity, and (2) reduce revenue, expense, and drawing account balances to zero.

Asset, liability, and owner’s equity accounts appear on the balance sheet at the end of an accounting period. The balances of these accounts are then carried forward to start the new period. Because they continue from one accounting period to the next, these accounts are called permanent accounts or real accounts. As such, the asset, liability and owner’s equity (owner’s capital) accounts are not closed (that is, their balances are not reduced to zero). Also, note that adjusting (rather than closing) entries are made to update accounts for items that were not recorded during the accounting period and, as such, help to ensure that complete and accurate figures appear in the financial statements.

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62
Q

The Supplies Expense account is closed by:

Multiple Choice
• debiting the owner’s capital account and crediting Supplies Expense.
• debiting Income Summary and crediting Supplies Expense.
• debiting Supplies Expense and crediting Income Summary.
• debiting Supplies Expense and crediting the owner’s capital account.

A

debiting Income Summary and crediting Supplies Expense.

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63
Q

Which of the following journal entries would be used to close a Fees Income account with a $4,200 balance at period-end?

Multiple Choice
A.
Income Summary $ 4,200
Fees Income $ 4,200

B.

Fees Income $ 4,200
Income Summary $ 4,200

C.

H. Jones, Capital $ 4,200
Fees Income $ 4,200

D.

Fees Income $ 4,200
H. Jones, Capital $ 4,200

A

B.

Fees Income $ 4,200
Income Summary $ 4,200

The entry to close the Fees Income account, a temporary account with a credit balance, includes a debit to the Fees Income account to reduce its balance to zero, and a credit to the Income Summary account to transfer the $4,200 balance from Fees Income to Income Summary. The owner’s capital account is not a component of either the closing entry for revenues or that for expenses. Instead, Income Summary is closed to the owner’s capital account in the third closing entry of the closing process.

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64
Q

Which of the following accounts typically appears within multiple closing entries?

Multiple Choice
•	the owner’s capital account
•	the owner’s drawing account
•	accumulated depreciation
•	fees income
A

the owner’s capital account

The fees income account is closed within the first closing entry of the closing process, while the owner’s drawing account is closed within the fourth closing entry. These accounts do not appear within any other closing entries. The accumulated depreciation account is a permanent account, and therefore never appears within a closing entry. Only the owner’s capital account appears in two closing entries, both in the third closing entry when the balance within Income Summary is transferred to the capital account, and in the fourth closing entry when the balance within the owner’s drawing account is transferred to the capital account. Note that the Income Summary account also appears within multiple closing entries (each of the first three), and therefore also would have been a correct answer had it been one of the available choices.

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65
Q

The entry to close the Income Summary account may include:

Multiple Choice
• a debit to Income Summary and a credit to the owner’s capital account.
• a debit to Income Summary and a credit to Cash.
• a debit to Cash and a credit to Income Summary.
• a debit to Income Summary and a credit to the owner’s drawing account.

A

a debit to Income Summary and a credit to the owner’s capital account.

After the revenue and expense accounts are closed, if revenues are greater than expenses, the Income Summary account will have a credit balance, which represents the net income. The entry to transfer net income to owner’s equity includes a debit to Income Summary and a credit to the owner’s capital account.

The Cash account, an asset and permanent account, would not appear in any of the closing entries. The entry to close the owner’s drawing account, which has a debit balance, includes a debit to the owner’s capital account and a credit to the owner’s drawing account. That closing entry does not include the Income Summary account because withdrawals do not appear on the income statement and, as such, are not part of the calculation of the net income or loss.

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66
Q

In a circumstance where a firm experiences a net loss, and the owner has made withdrawals during the period, which of the following statements is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• The revenue account(s) will be closed within the second closing entry of the closing process.
• The owner’s drawing account will be debited in the fourth closing entry of the closing process.
• Only three closing entries are necessary to complete the closing process.
• The owner’s capital account will be debited within the third closing entry of the closing process.

A

The owner’s capital account will be debited within the third closing entry of the closing process.

The revenue account(s) are always closed within the first closing entry, while the drawing account is always closed via a credit to owner’s drawing within the fourth closing entry. The existence of a net loss does not impact the number of closing entries that are necessary, as all four would still be required in this circumstance.

Given that the firm experienced a net loss, the income summary account will have a debit balance after the second closing entry is recorded. In order to close the income summary account within the third closing entry the firm will credit income summary, and record an offsetting debit to the owner’s capital account. This results in a reduction of the owner’s capital account balance, which is a logical result of the firm experiencing a net loss for the period.

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67
Q
Which of the following accounts would be closed within the fourth entry of the closing process?
Multiple Choice
•	the owner’s capital account
•	fees income
•	advertising expense
•	the owner’s drawing account
A

the owner’s drawing account

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68
Q

Which of the following accounts will appear on the postclosing trial balance?

Multiple Choice
•	The owner’s drawing account
•	Fees Income
•	The owner's capital account
•	Rent Expense
A

The owner’s capital account

Asset, liability, and owner’s equity accounts appear on the balance sheet at the end of an accounting period. The balances of these accounts are then carried forward to start the new period. Because they continue from one accounting period to the next, these accounts are called permanent accounts or real accounts. The owner’s capital account, an owner’s equity and permanent account, is not closed.

Note that the owner’s capital account appears in the third closing entry because this entry transfers net income (or net loss) to owner’s equity by crediting (or increasing) the owner’s capital account for the amount of the net income (or debiting the owner’s capital account for the amount of the net loss). Likewise, the fourth closing entry includes the owner’s capital account because this entry transfers the owner’s withdrawals to owner’s equity by debiting (or decreasing) the owner’s capital account for the amount of the withdrawals. (Remember that you don’t want to eliminate the owner’s equity by closing the capital account!)

Revenue and expense accounts appear on the income statement. The drawing account appears on the statement of owner’s equity. These accounts classify and summarize changes in owner’s equity during the period. They are called temporary accounts or nominal accounts because the balances in these accounts are transferred to the capital account at the end of the accounting period. In the next period, these accounts start with zero balances. The owner’s drawing account, Fees Income, and Rent Expense are temporary accounts that must be closed at the end of the period. As such, since they then have zero balances, these accounts would not be listed on the postclosing trial balance.

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69
Q

Which of the following statements about the interpretation of the financial statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• Interpreting the financial statements can only be performed by auditors.
• Interpreting the financial statements is the final step in the accounting cycle.
• To interpret the financial statements means to understand and explain the meaning and importance of information in accounting reports.
• Interpreting the financial statements can assist in decision making for the owners of a firm.

A

Interpreting the financial statements can only be performed by auditors.

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70
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The audit trail can be used to trace data through the accounting records to find and correct errors.
• If the postclosing trial balance does not balance, there are errors in the accounting records.
• The balance of the owner’s capital account on the adjusted trial balance will ordinarily be a different amount than that reported on the postclosing trial balance.
Incorrect
• The postclosing trial balance must include all accounts that appeared on the adjusted trial balance, and may include additional accounts as well.

A

The postclosing trial balance must include all accounts that appeared on the adjusted trial balance, and may include additional accounts as well.

The postclosing trial balance will include only permanent accounts, as the temporary accounts are closed prior to its completion. Therefore, it will display fewer accounts than did the adjusted trial balance. Also, as the closing entries will likely change the balance within the owner’s capital account, this account will ordinarily have a different balance on the adjusted trial balance and the postclosing trial balance.

The postclosing trial balance, like all other trial balances, should be in balance (total debits should equal total credit). If this is not the case then there are errors in the accounting records, and the audit trail can be used to trace data through the accounting records to find and correct these errors.

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71
Q

Which of the following lists the final three steps of the accounting cycle in the correct order?

Multiple Choice
• prepare a postclosing trial balance; record closing entries; interpret the financial information
• record closing entries; interpret the financial information; prepare a postclosing trial balance
• record closing entries; prepare a postclosing trial balance; interpret the financial information
• interpret the financial information; record closing entries; prepare a postclosing trial balance

A

record closing entries; prepare a postclosing trial balance; interpret the financial information

The final three steps of the accounting cycle, in order, are to record closing entries, prepare the postclosing trial balance, and interpret the financial results. The closing entries must first be recorded, so that the associated account balances are updated prior to preparing the postclosing trial balance. Similarly, the postclosing trial balance must be prepared next so that the financial records are complete prior to interpreting this financial information.

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72
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the income summary account is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• The income summary account appears above revenue accounts within the adjusted trial balance.
• The income summary account is a permanent account.
• The income summary account can only be used in two of the four closing entries of the closing process.
• The income summary account is an owner’s equity account.

A

The income summary account is an owner’s equity account.

The income summary account is a temporary owner’s equity account that is used only in the closing process to summarize results of operations. It is not used prior to the closing process (and therefore does not appear within the adjusted trial balance) and has a zero balance after the completion of the closing process. During the closing process it is used within each of the first three closing entries, first to close the revenue account(s), second to close the expense account(s), and third to transfer its balance to the capital account (and to close the income summary account in the process of doing so).

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73
Q

A firm that sells goods that it purchases for re-sale is a:

Multiple Choice
•	service business.
•	merchandising business.
•	manufacturing business.
•	non-profit business.
A

merchandising business.

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74
Q

The Sales Returns and Allowances account is classified as:

Multiple Choice
•	an asset account.
•	an expense account.
•	a revenue account.
•	a contra revenue account.
A

a contra revenue account.

The Sales Returns and Allowances account has the effect of reducing revenue and is, therefore, a contra revenue account. It has a debit balance, which is contrary, or opposite to the normal balance for a revenue account.

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75
Q

At the end of the month, after the equality of the debits and credits recorded in the sales journal is proved by comparing the column totals, the summary posting from the sales journal would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Accounts Receivable, a credit to Sales Tax Payable, and a credit to Sales.
• debit to Cash and a credit to Sales.
• debit to Cash, a credit to Sales Tax Payable, and a credit to Sales.
• debit to Sales Tax Payable, a debit to Sales, and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

A

debit to Accounts Receivable, a credit to Sales Tax Payable, and a credit to Sales.

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76
Q

Detailed information about the transactions with credit customers and the balances owed by such customers is provided by:

Multiple Choice
•	the general journal.
•	the sales journal.
•	the general ledger.
•	the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.
A

the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.

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77
Q

When posting a transaction, which of the following is entered within the Post. Ref. column of the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger?

Multiple Choice
•	an abbreviation indicating the journal and page number from which the transaction was posted
•	a check mark
•	an account number
•	a sales slip number
A

an abbreviation indicating the journal and page number from which the transaction was posted

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78
Q

After all postings have been made, the total of the schedule of accounts receivable should equal:

Multiple Choice
• the balance of the Accounts Receivable account in the general ledger.
• the total of Cash in the general ledger.
• the total of all sales on account for the accounting period.
Incorrect
• the total amount collected during the accounting period.

A

the balance of the Accounts Receivable account in the general ledger.

The accounts receivable account serves as the link between the subsidiary ledger and the general ledger. The balance is a summary of the balances in the related individual customers’ accounts. At the end of each month the balances in the accounts receivable ledger are proved against the balance of the accounts receivable general ledger account through the completion of the schedule of accounts receivable.

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79
Q

When a customer returns a product for which he has not yet paid, and for which sales tax was charged, which of the following journal entries is recorded?

Multiple Choice
• debit accounts receivable, credit sales returns and allowances, credit sales tax payable
• debit accounts receivable, credit sales returns and allowances
• debit sales returns and allowances, credit accounts receivable
• debit sales returns and allowances, debit sales tax payable, credit accounts receivable

A

debit sales returns and allowances, debit sales tax payable, credit accounts receivable

When goods are returned the company must increase the contra-revenue account sales returns and allowances (via a debit), reduce the sales tax payable that was associated with the sale (via a debit), and reduce the accounts receivable (via a credit) as the amount is no longer owed.

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80
Q

Suppose the list price of goods is $1,600 and the trade discount is 15 percent. What is the amount of the discount and what is the net price to be recorded in the sales journal?

Multiple Choice
•	$240; $1,840
•	$240; $1,360
•	$240; $1,600
•	$1,360; $240
A

$240; $1,360

The amount of the discount is $240 ($1,600 × 15%) and the net price to be shown on the invoice and recorded in the sales journal is $1,360 ($1,600 − $240).

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81
Q

Merchandise is sold on credit for $1,700 plus 8 percent sales tax. The entry to record the sale will include a debit to Accounts Receivable for:

Multiple Choice
•	$136.
•	$1,564.
•	$1,700.
•	$1,836.
A

$1,836.

The correct entry includes a debit to accounts receivable for $1,836 (8% × $1,700 = $136 sales tax; $1,700 + $136 = $1,836 accounts receivable).

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82
Q

When a sales tax return is prepared, the amount of a firm’s taxable gross sales for the month are computed as:

Multiple Choice
• Cash sales plus Credit sales less Sales returns and allowances.
• Credit sales less Sales returns and allowances from credit customers.
• Cash sales plus Credit sales.
• Cash sales plus Credit sales plus Sales returns and allowances.

A

Cash sales plus Credit sales less Sales returns and allowances.

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83
Q

When a sales return is recorded in the general journal, the transaction must be posted to:

Multiple Choice
• The customer’s account in the accounts receivable ledger.
• The appropriate accounts in the general ledger.
• Both the customer’s account in the accounts receivable ledger and the appropriate accounts in the general ledger.
• None of these answers is correct.

A

Both the customer’s account in the accounts receivable ledger and the appropriate accounts in the general ledger.

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84
Q

A credit memorandum is issued to a customer for returned merchandise. The merchandise was originally sold for $400, plus a sales tax of 5%. What is the amount of the credit memorandum?

Multiple Choice
•	$380.
•	$400.
•	$405.
•	$420.
A

$420.

The credit memorandum will be for $420 (5% × $400 = $20 sales tax; $400 + $20 = $420.)

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85
Q

A company has sales of $98,000 and sales returns and allowances of $2,000. What is the amount of net sales?

Multiple Choice
•	$100,000.
•	$96,000.
•	$98,000.
•	None of these answers is correct.
A

$96,000.

Net sales are $96,000 ($98,000 − $2,000 = $96,000).

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86
Q

If the list price of goods is $2,500, with trade discounts of 25 and 20 percent, what is the invoice price?

Multiple Choice
•	$1,500.
•	$1,375.
•	$2,000.
•	None of these answers is correct.
A

$1,500.

The invoice price is $1,500, computed as follows:

List price $ 2,500.00
Less first discount (25% × $2,500) 625.00
Difference 1,875.00
Less second discount (20% × $1,875) 375.00
Invoice price $ 1,500.00

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87
Q

What type of sales are reported on the state sales tax return?

Multiple Choice
•	Only sales on credit.
•	Only sales for cash.
•	Both sales on credit and sales for cash.
•	None of these answers is correct.
A

Both sales on credit and sales for cash.

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88
Q

The entry to record a return of merchandise purchased on credit includes:

Multiple Choice
• a debit to Purchases Returns and Allowances and a credit to Accounts Payable.
• a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Purchases Returns and Allowances.
• a debit to Purchases and a credit to Accounts Payable.
• a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Purchases.

A

a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Purchases Returns and Allowances.

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89
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Multiple Choice
• The purchase requisition is the form sent to a supplier to order goods.
• The Purchases account is reported as an asset on the balance sheet.
• To the customer, a supplier’s invoice is a sales invoice.
• The credit terms, 2/10, n/30, allow the customer to take a 2 percent discount if payment is made within 10 days.

A

The credit terms, 2/10, n/30, allow the customer to take a 2 percent discount if payment is made within 10 days.

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90
Q

The Purchases account is a:

Multiple Choice
•	permanent account.
•	temporary account.
•	subsidiary account.
•	liability account.
A

temporary account.

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91
Q

Which of the following is not a column within the purchases journal?

Multiple Choice
•	accounts payable credit
•	purchases debit
•	purchases returns and allowances credit
•	freight in debit
A

purchases returns and allowances credit

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92
Q

If the accounts payable subsidiary ledger account for Sam’s Textiles displays a beginning balance of $2,000, a purchase of $3,100, and a credit memorandum of $1,400, what is the ending balance for this account?

Multiple Choice
•	$300
•	$1,700
•	$3,700
•	$6,500
A

$3,700

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93
Q

Detailed information about the individual accounts for all creditors is provided by:

Multiple Choice
•	the general journal.
•	the purchases journal.
•	the general ledger.
•	the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.
A

the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.

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94
Q

Purchases returns and allowances granted by suppliers are usually entered in the:

Multiple Choice
•	general journal.
•	sales journal.
•	purchases journal.
•	none of the choices are correct.
A

general journal.

Purchases returns and allowances are usually recorded in the general journal or, in certain circumstances, may be recorded in a special purchases returns and allowances journal.

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95
Q

Which of the following would not be performed when posting a purchases return or allowance to the supplier’s account?

Multiple Choice
• enter the credit memorandum number in the description column
• enter the general journal page number in the posting reference column
• enter the date
• enter the amount of the return or allowance in the credit column

A

enter the amount of the return or allowance in the credit column.

When posting a purchases return or allowance to the supplier’s account, the amount of the return or allowance is entered in the debit column, not the credit column.

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96
Q

The net delivered cost of purchases is calculated as follows:

Multiple Choice
• Purchases plus Freight In plus Purchases Returns and Allowances.
• Purchases less Freight In less Purchases Returns and Allowances.
• Purchases plus Freight In less Purchases Returns and Allowances.
• Purchases less Freight In plus Purchases Returns and Allowances.

A

Purchases plus Freight In less Purchases Returns and Allowances.

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97
Q

Which of the following is an objective of internal control of purchases?

Multiple Choice
• To create written proof that purchases and payments are authorized.
• To create a disciplined work environment.
• To make the sales process more complex.
• To create more organized invoices.

A

To create written proof that purchases and payments are authorized.

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98
Q

A payment on account to a vendor is recorded in the:

Multiple Choice
•	Purchases journal.
•	Sales journal.
•	Cash receipts journal.
•	Cash payments journal.
A

Cash payments journal.

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99
Q

The Purchases Returns and Allowances account is a
Multiple Choice
• Contra cost of goods sold account with a normal debit balance.
• Contra cost of goods sold account with a normal credit balance.
• Contra revenue account with a normal debit balance.
• Contra revenue account with a normal credit balance.

A

Contra cost of goods sold account with a normal credit balance.

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100
Q

The total on the schedule of accounts payable should agree with:

Multiple Choice
• the balance of the Purchases account in the general ledger.
• the balance of the Sales account in the general ledger.
• the balance of the Accounts Receivable account in the general ledger.
• the balance of the Accounts Payable account in the general ledger.

A

the balance of the Accounts Payable account in the general ledger.

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101
Q

A company has the following account balances: Purchases, $20,000; Freight In, $1,000; and Purchases Returns and Allowances, $800. What is the amount of the net delivered cost of purchases?

Multiple Choice
•	$20,200
•	$21,800
•	$18,200
•	$19,800
A

$20,200

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102
Q

Which of the following is not an effective internal control?

Multiple Choice
• The same individual who ordered the goods should also sign the check to pay for them.
• All purchases should be made only after proper authorization has been received.
• The computation on the vendor invoice should be checked for accuracy.
• Prenumbered forms should be used for purchase requisitions, purchase orders, and checks.

A

The same individual who ordered the goods should also sign the check to pay for them.

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103
Q

A cash sale of merchandise would be recorded in the:

Multiple Choice
• sales journal with a debit to the sales account.
• sales journal with a credit to the sales account.
Incorrect
• cash receipts journal with a debit to the sales account.
• cash receipts journal with a credit to the sales account.

A

cash receipts journal with a credit to the sales account.

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104
Q

Upon collection of the amount due on an interest-bearing promissory note from a customer, the accountant would debit Cash, credit Notes Receivable, and:

Multiple Choice
•	debit Interest Expense.
•	credit Interest Income.
•	credit Interest Expense.
•	debit Interest Income.
A

credit Interest Income.

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105
Q

Which of the following is true concerning online banking?

Multiple Choice
• Electronic fund transfers cannot replace writing checks.
• Payment of taxes to government agencies must be in the form of a check.
• Bank customers can receive security alerts from the bank by postal mail only.
• Log-in information, such as user identification and passwords, should be changed frequently.

A

Log-in information, such as user identification and passwords, should be changed frequently

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106
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Multiple Choice
• The entry to record the payment of an invoice within the cash discount period would include a debit to the Purchases Discounts account.
• The entry to record a cash purchase of merchandise would include a debit to Purchases and a credit to Cash.
• A transaction that is properly recorded in the cash payments journal will always include the recording of an amount in the Cash Debit column.
• Purchase discounts is a contra revenue account.

A

The entry to record a cash purchase of merchandise would include a debit to Purchases and a credit to Cash.

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107
Q

Which of the following journal entries is recorded when a firm makes payment for a $500 purchase invoice, assuming that it is taking advantage of a 2% cash discount?

Multiple Choice
• debit accounts payable $500; credit purchases discounts $10; credit cash $490
• debit accounts payable $490; debit purchases discounts $10; credit cash $500
• debit cash $490; debit purchases discounts $10; credit accounts payable $500
• debit cash $500; credit purchases discounts $10; credit accounts payable $490

A

debit accounts payable $500; credit purchases discounts $10; credit cash $490

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108
Q

At the end of the month, after the equality of the debits and credits in the cash payments journal is proved by comparing the column totals, the summary posting from the cash payments journal includes a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to Accounts Payable, a credit to Purchases Discounts and a credit to Cash. In addition, amounts in the “Other Accounts Debit Amount” column would also be posted as debits to those accounts.
• debit to Accounts Payable, a credit to Purchases Discounts and a credit to Cash. In addition, amounts in the “Other Accounts Credit Amount” column would also be posted as credits to those accounts.
• debit to Accounts Payable, a debit to Purchases Discounts and a credit to Cash. In addition, amounts in the “Other Accounts Debit Amount” column would also be posted as credits to those accounts.
• debit to Accounts Payable, a debit to Purchases Discounts and a credit to Cash. In addition, amounts in the “Other Accounts Credit Amount” column would also be posted as credits to those accounts.

A

debit to Accounts Payable, a credit to Purchases Discounts and a credit to Cash. In addition, amounts in the “Other Accounts Debit Amount” column would also be posted as debits to those accounts.

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109
Q

The entry to replenish a petty cash fund which was established at $200, currently contains $88 cash on hand, and for which the petty cash analysis sheet displays payments of $70 for supplies and $42 for freight in would include:

Multiple Choice
• a debit to cash for $112, a credit to supplies for $70, and a credit to freight in for $42.
• a debit to cash for $200, a credit to supplies for $70, a credit to freight in for $42, and a credit to petty cash fund for $88.
• a debit to supplies for $70, a debit to freight in for $42, and a credit to cash for $112.
• a debit to supplies for $70, a debit to freight in for $42, a debit to petty cash fund for $88, and a credit to cash for $200.

A

a debit to supplies for $70, a debit to freight in for $42, and a credit to cash for $112.

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110
Q

A check issued for $890 to pay a vendor on account was recorded in the firm’s records as $980; the canceled check was properly listed on the bank statement at $890. On a bank reconciliation statement, the error should be:

Multiple Choice
•	added to the book balance.
•	added to the bank statement balance.
•	deducted from the book balance.
•	deducted from the bank statement balance.
A

added to the book balance.

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111
Q

A firm’s bank reconciliation shows, in part, a book balance of $15,820, a deposit in transit of $300, an NSF check of $400, outstanding checks totaling $10,000, and a service charge of $20. Its adjusted book balance is:

Multiple Choice
•	$16,240.
•	$15,400.
•	$15,440.
•	$16,200.
A

$15,400.

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112
Q

If a check written by a firm is not canceled by the bank and returned with the month’s bank statement, the firm should:

Multiple Choice
• adjust the balance in the firm’s checkbook to reflect the data that appears in the bank’s records.
• immediately notify the bank requesting that it correct its records.
• consider this check as outstanding when preparing the bank reconciliation.
• consider this check to be lost and issue a replacement check.

A

consider this check as outstanding when preparing the bank reconciliation.

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113
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the Cash Short or Over account?

Multiple Choice
• If it has a credit balance, it is treated as expense.
• If it has a debit balance, it is treated as expense.
• If it has a debit balance, it is treated as revenue.
• All answers are correct.

A

If it has a debit balance, it is treated as expense.

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114
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning posting from the cash receipts journal?

Multiple Choice
• At end of month, the cash receipts journal is totaled and the equality of debits and credits proven before amounts are posted.
• Posting to the general ledger accounts should be performed once, at end of month.
• Posting to the general ledger accounts should be performed daily.
• Posting to the customer’ accounts in the accounts receivable ledger should be performed daily.

A

Posting to the general ledger accounts should be performed daily.

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115
Q

Which of the following is not an example of good internal control procedures over cash?

Multiple Choice
• The employee who records cash receipts should also make the bank deposit.
• The person who prepares the bank reconciliation should not also record cash payments.
• Cash receipts should be kept in a cash register, locked cash drawer, or a safe while on the premises.
• The employee who records cash payments should not also write the checks.

A

The employee who records cash receipts should also make the bank deposit.

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116
Q

The drawer of a check is:

Multiple Choice
• the written order authorizing the bank to make payment.
• the individual who signs the check instructing the bank to pay a specific sum of money to a designated person or business.
• the party to whom payment is made.
• the bank on which the check is drawn.

A

the individual who signs the check instructing the bank to pay a specific sum of money to a designated person or business.

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117
Q

The journal entry to record an NSF check received from a customer:

Multiple Choice
• debits Cash and credits Accounts Receivable.
• debits Cash and credits Sales.
• debits Accounts Receivable and credits Cash.
• debits Accounts Receivable and credits Sales.

A

debits Accounts Receivable and credits Cash.

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118
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The amount of social security tax withheld depends on an employee’s gross earnings, marital status, and number of withholding allowances.
• Federal law requires that social security, Medicare, and federal income taxes be deducted from the gross pay of most employees.
• Medicare taxes are levied in an equal amount on both employers and employees.
• Once an employee’s year-to-date wages reach a certain amount prescribed by law, social security tax is no longer withheld.

A

The amount of social security tax withheld depends on an employee’s gross earnings, marital status, and number of withholding allowances.

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119
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Multiple Choice
• A company is required to withhold various employee taxes from amounts paid independent contractors.
• The accountant who performs the independent audit for a company is an employee of the company.
• All employees must be paid at the minimum wage rate set by the Fair Labor Standards Act.
Incorrect
• Disability benefits for the worker and the worker’s dependents are provided by the Federal Insurance Contributions Act.

A

Disability benefits for the worker and the worker’s dependents are provided by the Federal Insurance Contributions Act.

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120
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?
Multiple Choice
• The FUTA tax provides benefits for employees who become unemployed.
• The FUTA tax is both withheld from employees’ earnings and paid by the employer.
• The FUTA tax rate can be as low as 0.6%.
• The state unemployment taxes are paid entirely by the employer.

A

The FUTA tax is both withheld from employees’ earnings and paid by the employer.

Neither the FUTA tax nor the SUTA tax is withheld from employee earnings. Both of these taxes are paid solely by the employer.

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121
Q

An employee whose regular hourly rate is $12 and whose overtime rate is 1.5 times the regular rate worked 43 hours in one week. In the payroll register, the employer should record overtime earnings of:

Multiple Choice
•	$18.
•	$54.
•	$258.
•	$774.
A

$54.

This employee worked 3 overtime hours (43 total hours − 40 regular hours) during the pay period. The overtime hourly rate is $18 ($12 regular hourly rate × 1.5). Therefore, the overtime earnings are $54 (3 overtime hours × $18 overtime hourly rate).

122
Q

How much social security tax is withheld from an employee who earns $3,400 during the current payroll period, and who has earned $131,900 during the year prior to the current pay period, given that the maximum earnings threshold for social security tax is $132,900?

Multiple Choice
•	$62
•	$148.80
•	$210.80
•	$8,177.80
A

$62

The portion of current period earnings that are subject to social security tax is $1,000 ($132,900 maximum earnings threshold for social security tax − $131,900 current payroll period earnings). Therefore, the social security tax for the period is $62 ($1,000 current payroll period earnings subject to social security tax × 6.2% social security tax rate).

123
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The Medicare tax is levied on both the employee and the employer.
• To compute the Medicare tax to withhold from the employee’s paycheck, multiply the net take-home wages by the Medicare tax rate of 1.45%.
• If an employee works for more than one employer during the year, the FICA tax is deducted and matched by each employer.
• All employee earnings are subject to Medicare tax.

A

To compute the Medicare tax to withhold from the employee’s paycheck, multiply the net take-home wages by the Medicare tax rate of 1.45%.

The amount of Medicare tax to withhold from the employee’s paycheck is determined by multiplying the gross wages by the Medicare tax rate of 1.45%. Note that for Medicare tax there is no maximum earnings threshold over which taxes are not withheld, as is the case with FICA tax.

124
Q

Which of the following pieces of information is not required to use the wage-bracket table method of determining federal income tax withholding?

Multiple Choice
•	prior period earnings for the current year
•	marital status
•	number of withholding allowances
•	length of the pay period
A

prior period earnings for the current year

125
Q

hich of the following statements about the payroll register is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The payroll register supplies all the information to make the journal entry to record the payroll.
• The hours worked and the pay rate are used to calculate regular pay, the overtime earnings, and gross pay.
• The cumulative earnings after this pay period is computed by adding the beginning cumulative earnings and the current period’s gross pay.
• The deductions are added to the gross earnings to compute Net Amount, which is the amount paid to each employee.

A

The deductions are added to the gross earnings to compute Net Amount, which is the amount paid to each employee.

126
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the initial journal entry to record payroll?

Multiple Choice
• A credit to salaries and wages payable
• A credit to social security tax payable
• A credit to employee income tax payable
• A credit to salaries and wages expense

A

A credit to salaries and wages expense

127
Q

All details related to an employee’s earnings, deductions, and net pay throughout the year would be found in
Multiple Choice
• the Wages Expense account in the general ledger.
• the individual earnings record.
• the general journal.
• the payroll register.

A

the individual earnings record.

128
Q

An employee whose regular hourly rate is $8 and whose overtime rate is 1.5 times the regular rate worked 41 hours in one week. What is this employee’s gross earnings for the weekly pay period?

Multiple Choice
•	$328
•	$332
•	$488
•	$492
A

$332

Gross earnings for this employee can be calculated as regular earnings + overtime earnings. This employee earned regular earnings of $320 (40 regular hours × $8 regular hourly rate). The employee’s overtime hourly rate is $12 per hour ($8 regular hourly rate × 1.5). Therefore, this employee earned overtime earnings of $12 (1 overtime hour × $12). This results in gross earnings of $332 ($320 regular earnings + $12 overtime earnings) for the weekly pay period.

129
Q

An employee earns gross pay of $720 during the current pay period. Taxes associated with these earnings include federal withholding tax of $45, state withholding tax of $18, social security tax of $44.64, Medicare tax of $10.44, FUTA tax of $4.32, and SUTA tax of $38.88. What is this employee’s net pay for the current pay period?

Multiple Choice
•	$558.72
•	$601.92
•	$615.60
•	$720.00
A

$601.92

Net pay for the current pay period is $601.92 ($720 gross pay − $45 federal withholding tax − $18 state withholding tax − $44.64 social security tax − $10.44 Medicare tax). Note that FUTA tax and SUTA tax are employer taxes that are paid solely by the employer, and therefore are not subtracted from gross pay when calculating net pay.

130
Q

Employees’ payments for federal income taxes withheld and social security and Medicare taxes are periodically:

Multiple Choice
• sent directly to the Internal Revenue Service.
• deposited in a special-purpose bank account, controlled by the company, until year-end when the funds are sent to the U.S. Treasury Department.
• sent to the local office of the Internal Revenue Service.
• deposited in a government-authorized financial institution.

A

deposited in a government-authorized financial institution.

Employees’ payments for federal income taxes withheld and social security and Medicare taxes are periodically deposited in a Federal Reserve Bank or other government-authorized financial institution.

131
Q

Under what circumstance would an employer be subject to the semiweekly deposit schedule rule?

Multiple Choice
• total taxes reported during the lookback period exceed $50,000
• total taxes reported during the lookback period are below $50,000
• total number of employees exceeds 250
• total number of employees is below 250

A

total taxes reported during the lookback period exceed $50,000

If the total taxes reported in the lookback period was more than $50,000, the employer is subject to the semiweekly deposit schedule rule. Note that the 250 threshold relates to the number of Forms W-2 being issued. If a firm issues 250 or more Forms W-2, the returns must be filed electronically.

132
Q

Both the employer and the employee are responsible for paying:

Multiple Choice
•	social security, Medicare, and FUTA taxes.
•	FUTA taxes.
•	SUTA taxes.
•	social security and Medicare taxes.
A

social security and Medicare taxes.

Only the employer is responsible for paying FUTA and SUTA taxes. Both the employee and the employer are responsible for paying social security and Medicare taxes.

133
Q

The entry to record a deposit of federal income taxes withheld and social security and Medicare taxes owed would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to an expense account and credit to one or more liability accounts.
• debit to an asset account and credit to an expense account.
• debit to one or more liability accounts and credit to an asset account.
• debit to one or more expense accounts and credit to one or more liability accounts.

A

debit to one or more liability accounts and credit to an asset account.

The entry to record a deposit of federal income taxes withheld and social security and Medicare taxes owed would include a debit to Social Security Tax Payable, a debit to Medicare Tax Payable, a debit to Employee Income Tax Payable, and a credit to Cash. As such, this entry includes debits to various liability accounts (Social Security Tax Payable, Medicare Tax Payable, and Employee Income Tax Payable) and a credit to an asset account (Cash).

134
Q

Which of the following forms is not filed on an annual basis?

Multiple Choice
•	Form W-2
•	Form W-3
•	Form 940
•	Form 941
A

Form 941

Form 941 is filed on a quarterly basis to provide the Internal Revenue Service with information about employee earnings, the tax liability for each month in the quarter, and the deposits made.

135
Q

Which of the following taxes is both reported on Form 941 and solely withheld from employee earnings (therefore not paid by the employer)?

Multiple Choice
•	Social security tax
•	Federal income tax
•	Medicare tax
•	Federal unemployment tax
A

Federal income tax

Form 941 reports federal income tax, social security tax, and Medicare tax. Of these taxes, only federal income tax is solely withheld from employee earnings and not paid by the employer, as both social security tax and Medicare tax are matched by the employer. Federal unemployment tax is neither reported on Form 941 nor withheld from employee earnings.

136
Q

Which of the following is not a destination where an employer might send Form W-2?

Multiple Choice
•	the Social Security Administration
•	the workers’ compensation insurance provider
•	the employee
•	the state tax department
A

the workers’ compensation insurance provider

Multiple copies of Form W-2 are prepared for each employee so that they may be provided to the Social Security Administration, the state tax department (if necessary), and the employee. There is no requirement that individual Forms W-2 be sent to the worker’s compensation insurance provider.

137
Q

If an employer does not deduct enough taxes from an employee’s earnings, the business pays the difference when filing Form 941. This deficiency is then reported within which account in the journal?

Multiple Choice
•	Payroll Taxes Expense
•	Social Security Tax Payable
•	Employee Income Tax Payable
•	Workers’ Compensation Insurance Expense
A

Payroll Taxes Expense

If an employer does not deduct enough taxes from an employee’s earnings, and therefore must pay the difference when filing Form 941, it has incurred an additional payroll tax expense. Therefore, the journal entry that is recorded when payment is made includes a debit to increase the balance within the Payroll Taxes Expense account.

138
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The federal government allows a credit, or reduction, in the federal unemployment tax for amounts charged by the state for unemployment taxes.
• The normal federal unemployment tax rate of 0.6% (or 6.0% less the state unemployment tax credit of 5.4%) changes if favorable experience ratings change the state unemployment tax rate.
• The earnings limits for the federal and the state unemployment tax are usually the same, $7,000.
• Under the experience rating system, the state tax rate may be reduced to less than 1 percent for businesses that provide steady employment. In contrast, some states levy penalty rates as high as 10 percent for employers with poor records of providing steady employment.

A

The normal federal unemployment tax rate of 0.6% (or 6.0% less the state unemployment tax credit of 5.4%) changes if favorable experience ratings change the state unemployment tax rate.

The federal unemployment tax rate is 6.0 percent less a state unemployment tax credit of 5.4 percent; thus the federal tax rate is reduced to 0.6 percent (6.0% - 5.4%). The reduction of state unemployment taxes because of favorable experience ratings does not affect the credit allowable against the federal tax.

139
Q

All of the following are internal control procedures that are recommended to protect payroll operations except:

Multiple Choice
• make voluntary deductions from employee earnings based only on a signed authorization from the employee.
• keep payroll records in locked files.
• retain all Forms W-4.
• assign new employees to work in payroll operations.

A

assign new employees to work in payroll operations.

To maintain proper internal control, employers should assign only highly responsible, well-trained employees to work in payroll operations.

140
Q

What account is debited when an estimated workers’ compensation insurance payment is made by an employer at the beginning of the year?

Multiple Choice
• Cash
• Workers’ Compensation Insurance Expense
• Prepaid Workers’ Compensation Insurance
• Workers’ Compensation Insurance Payable

A

The estimated payment for worker’s compensation insurance that is made at the beginning of the year is a prepayment for the insurance coverage that will be received during the upcoming year. Therefore, when this payment is made an asset account, Prepaid Workers’ Compensation Insurance, is debited to increase the balance within the account.

141
Q

Assuming that tax is owed when filing the form, what is the due date for Form 941?

Multiple Choice
• the last day of the month following the end of each calendar quarter
• ten days after the end of each calendar quarter
• five days after the end of each calendar quarter
• the last day of the next calendar quarter

A

the last day of the month following the end of each calendar quarter

The due date for Form 941 (when being filed with a payment) is the last day of the month following the end of each calendar quarter. Note that, if the taxes for the quarter were deposited when due, the due date is extended by ten days.

142
Q

The entry to place the ending inventory on the books would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Merchandise Inventory account and a credit to the Income Summary account.
• debit to the Income Summary account and a credit to the Merchandise Inventory account.
• debit to the Merchandise Inventory account and a credit to the Cost of Goods Sold account.
• None of these are correct.

A

debit to the Merchandise Inventory account and a credit to the Income Summary account.

When placing the ending inventory on the books the Merchandise Inventory account is increased via a debit, and the Income Summary account is used as the offsetting credit.

143
Q

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is:

Multiple Choice
• deducted from Sales in the Revenue section of the income statement.
• listed in the Liabilities section of the balance sheet.
• subtracted from Accounts Receivable in the Assets section of the balance sheet.
• listed in the Operating Expenses section of the income statement.

A

subtracted from Accounts Receivable in the Assets section of the balance sheet.

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is a contra-asset account that is subtracted from Accounts Receivable to arrive at Net Accounts Receivable. This calculation is presented within the asset section of the Balance Sheet.

144
Q

Accrued expenses are:

Multiple Choice
• used in the current period but are not yet paid and are not yet recorded in the accounting records.
• paid for, recorded, and used in one period.
• paid for and recorded in one period but not fully used until a later period.
• budgeted but not paid for or used during the period.

A

used in the current period but are not yet paid and are not yet recorded in the accounting records.

Accrued expenses are those expenses, such as salaries, payroll taxes, and interest on notes payable, that are used or incurred in one period, but which are not yet recorded and not paid until a subsequent period.

145
Q

On July 1, 20X1, a firm purchased equipment for $9,300. Depreciation expense for the year ended December 31, 20X1, given the straight-line method, a 6-year useful life, and a salvage value of $300, is:

Multiple Choice
•	$750.
•	$775.
•	$1,500.
•	$1,550.
A

$750.

Depreciation expense for the six months of the year during which the company held the asset is calculated as follows:
($9,300 cost − $300 salvage value) / 6-year useful life = $1,500 annual depreciation expense
$1,500 annual depreciation expense / 12 months = $125 monthly depreciation expense
$125 monthly depreciation expense × 6 months = $750 current year depreciation expense

146
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the accrual basis of accounting is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• Revenue is recognized when earned, while expenses are recognized when cash is paid
• Revenue is recognized when earned, while expenses are recognized when incurred
• Revenue is recognized when cash is received, while expenses are recognized when cash is paid
• Revenue is recognized when cash is received, while expenses are recognized when incurred

A

Revenue is recognized when earned, while expenses are recognized when incurred

The accrual basis of accounting requires that revenues and expenses are recognized when they are earned and incurred respectively. This recognition is not dependent on whether cash has been paid.

147
Q

The adjusting entry to record depreciation expense for a recently-purchased piece of equipment would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Depreciation Expense - Equipment account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.
• debit to the Accumulated Depreciation - Equipment account and a credit to the Depreciation Expense – Equipment account.
• debit to the Depreciation Expense - Equipment account and a credit to the Accumulated Depreciation – Equipment account.
• debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account and a credit to the Depreciation Expense – Equipment account.

A

debit to the Depreciation Expense - Equipment account and a credit to the Accumulated Depreciation – Equipment account.

When recording depreciation expense the adjusting journal entry would increase the Depreciation Expense – Equipment account via a debit and would increase the Accumulated Depreciation – Equipment account via a credit.

148
Q

On May 1, 20X1, a firm paid $3,000 in advance for one year of office rent. The rent expense incurred during the year as of December 31, 20X1 is:

Multiple Choice
•	$250.
•	$1,000
•	$2,000.
•	$3,000.
A

$2,000.

Monthly rent expense is calculated as: $3,000 annual rent expense / 12 months = $250 monthly rent expense
As this firm used the facility for eight months during the year (May through December), the rent expense incurred for the year is calculated as: $250 monthly rent expense × 8 months = $2,000 current year rent expense

149
Q

On October 1, 20X1, Fairbanks Company accepted from a customer a four-month, 15 percent note for $1,000. As of December 31, 20X1, the adjusting entry to record the accrued interest on the note receivable would include a debit to Interest Receivable for:

Multiple Choice
•	$37.50.
•	$333.33.
•	$1,000.
•	$1,250.
A

$37.50.

Interest Receivable within the adjusting entry would be calculated as follows:
$1,000 notes receivable × 15% interest rate = $150 annual interest
$150 annual interest / 12 months = $12.50 monthly interest
$12.50 monthly interest × 3 months = $37.50 interest receivable

150
Q

A publishing company publishes a monthly magazine and receives all subscription payments from customers in advance. At the end of the year, the Unearned Subscription Income account had a balance of $150,000. During the year, $100,000 of magazines were delivered and income was earned. After the adjusting entry to recognize income is recorded, the Unearned Subscription Income account will have a:

Multiple Choice
•	debit balance of $50,000.
•	credit balance of $50,000.
•	debit balance of $100,000.
•	credit balance of $250,000.
A

credit balance of $50,000.

Unearned subscription revenue is a liability account and therefore has a normal credit balance. When the adjusting entry is recorded to account for the $100,000 of revenue earned during the year, the unearned subscription revenue account will be reduced via a debit. When the beginning credit balance of $150,000 is combined with the $100,000 debit in the adjusting entry the ending balance of unearned subscription revenue is a credit balance of $50,000 ($150,000 − $100,000).

151
Q

Within which of the following columns of the worksheet would no balance be displayed for the Merchandise Inventory account?

Multiple Choice
•	Trial Balance Debit column
•	Adjustments Debit column
•	Adjusted Trial Balance Debit column
•	Income Statement Debit column
A

Income Statement Debit column

Merchandise inventory is an asset account, which therefore appears on the Balance Sheet. It is not included on the Income Statement, and therefore no balance would be displayed for Merchandise Inventory on the worksheet in the Income Statement Debit column.

152
Q
When a firm experiences a net loss, within how many columns of the worksheet will the net loss be displayed?
Multiple Choice
•	1
•	2
•	3
•	4
A

2

Within the worksheet a net loss can be calculated either by subtracting the total of the Income Statement Credit column from the total of the Income Statement Debit column, or by subtracting the total of the Balance Sheet Debit column from the total of the Balance Sheet Credit column. Once the net loss has been determined it is then entered both within the Income Statement Credit column and the Balance Sheet debit column. As such, it appears within two locations on the worksheet.

153
Q

The adjusting entry for which of the following items would include the Income Summary account?

Multiple Choice
•	uncollectible accounts
•	accrued interest
•	merchandise inventory
•	unearned income
A

merchandise inventory

The two-step process for adjusting Merchandise Inventory at the end of the period involves both the Merchandise Inventory account and the Income Summary account within each of the two necessary journal entries. The first journal entry (which removes the beginning inventory balance from the books) includes a debit to Income Summary and a credit to Merchandise Inventory. The second journal entry (which places the ending inventory balance onto the books) includes a debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to Income Summary.

154
Q

Gross profit on net sales is calculated by subtracting:

Multiple Choice
• sales returns and allowances from sales.
• cost of goods sold from net sales.
• ending inventory from the total merchandise available for sale.
• total expenses from sales.

A

cost of goods sold from net sales.

Gross profit on sales is calculated by subtracting cost of goods sold from net sales.

155
Q

The net income from operations is calculated as follows:

Multiple Choice

  • Beginning Merchandise Inventory plus Net Delivered Cost of Purchases minus Ending Merchandise Inventory.
  • Purchases plus freight in minus purchases returns and allowances minus purchases discounts.
  • Gross profit on sales minus total operating expenses.
  • Sales minus sales returns and allowances minus sales discounts.
A

Gross profit on sales minus total operating expenses.

Net income from operations is determined by subtracting total operating expenses from gross profit on sales. Keep in mind that if this calculation yields a negative result, then we refer to it as a net loss from operations.

156
Q

An income statement that lists all revenues in one section and all expenses in another section is known as a:

Multiple Choice
•	classified income statement.
•	multiple-step income statement.
•	single-step income statement.
•	categorized income statement.
A

single-step income statement.

A single step income statement lists all revenues in one section and all expenses in another section.
The term multiple-step (rather than single-step) income statement is sometimes used to describe a classified income statement, within which several subtotals are computed before net income is calculated.

157
Q

The beginning capital balance shown on a statement of owner’s equity is $72,000. Net income for the period is $21,000. The owner withdrew $4,000 cash from the business and made no additional investments during the period. The owner’s capital balance at the end of the period is:

Multiple Choice
•	$68,000.
•	$72,000.
•	$89,000.
•	$93,000.
A

$89,000.

Beginning capital balance of $72,000 plus net income of $21,000 less withdrawals of $4,000 equals an ending capital balance of $89,000.

158
Q

The balance of the owner’s drawing account is listed:

Multiple Choice
• in the Other Expenses section of the income statement.
• in the Current Assets section of the balance sheet.
• on the statement of owner’s equity.
• in the Operating Expenses section of the income statement.

A

on the statement of owner’s equity.

159
Q

Which of the following is a section within a classified balance sheet?

Multiple Choice
•	Operating Expenses
•	Cost of Goods Sold
•	Other Income
•	Long-Term Liabilities
A

Long-Term Liabilities

Long-Term Liabilities is a section within a classified balance sheet. Operating Expenses, Cost of Goods Sold, and Other Income are all sections within a multiple-step income statement.

160
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• All adjustments are shown on the worksheet.
• After the financial statements have been prepared, the adjustments are made a permanent part of the accounting records.
• Adjustments are recorded in the general journal as adjusting journal entries and are posted to the general ledger.
• All of the statements are correct.

A

All of the statements are correct.

All adjustments are shown on the worksheet. After the financial statements have been prepared, the adjustments are made a permanent part of the accounting records. Adjustments are recorded in the general journal as adjusting journal entries and are posted to the general ledger.

161
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the income summary account is inaccurate?

Multiple Choice
• When a firm experiences net income, the income summary account will be debited during the third step of the closing entry process.
• The Income Summary account has a debit balance within the postclosing trial balance.
• The income summary account is included in three of the four closing entries.
• Prior to the recording of the closing entries the income summary account often contains a balance.

A

The Income Summary account has a debit balance within the postclosing trial balance.

When a firm experiences net income the income summary account will have a credit balance, and therefore must be debited to be closed in the third step of the closing process. The income summary account is both credited within the first step of the closing process and debited within the second step of the closing process, therefore it is a component of three of the four closing entries. Prior to the closing process the income summary account is used within the adjusting journal entries for merchandise inventory. As a result, the income summary account often has a balance prior to the recording of the closing entries. However, the income summary account is closed during the closing entry process and therefore does not appear within the postclosing trial balance.

162
Q

The current ratio is calculated by:
Multiple Choice
• dividing gross profit by net sales.
• dividing net sales by gross profit.
• dividing current liabilities by current assets.
• dividing current assets by current liabilities.

A

dividing current assets by current liabilities.

163
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• Reversing entries are made to reverse the effect of certain adjustments.
• Reversing entries provide a way to guard against oversights, eliminate the review of accounting records, and simplify the entry made in the new period.
• A reversing entry is the exact opposite (the reverse) of the adjustment.
• After the reversing entry is posted for the adjustment made to recognize the salaries expense at the end of the accounting period, the Salaries Expense account will have a zero balance and the Salaries Payable account will have a credit balance.

A

After the reversing entry is posted for the adjustment made to recognize the salaries expense at the end of the accounting period, the Salaries Expense account will have a zero balance and the Salaries Payable account will have a credit balance.

The adjustment for accrued salaries expense at the end of the period includes a debit to the Salaries Expense account and a credit to the Salaries Payable account. The reversing entry at the beginning of the next accounting period will be just the opposite; a debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Salaries Expense. As a result, after the reversing entry is posted for the adjustment made to recognize the salaries expense at the end of the accounting period, the Salaries Payable account will have a zero balance (rather than a credit balance) and the Salaries Expense account will have a credit balance (rather than a zero balance). This is unusual because the normal balance of an expense account is a debit.

164
Q

How is the net delivered cost of purchases calculated?

Multiple Choice
• Merchandise available for sale minus ending merchandise inventory
• Purchases plus freight in minus purchases returns and allowances minus purchases discounts
• Net sales minus cost of goods sold
• Gross profit on sales minus total operating expenses

A

Purchases plus freight in minus purchases returns and allowances minus purchases discounts

Net delivered cost of purchases is calculated as purchases plus freight in minus purchases returns and allowances minus purchases discounts.

165
Q

In the closing entry process, the owner’s drawing account is closed in:

Multiple Choice
•	Step 1
•	Step 2
•	Step 3
•	Step 4
A

Step 4

The owner’s drawing account, which has a normal debit balance, is closed within the fourth step of the closing process. Within this journal entry the owner’s capital account is debited and the owner’s drawing account is credited.

166
Q

If current assets are $72,000, net sales are $216,000, and current liabilities are $36,000, what is the current ratio?

Multiple Choice
•	0.5 to 1
•	2 to 1
•	3 to 1
•	6 to 1
A

2 to 1

$72,000 current assets / $36,000 current liabilities = 2 to 1 current ratio

167
Q

If the accounts receivable balance on 1/1/20X1 is $26,000, the accounts receivable balance on 12/31/20X1 is $34,000, net credit sales are $270,000, and gross profit is $120,000, what is the accounts receivable turnover for 20X1?

Multiple Choice
•	3.5 times
•	4.0 times
•	7.9 times
•	9.0 times
A

9.0 times

$270,000 net credit sales / (($26,000 beginning accounts receivable + $34,000 ending accounts receivable) / 2) = 9.0 times

168
Q

If the inventory balance on 1/1/20X1 is $49,000, the inventory balance on 12/31/20X1 is $41,000, the net sales are $810,000, and cost of goods sold is $315,000, what is the inventory turnover for 20X1?

Multiple Choice
•	7.0 times
•	7.7 times
•	18.0 times
•	19.8 times
A

7.0 times

$315,000 cost of goods sold / (($49,000 beginning inventory + $41,000 ending inventory) / 2) = 7.0 times

169
Q

Which of the following is not a step taken by the FASB in developing the conceptual framework statements?

Multiple Choice
• Identify users of financial reports and the uses made of the reports.
• Establish the form and content of financial statements.
• Set forth fundamental recognition criteria.
• Develop measurement standards for non-financial elements that do not appear in the financial statements.

A

Develop measurement standards for non-financial elements that do not appear in the financial statements.

The seven steps taken by the FASB are as follows: Define the goals and objectives of accounting; Identify users of financial reports and the uses made of the reports; Examine the qualitative characteristics that make accounting information useful; Identify and define the financial elements such as assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses, whose inclusion and classification make financial statements meaningful and useful; Establish the form and content of financial statements; Set forth fundamental recognition criteria; Develop measurement standards for financial elements that appear in the financial statements. Note that the final step relates to “financial elements that appear in the financial statements”, not “non-financial elements that do not appear in the financial statements.”

170
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Multiple Choice
• The Securities and Exchange Commission issues the Statements of Financial Accounting Concepts.
• Statements issued by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants are binding on the members of the Financial Accounting Standards Board.
• An act of law gave the Securities and Exchange Commission the authority to determine the form and content of accounting reports filed by companies under its jurisdiction.
• Generally Accepted Accounting Principles were established by an act of Congress.

A

An act of law gave the Securities and Exchange Commission the authority to determine the form and content of accounting reports filed by companies under its jurisdiction.

The Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) (rather than the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)) issues the Statements of Financial Accounting Concepts. Statements issued by the Financial Accounting Standards Board are binding on the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. Accounting principles in the United States are developed through a cooperative effort between the private sector and government.

171
Q

The Securities and Exchange Commission’s 2003 report to the Congress on “principles-based” accounting observed that the goal of objectives-oriented standards, dictated by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, is to arrive at:

Multiple Choice
• a reasonable consideration of the cost-benefit test.
• an internally-consistent and complete framework.
• an effective use of qualitative characteristics.
• full transparency.

A

an internally-consistent and complete framework.

Section 108 of the 2002 Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to “conduct a study on the adoption by the United States financial reporting system of a principles-based accounting system.” The FASB itself conducted a study and issued a report in October 2002. In July 2003, the SEC completed its study and made its report to Congress. The result is an intention for the FASB to issue “objectives-oriented standards” and to “address deficiencies in the conceptual framework.” The goal is to arrive at an “internally consistent” and “complete” framework.

172
Q

In its conceptual framework the FASB concluded that financial reporting rules should concentrate on providing information that is helpful to which of the following parties?

Multiple Choice
•	Regulatory agencies
•	Management
•	Potential investors
•	Tax authorities
A

Potential investors

In its conceptual framework project, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) concluded that financial reporting rules should concentrate on providing information that is helpful to current and potential investors and creditors in making investment and credit decisions. The focus is not on providing information to management, tax authorities, or regulatory agencies because they have access to specific information from the firm’s records not available to the public and often the information they need is not the same as that needed by investors and creditors.

173
Q

What is the definition of information with predictive value?

Multiple Choice
• Information that helps the statement user verify fulfillment or non-fulfillment of prior expectations or decisions.
• Information that is complete, neutral, and free from error
• Information that will help the statement user in making predictions or forecasts about the meaning and ultimate outcome of events giving rise to the information.
• Information that is presented in such a manner that it can be meaningfully compared with the same data for other companies

A

Information that will help the statement user in making predictions or forecasts about the meaning and ultimate outcome of events giving rise to the information.

Information with predictive value will help the statement user in making predictions or forecasts about the meaning and ultimate outcome of events giving rise to the information. Information with confirmatory value helps the statement user verify fulfillment or non-fulfillment of prior expectations or decisions. Information that is a faithful representation of business activities is complete, neutral, and free from error. Information that possesses comparability is presented in such a manner that it can be meaningfully compared with the same data for other companies.

174
Q

The Periodicity of Income Assumption:

Multiple Choice
• allows businesses to record property and equipment at their cost.
• allows companies to place a value on intangible assets, such as goodwill.
• allows companies to assume that business activities can be separated into discrete units of time.
• allows companies to assume that the business will continue to operate indefinitely.

A

allows companies to assume that business activities can be separated into discrete units of time.

While the final results of a business can be known only when the business ceases to operate, the Periodicity of Income Assumption enables the business to assume that activities can be separated into time periods and to assign revenues and expenses to those time periods.

175
Q

The assumption that permits preparers of the financial statements to record property and equipment as assets at their cost is the:

Multiple Choice
•	periodicity of income assumption.
•	going concern assumption.
•	monetary unit assumption.
•	separate entity assumption.
A

going concern assumption.

The going concern assumption permits businesses to record property and equipment as assets at their cost without having to be concerned about what they are worth in case of liquidation in the near future.

The periodicity of income assumption assumes that the activities of the business can be separated into time periods with revenues and expenses being assigned on a logical basis to those periods. There are two aspects to the monetary unit assumption. The first is the idea that expressing financial facts and events are meaningful only when they can be expressed in monetary terms. The second aspect of the monetary unit assumption is that the value of money is stable. The separate entity assumption assumes that the business is separate from its owners.

176
Q

Which of the following is not a basic principle that serves to guide the preparation of financial statements?

Multiple Choice
•	Historical cost basis principle
•	Matching principle
•	Full disclosure principle
•	Separate economic entity principle
A

Separate economic entity principle

Explanation
The four general principles that serve as guides to preparing financial statements are presented in the FASB’s basic concepts and are as follows: Historical cost basis principle, revenue recognition principle, matching principle, and full disclosure principle. The separate economic entity assumption is an underlying assumption that financial statement users should be able to assume was followed by the preparers of the statements.

177
Q

Which of the following statements describes the proper matching of revenue and expenses?

Multiple Choice
• Manufacturing costs are identified with specific products and are charged to cost of goods sold when the manufacturing process is complete.
• The cost of a building is recorded as an asset. Depreciation expense is recognized over the periods in which the asset is expected to help earn revenues for the business.
• Insurance premiums cover specific periods and are charged to expense when they are paid.
• General office salaries are recorded as assets when they are incurred because they benefit future periods.

A

The cost of a building is recorded as an asset. Depreciation expense is recognized over the periods in which the asset is expected to help earn revenues for the business.

The matching principle states that revenue must be matched against expired costs incurred in earning the revenue to properly measure income. Depreciation matches the cost of a long-term asset to the time periods when that asset is expected to help earn revenues for the business.

178
Q

Which of the following modifying constraints on the application of general accounting principles can lead to the widespread use of an accounting practice that has not been determined through an official pronouncement by the SEC and the FASB?

Multiple Choice
•	Materiality
•	Cost-Benefit Test
•	Conservatism
•	Industry Practice
A

Industry Practice

Historically, existing industry practices in certain industries have sometimes become acceptable as GAAP. Typically, this situation exists in an industry where there are unusual tax laws or regulatory requirements, an industry that has unusually high risks, or one that has activities or transactions to which it is difficult to apply GAAP.

179
Q

Which enhancing qualitative characteristic dictates that independent measures must obtain similar results?

Multiple Choice
•	Comparability
•	Timeliness
•	Verifiability 
•	Understandability
A

Verifiability

Verifiability is indicated when independent measures obtain similar results. Comparability means that the financial data is presented in such a manner that is can be meaningfully compared with the same data for other companies. Timeliness dictates that firms must disclose accounting information in a timely manner. Understandability means that users of accounting information must be able to comprehend the information within the context of the decisions that they are making.

180
Q

Which of the following general principles relates specifically to the recording of expenses?

Multiple Choice
•	Historical cost basis principle
•	Revenue recognition principle
•	Matching principle
•	Full disclosure principle
A

Matching principle

The matching principle dictates that to properly measure income, revenue must be matched against expired costs incurred in earning the revenue. This principle is used by accountants to determine when to charge expenses against associated revenues in a wide variety of circumstances.

181
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Multiple Choice
• The use of the direct charge-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts usually results in the balance in the Accounts Receivable account being overstated.
• The direct charge-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts is the method required by Federal income tax laws.
• The direct charge-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts reflects generally accepted accounting principles.
• The direct charge-off method is an application of the matching principle.

A

The direct charge-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts is the method required by Federal income tax laws.

182
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The allowance method involves anticipating losses from uncollectible accounts by recognizing an expense for these losses before the actual accounts are written off.
• The adjusting entry to record the estimated loss from uncollectible accounts includes a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.
• Losses from uncollectible accounts can be estimated by analyzing sales or accounts receivable.
• The balance of Uncollectible Accounts Expense account appears among the general expenses on the income statement.

A

The adjusting entry to record the estimated loss from uncollectible accounts includes a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.

The adjusting entry to record the estimated loss from uncollectible accounts includes a debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account (rather than the Accounts Receivable account).

183
Q

The adjusting entry to record estimated losses from uncollectible accounts consists of a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable.
• debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.
• debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.
• debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

A

debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

The adjusting entry to record the estimated loss from uncollectible accounts includes a debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

184
Q

A firm reported sales of $200,000 during the year and has a balance of $15,000 in its Accounts Receivable account at year-end. Prior to adjustment, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $220. The firm estimated its losses from uncollectible accounts to be 1% of sales. The entry to record the estimated losses from uncollectible accounts will include a credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for:

Multiple Choice
•	$1,700.
•	$1,850.
•	$2,000. 
•	$2,300.
A

$2,000.

Recall that the expense charge is the focal point when sales is used as the basis for the estimate. The balance in the allowance account before the adjustment is ignored in determining how much will be charged to expense and credited to the allowance account. This is why the method is referred to as an “income statement approach.” As such, the adjusting entry to record the estimated loss from uncollectible accounts includes a debit to the Uncollectible Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account for $2,000 (or $200,000 x .01).

185
Q

A company uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts receivable. At year end, the balance in accounts receivable is $580,000 and the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts is a debit balance of $400. An aging analysis of accounts receivable estimates uncollectible accounts to be $8,100. The adjustment to record uncollectible accounts expense will include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to uncollectible accounts expense for $400.
• debit to uncollectible accounts expense for $7,700.
• debit to uncollectible accounts expense for $8,100.
• debit to uncollectible accounts expense for $8,500.

A

debit to uncollectible accounts expense for $8,500.

When an aging of accounts receivable is used to estimate uncollectible accounts, the adjustment is used to bring the credit balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts to the estimated uncollectible accounts ($8,500 cr adjustment − $400 dr beginning balance = $8,100 cr adjusted balance).

186
Q

A company uses the allowance method. The balance in the allowance account is a credit of $12,100. A $1,200 account is deemed to be uncollectible and is written off. After the transaction, the balance in the allowance account is a:

Multiple Choice
•	debit balance of $10,900.
•	credit balance of $10,900. 
•	debit balance of $13,300.
•	credit balance of $13,300.
A

credit balance of $10,900.

The entry to record the write off of a customer’s account would include a debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account. The $1,200 debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account reduces that credit balance to $10,900 ($12,100 cr − $1,200 dr = $10,900 cr).

187
Q

When the allowance method is used, the entry to record the collection of an account that has been previously written off would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.
• debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.
• debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.
• debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

A

debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

The entry to record the collection of an account that has been previously written off would include a debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account. An entry in the cash receipts journal would then be made in the usual way to record the collection; that entry would include a debit to the Cash account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.

188
Q

account would include:

Multiple Choice
• a credit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account to reduce its balance.
• a debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account to reduce its balance.
• a credit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account to increase its balance.
• a debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account to increase its balance.

A

a debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account to increase its balance.

When the direct charge-off method is used, the entry to record the write off of a customer’s account would include a debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account. This entry serves to increase the balance of the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and decrease the balance of the Accounts Receivable account.

189
Q

When the direct charge-off method is used and payment is received in a period subsequent to that in which an account was charged off, the entry would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account.
• debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Uncollectible Accounts Recovered account.
• debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account and a credit to the Accounts Receivable account.
• debit to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and a credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

A

debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Uncollectible Accounts Recovered account.

When the direct charge-off method is used and payment is received in a period subsequent to that in which an account was charged off, the entry would include a debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Uncollectible Accounts Recovered account.
If the amount recovered in a period subsequent to the write-off is credited to the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account, the expense for the period of recovery will be understated.

190
Q

Common internal controls for accounts receivable include all the following except:

Multiple Choice
• sending invoices and monthly statements.
• ensuring that the same employee who authorizes credit sales mails out the associated bills or statements.
• trying to collect past due accounts even if they have been written off.
• authorizing charge-off of accounts.

A

ensuring that the same employee who authorizes credit sales mails out the associated bills or statements.

Common internal controls for accounts receivable involve separating a variety of duties including: authorizing credit sales, recording the accounts receivable transactions, preparing bills or statements for customers, mailing the bills or statements, and processing payments received from customers. No single employee should perform more than one of these duties.

191
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• It appears as an expense account within the Income Statement.
• It appears as a contra account within the asset section of the Balance Sheet.
• It appears as a liability account within the Balance Sheet.
• It appears as a revenue account within the Income Statement.

A

It appears as a contra account within the asset section of the Balance Sheet.

The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account is a contra account because it is subtracted from as asset account (Accounts Receivable) on the balance sheet. When Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is subtracted from Accounts Receivable the result is referred to as the net realizable value of accounts receivable.

192
Q

For a firm that uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, there are two necessary journal entries when collecting an account that has been previously written off. Which account appears within both of these journal entries?

Multiple Choice
•	Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
•	Cash
•	Accounts Receivable 
•	Uncollectible Accounts Expense
A

Accounts Receivable

When collecting an account that has been previously written off, for a firm using the allowance method, the first journal entry reinstates the accounts receivable by debiting accounts receivable and crediting allowance for doubtful accounts. The second journal entry records the receipt of cash by debiting cash and crediting accounts receivable. Both of these entries include the accounts receivable account.

193
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
Multiple Choice

  • To be considered a negotiable instrument, a promissory note must specify an interest rate.
  • The amount shown on a note is called the face value.
  • A company that issued a 6-month note payable would report its face value on the balance sheet as a long-term liability.
  • All of the statements are correct.
A

The amount shown on a note is called the face value.

The amount shown on a note is called the face value.
The Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) requirements specify that to be negotiable an instrument must be in writing and must be signed by the maker or drawer, contain an unconditional promise or order to pay a definite amount of money, be payable either on demand or at a future time that is fixed or that can be determined, be payable to the order of a specific person or to the bearer, and clearly name or identify the drawee if addressed to a drawee. A promissory note does not need to specify an interest rate.
Since it is due within one year of the balance sheet date, a company that issued a 6-month note payable would report its face value on the balance sheet as a current (rather than long-term) liability.

194
Q
How much interest will accrue on a $24,000 face value, 60-day note that bears interest at 8 percent a year? 
Multiple Choice
•	$160.
•	$320. 
•	$960.
•	$1,920.
A

$320.

Note that a 360-day period, called a banker’s year, is used for simplicity to calculate interest on a note. The amount of interest that will accrue on a $24,000 face value, 60-day note that bears interest at 8 percent a year is $320 (or $24,000 x 0.08 x 60/360).

195
Q

The practice of deducting the interest in advance from the principal on a note payable is called:

Multiple Choice
•	collecting a note.
•	issuing a note.
•	dishonoring a note.
•	discounting a note.
A

discounting a note.

The practice of deducting the interest in advance from the principal on a note payable is called discounting a note. A dishonored note is one that is not paid at maturity, and for which there are no arrangements for renewal. Issuance of a note occurs when the maker of a note provides a written promise to pay (in the form of a note payable) to the creditor. Collecting a note takes place when cash is paid by the debtor to the creditor to satisfy the note payable.

196
Q

A 60-day note dated April 19, would be due on June:

Multiple Choice
•	17.
•	18. 
•	19.
•	20.
A

The steps for determining the due date are as follows. Step 1: Determine the number of days remaining in the month in which the note is issued. Do not count the issue date. April has 30 days; as such, there are 11 days (or the number of days in the month, 30, minus the issue date, 19) left in April. Step 2: Determine the number of days remaining after the first month. To do this, first determine that there are 31 days in May. Then determine the days calculated in Step 1 (11) plus the days in the subsequent month (31) and subtract the total (42) from the term of the note (60). There are 18 days (or the term of the note, 60, minus 42, the number of days calculated in Step 2) remaining after the first month. Step 3: Since there are only 18 days remaining, the due date is 18 days into the next month (June). As such, since this is a 60-day note, it would be due on June 18.

197
Q

A one-month note dated November 2, would be due on December:

Multiple Choice
•	1.
•	2. 
•	3.
•	4.
A

2.

Sometimes the term of a note is described in months instead of days. In this case the maturity date is determined by counting ahead to the same date of the following month or months. As such, a one-month note dated November 2 would be due on December 2.

198
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The entry to record the issuance of a promissory note includes a credit to Interest Payable for the amount of interest that will accrue on the note until it is paid at maturity.
• The Notes Payable account is always debited or credited for the face value of a note.
• The entry to record the issuance of a promissory note includes a credit to the Notes Payable account.
• All of the statements are correct.

A

The entry to record the issuance of a promissory note includes a credit to Interest Payable for the amount of interest that will accrue on the note until it is paid at maturity.

The entry to record the issuance of a promissory note does not include any provision for interest until that interest is accrued.

199
Q

On December 15, Global Company signed a $12,000, 10 percent, 120-day note payable with the bank. The note was issued at a discount. The entry to record this transaction would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Cash account for $12,000 and credit to the Notes Payable—Bank for $12,000.
• debit to the Cash account for $12,000, a debit to the Interest Payable account for $400, and a credit to the Notes Payable—Bank for $12,400.
• debit to the Cash account for $11,600, a debit to the Interest Expense account for $400, and a credit to the Notes Payable—Bank for $12,000.
• debit to the Cash account for $12,000, a debit to the Interest Expense account for $400, and a credit to the Notes Payable—Bank for $12,400.

A

debit to the Cash account for $11,600, a debit to the Interest Expense account for $400, and a credit to the Notes Payable—Bank for $12,000.

The bank deducted the $400 ($12,000 face value × 0.12 interest rate × 120/360 period of time) interest from the face amount of the note, and the company received $11,600 ($12,000 − $400). The entry to record this transaction would include a debit to the Cash account for $11,600, a debit to the Interest Expense account for $400, and a credit to the Notes Payable—Bank for $12,000.

200
Q
The maturity value of a 90-day note for $4,000 that bears interest at 10 percent a year is:
Multiple Choice
•	$3,900.
•	$4,000.
•	$4,100. 
•	$4,400.
A

$4,100.

The maturity value equals the principal, $4,000, plus the accrued interest of $100 ($4,000 face value × 0.10 interest rate × 90/360 period of time).

201
Q

On July 31, Abbitt Inc. needed cash to pay some bills. Kim Abbitt decided to discount a 60-day, noninterest-bearing note receivable for $100,000 that the business had received from Peter Houghton on July 1. The maturity date of the note is August 30. On July 31, Abbitt discounts the note at First National Bank. The bank’s discount rate is 12 percent. The proceeds received from the bank total:

Multiple Choice
•	$1,000.
•	$99,000.
•	$100,000.
•	$101,000.
A

$99,000.

Step 1 – Determine the maturity value of the note. Since the note from Houghton is noninterest-bearing, its maturity value and face amount are the same, $100,000.
Step 2 – Calculate the number of days in the discount period. The discount period is the number of days from the discount date to the maturity date. There are zero days remaining in July, therefore the discount period is 30 days (the number of days in August until the maturity date of August 30).
Step 3 – Compute the discount charged by the bank. The discount formula is similar to the interest formula. The time is the number of days in the discount period. The discount is $1,000 ($100,000 maturity value × 0.12 discount rate × 30/360 discount period).
Step 4 – Calculate the proceeds, which is the amount received from the bank. The proceeds are $99,000 ($100,000 maturity value - $1,000 discount).

202
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?
Multiple Choice
• A draft is a written order that requires one party (a person or business) to pay a stated sum of money to another party.
• A bank draft is a check written by a bank that orders another bank to pay the stated amount to a specific party.
• A cashier’s check is a draft on the issuing bank’s own funds. Cashier’s checks are sometimes used to pay bills.
• A commercial draft is payable on presentation.

A

A commercial draft is payable on presentation.

A commercial draft is a note issued by one party that orders another party to pay a specified amount on a specified date. A sight draft is a commercial draft that is payable on presentation.

203
Q

Which of the following is not an internal control for notes payable, notes receivable and drafts?
Multiple Choice
• Record all notes receivable in the accounting records.
• Near the maturity date, inform the issuer of the approaching due date and the amount owed.
• Ensure that a wide variety of employees are authorized to sign notes for the firm, so that an authorized individual can be located quickly when necessary.
• Store notes receivable securely in a safe or fireproof vault to which access is limited.

A

Ensure that a wide variety of employees are authorized to sign notes for the firm, so that an authorized individual can be located quickly when necessary.

The number of people who can sign notes for the firm should be limited in order to maintain strong internal controls for notes payable, notes receivable, and drafts.

204
Q

When recording the payment of a discounted note payable, which of the following is not accurate?

Multiple Choice
• Interest Expense is debited within the journal entry.
• Notes-Payable-Bank is debited within the journal entry.
• Cash is credited for the face value of the note within the journal entry.
• Total debits within the journal entry equal the face value of the note.

A

Interest Expense is debited within the journal entry.

The journal entry to record the payment of a discounted note payable includes a debit to Notes Payable – Bank and a credit to Cash, both for the face value of the note. Interest Expense is not a component of the journal entry, as interest expense was paid and recorded when the note was issued.

205
Q

A firm that sells a single product had a beginning inventory of 7,000 units with a total cost of $42,000. Early in the year, 12,000 units were purchased at $8 each. Using FIFO, what is the value of the ending inventory of 3,000 units?

Multiple Choice
•	$18,000.
•	$21,000.
•	$24,000. 
•	$96,000.
A

$24,000.

Using the FIFO method of inventory valuation, the value of the ending inventory is $24,000 (or 3,000 units × $8 per unit).

206
Q

A firm that sells a single product had a beginning inventory of 1,000 units with a total cost of $11,000. Early in the year, 4,000 units were purchased at $14 each. Using LIFO, what is the value of the ending inventory of 600 units?

Multiple Choice
•	$6,600. 
•	$7,500.
•	$8,400.
•	$11,000.
A

$6,600.

Using the LIFO method of inventory valuation, the value of the ending inventory is $6,600 (or 600 units × $11 per unit).

207
Q

The specific identification method of inventory valuation is based on the:

Multiple Choice
• actual cost of each item of merchandise.
• average cost of each item of merchandise.
• earliest cost of each item of merchandise.
• latest cost of each item of merchandise.

A

actual cost of each item of merchandise.

The specific identification method of inventory valuation is based on the actual cost of each item of merchandise.

208
Q

The weighted average cost of an inventory item is calculated by dividing the:

Multiple Choice
• sum of the unit cost on the purchase invoices by the number of units purchased.
• cost of goods available for sale by the number of units on the ending inventory.
• cost of goods available for sale by the number of units available during the period.
• cost of goods sold by the number of units available during the period.

A

cost of goods available for sale by the number of units available during the period.

The weighted average cost of an inventory item is calculated by dividing the cost of goods available for sale by the number of units available during the period.

209
Q

Which of the following inventory methods focuses on the balance sheet?

Multiple Choice
•	specific identification
•	average cost
•	FIFO 
•	LIFO
A

FIFO

FIFO focuses on the balance sheet, as the most current costs are in ending inventory.

210
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the LIFO method of inventory valuation is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• It is generally accepted in all countries.
• When prices are falling, it results in higher net income than does the FIFO method.
• When prices are rising, it results in lower cost of goods sold than does the FIFO method.
• It is considered the least conservative costing method in a period of rising prices.

A

When prices are falling, it results in higher net income than does the FIFO method.

When prices are falling, cost of goods sold is lower and net income is higher under LIFO. When prices are rising, cost of goods sold is highest and net income is lowest under LIFO. LIFO is not generally accepted in a number of countries, and it is considered the most conservative costing method in a period of rising prices.

211
Q

The modifying convention of conservatism requires that inventory be presented on the balance sheet at:

Multiple Choice
•	cost.
•	net realizable value.
•	either cost or net realizable value, whichever is lower. 
•	average cost during the period.
A

either cost or net realizable value, whichever is lower.

According to the historical cost principle, assets are reported on the balance sheet at their historical cost. The conservatism convention, however, states that assets should not be overstated. Net realizable value is the estimated selling price of an inventory item in the ordinary course of business less reasonably predictable costs of completion, disposal, and transportation. To determine net realizable value, businesses contact their sellers and suppliers, read trade publications, or review recent selling trends. If the net realizable value is lower than the original cost, the business uses the lower of cost or net realizable value. That is, inventory is reported at its original cost or its net realizable value, whichever is lower.

212
Q

The cost of goods sold to net sales ratio is calculated as:

Multiple Choice
• cost of goods sold / gross profit on sales
• net sales / cost of goods sold
• cost of goods sold / net sales
• gross profit on sales / cost of goods sold

A

cost of goods sold / net sales

The cost of goods sold to net sales ratio, which is required when using the gross profit method, is calculated as cost of goods sold / net sales.

213
Q

The accountant for a company whose inventory was destroyed by fire determined from undamaged records that the cost of goods available for sale was $200,000 and the net sales were $160,000 up to the date of the fire. The accountant also determined that the company’s normal gross profit rate is 40 percent of net sales. From this data, the accountant estimated the cost of the inventory destroyed by the fire to be:

Multiple Choice
•	$120,000.
•	$104,000. 
•	$64,000.
•	$40,000.
A

$104,000.

Step 1: Estimate the cost of goods sold. Sales were $160,000 up to the date of the fire. Using the 60% (or 100% − 40%) ratio for cost of goods sold to net sales, the estimated cost of goods sold is $96,000 ($160,000 × 0.60).
Step 2: Determine the cost of goods available for sale. Cost of goods available for sale was $200,000 (given).
Step 3: Compute the ending (destroyed) inventory. Subtract the estimated cost of goods sold from the cost of goods available for sale. Cost of goods available for sale (Step 2) of $200,000 – Estimated cost of goods sold (Step 1) of $96,000 = Estimated cost of ending inventory of $104,000.

214
Q

The merchandise available for sale cost a company $90,000 and was marked to sell at a retail price of $125,000. Sales during the period totaled $80,000. If the retail method is used, the estimated cost of the ending inventory is:

Multiple Choice
•	$12,600.
•	$22,400.
•	$32,400. 
•	$45,000.
A

$32,400.

Steps 1 and 2 have already been completed.
Step 3: Compute merchandise available for sale at cost of $90,000 (given) and at retail of $125,000 (given).
Step 4: Determine net sales at retail of $80,000 (given).
Step 5: Subtract retail sales from the retail merchandise available for sale. The difference is the ending inventory at retail of $45,000 (or $125,000 − $80,000).
Step 6: Compute the cost ratio. Merchandise Available for Sale at Cost of $90,000 divided by Merchandise Available for Sale at Retail of $125,000 = 0.72
Step 7: Multiply the ending inventory at retail by the cost ratio. Ending inventory at retail of $45,000 × 0.72 = ending inventory cost of $32,400.

215
Q

Which of the following is not a typical internal control over inventory?

Multiple Choice
• Limit access to inventory of small valuable items.
• Take a physical inventory count at least annually to verify that the goods on hand match the amounts in the accounting records.
• Ensure that only employees of the company observe the physical inventory count.
• Use spot checks to verify the counting techniques and the items’ costs.

A

Ensure that only employees of the company observe the physical inventory count

A typical internal control over inventory is to have an independent auditor observe the physical inventory count.

216
Q

Which of the following represents the difference between the cost and the initial retail price of merchandise?

Multiple Choice
•	Markon 
•	markup
•	markdown
•	markout
A

Markon

217
Q

A company purchased equipment for $22,000 cash. In addition, the company paid $900 to have the equipment delivered and $300 to have it installed. The cost of this asset for financial accounting purposes is:

Multiple Choice
•	$21,700.
•	$22,000.
•	$22,900.
•	$23,200
A

$23,200

The cost of this asset for financial accounting purposes is $23,200 ($22,000 purchase price + $900 delivery + $300 installation).

218
Q

Which of the following depreciation methods may be used for income tax purposes?

Multiple Choice
•	MACRS 
•	straight-line method
•	sum-of-the-years'-digits method
•	declining-balance method
A

MACRS

Federal income tax rules replace the depreciation rules of generally accepted accounting principles with the Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS).

219
Q

A firm purchases an asset for $50,000 and estimates that it will have a useful life of five years and a salvage value of $5,000. Under the double-declining-balance method, the depreciation expense for the fifth year of the asset’s useful life is:

Multiple Choice
•	$1,480. 
•	$2,592.
•	$10,000.
•	$20,000.
A

$1,480.

Step 1. Calculate the straight-line rate as 100% divided by useful life of 5 years = 20%.
Step 2. Calculate the double-declining rate as the straight-line rate of 20% multiplied by 2 or 40%.
Step 3. Compute depreciation for the period by multiplying the book value by the double-declining rate. Repeat this step each year during the asset’s useful life until the year in which the net book value (NBV) would be less than salvage value.
NBV at beginning of year 1 of $50,000 (cost) × 40% = $20,000.
NBV at beginning of year 2 of $30,000 (or $50,000 − $20,000) × 40% = $12,000.
NBV at beginning of year 3 of $18,000 (or $50,000 − $20,000 − $12,000) × 40% = $7,200.
NBV at beginning of year 4 of $10,800 (or $50,000 − $20,000 − $12,000 − $7,200) × 40% = $4,320.
NBV at beginning of year 5 of $6,480 (or $50,000 − $20,000 − $12,000 − $7,200 − $4,320) × 40% = $2,592.
Step 4. In the final year of depreciation take only the amount of depreciation that will reduce the asset’s net book value to its salvage value. Depreciation for the fifth year is limited to $1,480 (or $6,480 − $5,000).

220
Q

A firm purchases an asset for $80,000 and estimates that it will have a useful life of seven years and a salvage value of $10,000. Under the straight-line method, the balance in the accumulated depreciation account, after the second full year of use, will be:

Multiple Choice
•	$10,000.
•	$11,429.
•	$20,000. 
•	$22,857.
A

$20,000.

Annual depreciation expense using the straight-line method is $10,000 (($80,000 cost − $10,000 salvage value) / 7-year useful life). Two years’ depreciation would be included in the balance in accumulated depreciation. ($10,000 × 2 = $20,000).

221
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The treatments of many items of revenue and expense for income tax purposes differ greatly from those required under generally accepted accounting principles.
• Some small businesses that do not have audits by certified public accountants may adopt some tax requirements as part of their financial accounting in order to avoid confusion and duplication of work.
• When using the double-declining-balance method to calculated depreciation, the half-year convention is applied.
• Taxpayers can use the units-of-production depreciation method instead of MACRS.

A

When using the double-declining-balance method to calculated depreciation, the half-year convention is applied.

The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) uses the half-year convention

222
Q

Equipment that cost $47,000 was sold for $12,000 cash. Accumulated depreciation on the asset was $38,000. The entry to record this transaction includes the recognition of:

Multiple Choice
•	a gain of $3,000. 
•	a loss of $3,000.
•	a loss of $9,000.
•	a gain of $9,000.
A

a gain of $3,000.

The gain equals the cash received from the sale of $12,000 minus the book value of the asset of $9,000 ($47,000 cost − $38,000 accumulated depreciation). The entry to record this transaction would include a debit to the Cash account for $12,000, a debit to the Accumulated Depreciation account for $38,000, a credit to the Gain on Sale of Equipment account for $3,000 and a credit to the Equipment account for $47,000.

223
Q

Assume that a business trades in an old cash register for a new one. Under the income tax method:

Multiple Choice
• a gain may be recognized, but a loss cannot be recorded.
• the cost of the new asset is recorded as the cash paid for the new asset.
• the asset account is debited for the difference between the original cost of the old asset and the fair market value of the new asset.
• the cost of the new asset is recorded as the book value of the old asset plus the cash amount paid or to be paid.

A

the cost of the new asset is recorded as the book value of the old asset plus the cash amount paid or to be paid.

The federal income tax rules for trade-in transactions are easier than those for financial accounting because neither gain nor loss is recognized for tax purposes. The steps in applying the tax rules are:
Step 1 – Remove the cost of the old asset.
Step 2 – Remove the accumulated depreciation for the old asset.
Step 3 – Record the cash payment.
Step 4 – Record the new asset at the sum of the book value of the old asset and the cash paid.

224
Q

The cost of an intangible asset (other than computer software) should be:

Multiple Choice
• immediately charged to expense if the cost was incurred to develop the intangible asset.
• immediately charged to expense whether the intangible asset was developed internally or purchased.
• recorded as an asset whose cost, like the cost of land, will not be allocated to expense.
• charged to expense over the life of the intangible asset.

A

immediately charged to expense if the cost was incurred to develop the intangible asset.

Intangible assets are assets that lack a physical substance. The major types of intangible assets are patents, copyrights, franchises, trademarks, brand names, organizational costs, computer software, and goodwill. There are two ways to acquire intangible assets: (1) produce or develop them or (2) purchase them. The general rule is that an intangible asset is recorded in the books of the firm only if it is purchased from another party. Costs to develop intangible assets internally (other than computer software) are expensed in the year incurred to the Research and Development Expense account.

225
Q

When intangibles that do not have estimable lives have been purchased:

Multiple Choice
• the cost of purchasing the intangible asset should be immediately charged to expense.
• the cost of purchasing the intangible asset should be amortized using the straight-line method.
• the cost of purchasing the intangible asset should be charged to expense over its useful life.
• an assessment must be made each year to estimate the value of the intangible.

A

an assessment must be made each year to estimate the value of the intangible.

When intangibles that do not have estimable lives have been purchased, an assessment must be made each year to estimate the value of the intangible. If the estimate is less than the existing book value, impairment must be recorded in the same way that impairment of property, plant, and equipment is recorded.

226
Q

How is depletion per unit calculated?

Multiple Choice
• actual units of the resource extracted / cost of natural resource
• cost of natural resource / actual units of the resource extracted
• estimated units of the resource / cost of natural resource
• cost of natural resource / estimated units of the resource

A

cost of natural resource / estimated units of the resource

227
Q

Which of the following is not a standard internal control procedure for fixed assets?

Multiple Choice
• Authorize and justify the purchase of a sample of long-lived assets.
• Assign and, if possible, engrave an identification number on each asset.
• Maintain an asset register listing all capital assets, their costs, acquisition dates, location, and any other useful information.
• Assign responsibility for safekeeping, maintaining, and operating each asset to a specific person.

A

Authorize and justify the purchase of a sample of long-lived assets.

Standard internal control procedures for fixed assets include authorizing and justifying the purchase of all long-lived assets, not only a sample of them.

228
Q

When disposing of an asset via a sale, what is the first step that should be taken to record the transaction?

Multiple Choice
• Record the proceeds.
• Remove the cost of the asset.
• Record depreciation to the date of disposition.
• Determine and record the gain or loss, if any.

A

Record depreciation to the date of disposition.

When disposing of an asset via a sale a five-step process is undertaken to record the transaction. These steps are as follows:

Step 1: Record depreciation to the date of disposition.
Step 2: Remove the cost of the asset.
Step 3: Remove the accumulated depreciation.
Step 4: Record the proceeds.
Step 5: Determine and record the gain or loss, if any.

229
Q

Federal income tax is levied on:

Multiple Choice
• a partnership based on its total net income when earned.
• the partners for their individual shares of the reported partnership income.
• the partners only when they withdraw earnings from the partnership for personal use.
• the partnership at the end of the fiscal period.

A

the partners for their individual shares of the reported partnership income

A partnership does not pay income tax. The partners report their shares of the partnership’s income or loss on their individual income tax returns.

230
Q

Which of the following is not an element of a standard partnership agreement?

Multiple Choice
•	starting date of the agreement
•	customer list 
•	rights and duties of each partner
•	life of the partnership
A

customer list

231
Q

Robert Ballard, a sole proprietor, entered into partnership with another individual. Ballard’s investment in the partnership included equipment that cost $87,000 when it was purchased. The equipment has a book value of $41,000 and a net agreed-on value of $44,000. In the financial records of the partnership, this equipment and its accumulated depreciation should be recorded at:

Multiple Choice
•	$87,000 and $3,000, respectively.
•	$44,000 and $3,000, respectively.
•	$44,000 and $0, respectively. 
•	$41,000 and $0, respectively.
A

$44,000 and $0, respectively.

This equipment should be recorded at its agreed upon value of $44,000. No accumulated depreciation is transferred. Depreciation on plant and equipment that was recorded by the previous owner is irrelevant. Depreciation will be recorded by the partnership based on the asset’s value at the date of transfer.

232
Q

When the owner of a sole proprietorship accepts a partner, the assets of the proprietorship:

Multiple Choice
• must be transferred to the partnership at the values reflected in the financial records of the proprietorship.
• must be converted to cash and used to pay any debts of the proprietorship, with excess cash available for investment in the new partnership.
• cannot be invested in the new partnership.
• may be adjusted to reflect current values upon transfer to the partnership.

A

may be adjusted to reflect current values upon transfer to the partnership.

When noncash assets are transferred to a partnership, they are recorded at their fair market value, as agreed to by the partners, on the transfer date. Liabilities are stated at their correct balances on the transfer date.

233
Q

The entry to record a partner’s salary allowance consists of a debit to:

Multiple Choice
• the partner’s capital account and a credit to Cash.
• Salaries Expense and a credit to the partner’s drawing account.
• Income Summary and a credit to the partner’s capital account.
• Income Summary and a credit to the partner’s drawing account.

A

Income Summary and a credit to the partner’s capital account.

Salary allowances are withdrawals, allocations of the partnership’s income, and not expenses.

234
Q

Which of the following is the first figure listed within each column of the statement of partners’ equities?

Multiple Choice
•	net income (loss) for year
•	beginning capital balances 
•	withdrawals during year
•	investment during year
A

beginning capital balances

The statement of partners’ equities lists the beginning capital balances first, followed by the investment during year, net income (loss) for year, withdrawals during year, and ending capital balances.

235
Q

Whenever a partner dies or withdraws or when a new partner is admitted:

Multiple Choice
• a dissolution of the old partnership occurs.
• the accounting records are closed and the net income or net loss on the date of dissolution is recorded and transferred to the partners’ capital accounts and then the assets and liabilities are revalued at fair market value.
• the partnership must liquidate.
• both a dissolution of the old partnership occurs and the accounting records are closed and the net income or net loss on the date of dissolution is recorded and transferred to the partners’ capital accounts and then the assets and liabilities are revalued at fair market value.

A

both a dissolution of the old partnership occurs and the accounting records are closed and the net income or net loss on the date of dissolution is recorded and transferred to the partners’ capital accounts and then the assets and liabilities are revalued at fair market value.

Explanation
Whenever a partner dies or withdraws, or when a new partner is admitted, a dissolution of the old partnership occurs. The accounting records are closed and the net income or net loss on the date of dissolution is recorded and transferred to the partners’ capital accounts. Then the assets and liabilities are revalued at fair market value.

236
Q

Partners A and B have existing capital balances of $20,000 and $26,000 and share profits and losses in a ratio of 2:3. Incoming partner C invests $34,000 for a 40% interest in profits and losses. Any difference between what is invested by partner C will be treated as a bonus to or from the existing partners. The entry to record the bonus will include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit of $800 to Partner A’s capital account and a debit of $1,200 to Partner B’s capital account.
• credit of $800 to Partner A’s capital account and a credit of $1,200 to Partner B’s capital account.
• a credit of $2,000 Partner C’s capital account.
• a credit of $1,200 to Partner C’s capital account.

A

credit of $800 to Partner A’s capital account and a credit of $1,200 to Partner B’s capital account.

The total capital after partner C’s investment is $80,000 ($20,000 + $26,000 + $34,000). The amount that will be credited to C’s capital account will be 40% of this total or $32,000. The difference between what C has invested and the amount credited to his account is $2,000 ($34,000 − $32,000). If the two partners share profits and losses in a ratio of 2:3, this means that 2/5 or 40% will go to Partner A and 3/5 or 60% will go to Partner B. As such, the $2,000, will be allocated as follows: $800 (40% × $2,000) to Partner A and $1,200 (60% × $2,000) Partner B. Because a positive amount is being allocated as a bonus, the partners’ accounts must be credited.

237
Q

ABC Partnership has four partners who share profits and losses equally. On December 1, 20X1, the balance in the partner’s capital accounts were $40,000 to Partner A, $50,000 to Partner B, $30,000 to Partner C, and $80,000 to Partner D. Partner C wishes to retire from the partnership. After due negotiations with the partners, the partnership agrees to pay Partner C $18,000 for his interest. The balances in the capital accounts of A, B, C, and D after the payment is made to C will be:

Multiple Choice
• A = $40,000; B = $50,000; C = $0; and D = $80,000.
• A = $37,000; B = $47,000; C = $0; and D = $77,000.
• A = $44,000; B = $54,000; C = $0; and D = $84,000.
• A = $40,000; B = $50,000; C = $30,000; and D = $80,000.

A

A = $44,000; B = $54,000; C = $0; and D = $84,000.

Since the partnership is only willing to pay Partner C $18,000, which is $12,000 less than his capital account, the $12,000 lower payment is considered a bonus from the retiring partner to the continuing partners. Since profits and losses are shared equally, the $12,000 is divided equally between A, B, and D, which increases their capital accounts by $4,000 each. The new balances are A of $44,000 ($40,000 + $4,000), B of $54,000 ($50,000 + $4,000), and D of $84,000 ($80,000 + $4,000).

238
Q

The partnership agreement for JAK Partnership provides that, upon withdrawal of a partner, the assets are to be revalued and the retiring partner is to be paid an amount equal to that partner’s capital account after revaluation. Suppose that the partners agree that Jeannie Folk is to withdraw from the partnership after the close of business on December 31. She is to receive cash in an amount equal to the balance of her capital account after revaluation of the assets. The revalued assets result in the following capital account balances: Jeannie Folk $90,000, Andy Folk $70,000, and Kevin Folk $40,000 for a total of $200,000. The entry to record the withdrawal will include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Jeannie Folk, Capital account for $90,000.
• credit to the Jeannie Folk, Capital account for $90,000.
• credit to the Andy Folk, Capital account for $70,000 and a credit to the Kevin Folk, Capital account for $40,000.
• debit to the Jeannie Folk, Capital account for $200,000.

A

debit to the Jeannie Folk, Capital account for $90,000.

The entry to record the withdrawal will include a debit to the Jeannie Folk, Capital account for $90,000 and a credit to the Cash account for $90,000

239
Q

Prior to the dissolution of a partnership the partners undertake a revaluation of its assets and liabilities. It is decided that the market value of merchandise inventory is $3,000 greater than the current book value, and that this is the only account that requires revaluation. Which of the following will be a component of the journal entry to account for this revaluation?

Multiple Choice
•	debit to each partner’s capital account
•	credit to cash
•	debit to merchandise inventory 
•	credit to merchandise inventory
A

debit to merchandise inventory

The journal entry to record the revaluation of merchandise inventory to a higher amount would include a debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to each partner’s capital account.

240
Q

Which of the following is the definition of distributive share?

Multiple Choice
• A legal contract forming a partnership and specifying certain details of the operation
• The amount of net income or net loss allocated to each partner
• A concept dictating that each partner is empowered to act as an agent for the partnership
• A legal term for the termination of a partnership

A

The amount of net income or net loss allocated to each partner

Distributive share is the amount of net income or net loss allocated to each partner. Distributive share refers solely to the division of net income or net loss among partners, not to cash distributions.

241
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the corporate form?

Multiple Choice
•	restricted agency
•	double taxation 
•	ease of raising capital
•	continuous existence
A

double taxation

Disadvantages of the corporate form include governmental regulation, which is typically more extensive than that imposed on sole proprietorships and partnerships, and the existence of double taxation, i.e. the business is taxed at both the corporate level and at the shareholder level.

242
Q

Subchapter S corporations:

Multiple Choice
• have the disadvantage of double taxation.
• require that shareholders report their share of profits on their partnership tax returns.
• have the advantage that shareholders can take part in policy and operating decisions.
• are entities formed as corporations but are treated essentially as a partnership so the corporation pays no income tax.

A

are entities formed as corporations but are treated essentially as a partnership so the corporation pays no income tax.

Subchapter S corporations are entities formed as corporations which meet the requirements of Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code to be treated essentially as a partnership so the corporation pays no income tax. Instead, shareholders include their share of corporate profits, and any items that require special tax treatment, on their individual income tax returns. Otherwise S corporations have all the characteristics of regular corporations. The advantage of S corporations is that the owners have limited liability and avoid double taxation.

243
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Multiple Choice
• The owners of preferred stock are the only stockholders who have the right to vote.
• All stockholders are guaranteed the right to receive annual dividends.
• The issuing corporation may retain the right to repurchase shares of preferred stock from the stockholders at a specific price.
• None of the above statements are correct.

A

The issuing corporation may retain the right to repurchase shares of preferred stock from the stockholders at a specific price.

Callable preferred stock gives the issuing corporation the right to repurchase the preferred shares from the stockholders at a specific price. The call price is usually substantially greater than the original issue price. The rights are effective after some specified date. Callable stock gives the corporation flexibility in controlling its capital structure.

The owners of common (rather than preferred) stock are the only stockholders who have the right to vote. Stockholders are not guaranteed the right to receive annual dividends; they can only receive dividends as declared by the board of directors.

244
Q

Which of the following types of preferred stock conveys the right not only to the preference dividend amount, but also to a share of other dividends paid?

Multiple Choice
•	callable preferred stock
•	participating preferred stock 
•	convertible preferred stock
•	cumulative preferred stock
A

participating preferred stock

Convertible preferred stock conveys the right to convert that stock to common stock after a specified date or during a period of time. Callable preferred stock gives the issuing corporation the right to repurchase the preferred shares from the stockholders at a specific price. Cumulative preferred stock conveys to its owners the right to receive the preference dividend for the current year and any prior years in which the preference dividend was not paid before common shareholders receive any dividends.

245
Q

A corporation has 20,000 shares of 8 percent, $40 par-value cumulative preferred stock and 40,000 shares of $2 par-value common stock outstanding. Last year, no dividends were paid. This year, the board of directors decided to pay a dividend of $150,000. The common stockholders will receive a dividend of:

Multiple Choice
•	$0.55 a share. 
•	$1.10 a share.
•	$2.15 a share.
•	$4.30 a share.
A

$0.55 a share.

The annual dividends on the preferred stock are $64,000 ($40 par value × 8% × 20,000 shares). The preferred stock is one year in arrears plus the current year for a total of two years. A total of $128,000 (2 years × $64,000 per year) will be allocated to the preferred stockholders and $22,000 ($150,000 − $128,000) will be allocated to the common stockholders. Each common shareholder will receive $0.55 per share ($22,000/40,000 shares).

246
Q

A corporation issued 20,000 shares of $12 par value common stock for $12 per share. The entry to record the issue of the stock would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Loss On Sale of Common Stock account for $240,000.
• credit to the Gain On Sale of Common Stock account for $240,000.
• debit to the Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value–Common Stock account for $12.
• credit to the Common Stock account for $240,000.

A

credit to the Common Stock account for $240,000.

The entry to record the issuance of stock would include a debit to the Cash account for $240,000 (20,000 × $12) and a credit to the Common Stock account for $240,000 (20,000 × $12).

247
Q

Corporate organization costs are debited to an:

Multiple Choice
• expense account when they are incurred.
• asset account and are not expensed to the income statement until the corporation goes out of existence.
• asset account when they are incurred. A portion of these costs are written off to the income statement each accounting period.
• Both A and C are permissible.

A

expense account when they are incurred.

Since organization costs have no fixed legal life, these costs would, if capitalized, be an intangible that would have to be tested for impairment. But it is even more difficult to estimate the value of organization costs than to estimate the value of goodwill. Because of this fact, and the additional fact that the amount spent for organization costs is typically immaterial, the usual practice today is to charge organization costs to expense during the first financial reporting period after the corporation begins activities.

248
Q

A corporation issued 10,000 shares of $4 par value common stock for $10 per share. The entry to record the issue of the stock would include a:

Multiple Choice
• credit to the Gain On Sale of Common Stock account for $40,000.
• debit to the Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value–Common Stock account for $60,000.
• credit to the Common Stock account for $40,000.
• credit to the Common Stock account for $100,000.

A

credit to the Common Stock account for $40,000.

The entry to record the issuance of stock would include a debit to the Cash account for $100,000 (10,000 × $10), a credit to the Common Stock account for $40,000 (10,000 × $4) and a credit to the Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value–Common Stock account for $60,000 ($100,000 − $40,000) or (10,000 × ($10 − $4)).

249
Q

An investor agrees to pay a preferred stock subscription in two monthly installments. Each collection will include a debit to Cash and a credit to:

Multiple Choice
•	Preferred Stock.
•	Preferred Stock Subscribed.
•	Subscriptions Receivable—Preferred. 
•	Common Stock Subscribed.
A

Subscriptions Receivable—Preferred.

The entry to record the subscription would include a debit to the Subscriptions Receivable–Preferred account and a credit to the Preferred Stock Subscribed account. When payment is received, cash is debited and the credit is recorded to the Subscriptions Receivable—Preferred account.

250
Q

Within which of the following does a corporation keep accurate and complete records of all meetings of stockholders and directors?

Multiple Choice
•	capital stock ledger
•	minute book 
•	capital stock transfer journal
•	subscription book
A

minute book

The minute book keeps accurate and complete records of all meetings of stockholders and directors. The minute book formally reports actions taken, directives issued, directors elected, officers elected, and other matters.

The capital stock ledger is established for each class of stock issued, and includes a sheet for each stockholder that displays stockholder’s name and address, dates of transactions affecting stock holdings, certificate numbers, and number of shares for each transaction. The capital stock transfer journal is a record of stock transfers used for posting to the stockholders’ ledger. The subscription book is a listing of the stock subscriptions received.

251
Q

Which of the following are the guidelines for conducting the corporation’s business affairs?

Multiple Choice
•	corporate charter
•	subscription book
•	bylaws 
•	stock certificate
A

bylaws

The bylaws are the guidelines for conducting the corporation’s business affairs.

The corporate charter is issued by a state government to create a corporate entity. The subscription book is a listing of the stock subscriptions received. A stock certificate is physical evidence of capital stock issued by a corporation.

252
Q

Which of the following members of a corporation are tasked with making policies?

Multiple Choice
•	managers
•	stockholders
•	officers
•	directors
A

directors

Duties of the directors include making policies and appointing officers.

Stockholders are tasked with electing the directors, officers carry out policies and hire managers, and managers oversee and supervise daily operations.

253
Q

When an estimate is made for the amount of future taxes that will be paid as a result of the MACRS depreciation deduction taken in this and prior years, an adjustment for the future taxes is made with a debit to the:

Multiple Choice
• Tax Expense account and a credit to Deferred Income Tax Liability account.
• Deferred Income Tax Liability account and a credit to Tax Expense account.
• Tax Expense account and a credit to Deferred Income Tax Asset account.
• Deferred Income Tax Asset account and a credit to Tax Expense account.

A

Tax Expense account and a credit to Deferred Income Tax Liability account.

Each year the accountant estimates the amount of future taxes that will be paid as a result of the MACRS depreciation deduction taken in this and prior years. An adjustment for the future taxes is made with a debit to the Tax Expense account and a credit to Deferred Income Tax Liability account.

254
Q

Which of the following is the final step in completing the corporate worksheet?

Multiple Choice
• Enter the trial balance in the Trial Balance section.
• Compute income tax based on income before tax.
• Extend the adjusted balances of the asset, liability, and stockholders’ equity accounts to the Balance Sheet columns.
• Total the columns in the Adjustments section.

A

Extend the adjusted balances of the asset, liability, and stockholders’ equity accounts to the Balance Sheet columns.

Seven steps must be taken to complete the corporate worksheet. They are as follows:

  1. Enter the trial balance in the Trial Balance section.
  2. Enter the adjustments in the Adjustments section of the worksheet.
  3. Extend the balances of all income and expense amounts to the Income Statement section of the worksheet.
  4. Compute income tax based on income before tax.
  5. Total the columns in the Adjustments section.
  6. Total the Debit and Credit columns of the Income Statement section.
  7. Extend the adjusted balances of the asset, liability, and stockholders’ equity accounts to the Balance Sheet columns.
255
Q

Which of the following is not a reason why corporations purchase treasury stock?

Multiple Choice
• The corporation wants to create a demand for the stock and thus increase its market value.
• The corporation has too little cash.
• The corporation wishes to transfer treasury stock to officers and key employees in connection with incentive plans.
• The privately-held corporation seeks to purchase the shares of a stockholder who needs cash or wishes to retire.

A

The corporation has too little cash.

Corporations often purchase treasury stock because they have extra cash, and the board of directors thinks that the corporation’s own stock is a better investment than other potential investments, not because the corporation has too little cash.

256
Q

The entry to record the payment of a cash dividend includes a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Dividends Payable account and a credit to the Cash account.
• debit to the Retained Earnings account and a credit to the Cash account.
• debit to the Dividends Payable account and a credit to the Retained Earnings account.
• debit to the Retained Earnings account and a credit to the Dividends Payable account.

A

debit to the Dividends Payable account and a credit to the Cash account.

The entry to record the payment of a cash dividend includes a debit to the Dividends Payable account and a credit to the Cash account.

257
Q

What account is credited when a common stock dividend is issued?

Multiple Choice
•	Common Stock Dividend Distributable 
•	Retained Earnings
•	Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value – Common Stock
•	Common Stock
A

Common Stock Dividend Distributable

When a common stock dividend is issued the Retained Earnings account is debited and the Common Stock Dividend Distributable account is credited.

258
Q

A stock split will do which of the following?

Multiple Choice
• Affect a stockholder’s percentage interest in the corporation.
• Decrease the par value of the stock.
• Increase the par value of the stock.
• Decrease the number of shares outstanding.

A

Decrease the par value of the stock.

A stock split involves the calling in of outstanding shares and the distribution of more than one share for each share called in, with each new share having a proportionate reduction in the par or the stated value. This will cause the par value of each share to decrease.

259
Q

After retained earnings have been appropriated, within which section of the Balance Sheet are they reported?

Multiple Choice
•	asset
•	current liability
•	long-term liabilities
•	retained earnings
A

retained earnings

Appropriated retained earnings are added to unappropriated retained earnings to arrive at total retained earnings in the Retained Earnings section of the balance sheet.

260
Q

The City of St. Charles purchased land ten years ago for $100,000. The land is now worth $120,000. The city wishes to attract new industry to its town and gives the land to Crowning Corporation for a plant site. Crowning Corporation will record this transaction with a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Donated Capital account for $100,000.
• credit to the Donated Capital account for $100,000.
• debit to the Donated Capital account for $120,000.
• credit to the Donated Capital account for $120,000.

A

credit to the Donated Capital account for $120,000.

Donated capital is capital resulting from the receipt of gifts by a corporation. An asset received as a gift is recorded in the accounting records at the asset’s fair market value. Crowning Corporation will record this transaction with a debit to the Land account for $120,000 and a credit to the Donated Capital account for $120,000.

261
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• Treasury stock represents issued shares of the corporation.
• Some states require that retained earnings be appropriated in an amount equal to the cost of treasury stock.
• The Treasury Stock account has a normal credit balance.
• The re-issuance of treasury stock increases stockholders’ equity.

A

The Treasury Stock account has a normal credit balance.

The entry to record the purchase of treasury stock includes a debit to the Treasury Stock account and a credit to Cash. As such, the Treasury Stock account has a normal debit (rather than credit) balance.

262
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• The statement of retained earnings shows the beginning balance, the changes, and the ending balance for the unappropriated and appropriated Retained Earnings accounts.
• Some corporations combine the statement of retained earnings with the income statement.
• A statement of stockholders’ equity provides an analysis reconciling the beginning and ending balance of each of the stockholders’ equity accounts.
• All of the statements are correct.

A

All of the statements are correct.

The statement of retained earnings shows the beginning balance, the changes, and the ending balance for the unappropriated and appropriated Retained Earnings accounts. Some corporations combine the statement of retained earnings with the income statement. A statement of stockholders’ equity provides an analysis reconciling the beginning and ending balance of each of the stockholders’ equity accounts.

263
Q

If the tax deposits made by a corporation during the year exceed the tentative tax expense calculated at year-end, what account is debited in the resulting journal entry?

Multiple Choice
•	Income Tax Payable
•	Income Tax Expense
•	Cash
•	Income Tax Refund Receivable
A

Income Tax Refund Receivable

If the tax deposits made by a corporation during the year exceed the tentative tax expense calculated at year-end, then the corporation would have overpaid its taxes during the year. As such, the corporation would debit Income Tax Refund Receivable and credit Income Tax Expense in the resulting journal entry.

264
Q

At which of the following times would a memorandum entry be recorded in the general journal?

Multiple Choice
• On the date of declaration of a stock split
• On the date of record of a cash dividend.
• On the date of declaration of a stock dividend.
• On the date of purchase of treasury stock.

A

On the date of declaration of a stock split

A stock split does not result in a standard journal entry within the general journal, as no account balances change after the stock split is undertaken. However, a memorandum entry is recorded when a stock split is declared to note the details of the split, including the new par or stated value, and the new number of shares outstanding.

265
Q

Bonds can:

Multiple Choice
• be secured by collateral or they can be unsecured.
• be registered or unregistered.
• all mature on the same date, or portions can mature over a period of several years.
• All of the answers are correct.

A

All of the answers are correct.

Bonds are classified by the following characteristics: Bonds can be secured by collateral, or they can be unsecured. Bonds can be registered or unregistered. Bonds can all mature on the same date, or portions can mature over a period of several years.

266
Q

Bond issue costs are:

Multiple Choice
• expensed when incurred.
• ignored, as they are immaterial.
• a deferred charge in the long-term asset category of the balance sheet that would be allocated over the life of the bonds.
• listed in the current liability section of the balance sheet.

A

a deferred charge in the long-term asset category of the balance sheet that would be allocated over the life of the bonds.

Bond issue costs reduce the proceeds of borrowing. These costs are a deferred charge in the long-term asset category of the balance sheet that would be allocated over the life of the bonds.

267
Q

When bonds mature, a corporation will pay the bondholders:

Multiple Choice
• the current market value of the bonds.
• the face amount plus the original premium or minus the original discount.
• the face amount plus the interest accrued since the date the bonds were issued.
• the face amount of the bonds.

A

the face amount of the bonds.

The face amount of the bonds, the principal, is the amount that the corporation owes to the bond holders. At maturity, when the bonds are retired, the bonds payable account is debited for the face amount of the bonds.

268
Q

On April 1, 20X1, Tyler Corporation issued 100 registered, unsecured bonds that will mature in 10 years. The face value of each bond is $1,200. The bond interest rate is 8 percent. Interest will be paid on April 1 and October 1 of each year. The entry to record the first interest payment on October 1, 20X1, would include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Bond Interest Expense account for $4,800.
• debit to the Bond Interest Expense account for $9,600.
• debit to the Bond Interest Expense account for $19,200.
• None of the above.

A

debit to the Bond Interest Expense account for $4,800.

Interest on each bond is $9,600 per year (or 100 × $1,200 x 0.08). Because interest is paid semiannually, each interest payment is $4,800 ($9,600 / 2). The entry to record the first interest payment on October 1, 20X1, would include a debit to the Bond Interest Expense account for $4,800 and a credit to the Cash account for $4,800.

269
Q

The entry to record the issuance of a bond at a discount includes a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Bonds Payable account.
• debit to the Discount on Bonds Payable account.
• credit to the Cash account.
• debit to the Bond Interest Expense account.

A

debit to the Discount on Bonds Payable account.

The entry to record the issuance of a bond at a discount includes a debit to the Cash account, a debit to the Discount on Bonds Payable account, and a credit to the Bonds Payable account.

270
Q

When bonds are issued at a discount, the bond discount:

Multiple Choice
• reduces the amount of interest expense over the life of the bonds.
• increases the amount of interest expense over the life of the bonds.
• reduces the cash paid for interest by the bond issuer.
• is charged to interest expense when the bond is issued.

A

increases the amount of interest expense over the life of the bonds.

When bonds are issued at a discount, the bond discount increases the amount of interest expense over the life of the bonds.

271
Q

On December 31, 20X1, a corporation issued $300,000 face value, 11 percent bonds that mature 10 years from the date of issue. The issue price was 98. If the firm uses the straight-line method of amortization, interest expense for 20X2 will be reported at:

Multiple Choice
•	$600.
•	$32,400.
•	$33,000.
•	$33,600.
A

$33,600.

Interest expense is the sum of the cash interest payment plus the amount of the amortization of the discount. The cash payment is $33,000, or $300,000 × 11 percent. The amount of the discount is $6,000, or $300,000 – ($300,000 × 0.98). One year’s amortization of the discount is $600, or $6,000/10 years. The interest expense calculated is $33,600 ($33,000 + $600).

272
Q

Tyler Corporation decides to accumulate funds in a bond sinking fund for each of the years that its bonds are outstanding. The net earnings of the fund will reduce the amount that the corporation has to add each year. At the maturity date of the bonds, the sinking fund will have the $1,000,000 needed to retire the bonds. The entry to record the retirement of the bonds will include a:

Multiple Choice
• credit to the Cash account for $1,000,000.
• debit to the Bonds Payable account for $1,000,000.
• debit to the Bond Sinking Fund Investment account for $1,000,000.
• None of the above.

A

debit to the Bonds Payable account for $1,000,000.

The entry to record the retirement of the bonds will include a debit to the Bonds Payable account for $1,000,000 and a credit to the Bond Sinking Fund Investment account for $1,000,000.

273
Q

Suppose that the board of directors of Charles Corporation decided to appropriate $100,000 of retained earnings during each of the last five years its bonds are outstanding. When the bonds are retired, the entries to record the retirement will include a:

Multiple Choice
• debit to the Retained Earnings Appropriated for Bond Retirement account for $100,000.
• debit to the Retained Earnings account for $100,000.
• debit to the Retained Earnings Appropriated for Bond Retirement account for $500,000.
• debit to the Retained Earnings account for $500,000.

A

debit to the Retained Earnings Appropriated for Bond Retirement account for $500,000.

When the bonds are retired, the entries to record the retirement will include a debit to the Retained Earnings Appropriated for Bond Retirement account for $500,000 (or 5 x $100,000) and a credit to the Retained Earning account for $500,000.

274
Q

A corporation paid $105,000 to retire bonds with a face value of $100,000 and an unamortized premium balance of $2,000. The entry to record the early retirement of the bonds will include the recognition of a loss of:

Multiple Choice
•	$5,000.
•	$3,000. 
•	$2,000.
•	$1,000.
A

$3,000.

The entry to record the early retirement of the bonds will include a debit to the Bonds Payable account for $100,000, a debit to the Premium on Bonds Payable account for $2,000, a debit to the Loss on Early Retirement of Bonds account for $3,000, and a credit to the Cash account for $105,000.

275
Q

What is the term used for bonds that give the owner the right to convert the bonds into common stock under specified conditions?

Multiple Choice
•	callable bonds
•	coupon bonds
•	convertible bonds 
•	collateral trust bonds
A

convertible bonds

Convertible bonds give the owner the right to convert the bonds into common stock under specified conditions. Callable bonds allow the issuing corporation to require the holders to surrender the bonds for payment before the maturity date. Coupon bonds are bonds that do not require that the names of the owners be registered. Collateral trust bonds involve the pledge of securities, such as stocks or bonds of other companies.

276
Q

Which of the following statements regarding bonds payable is accurate?

Multiple Choice
• Interest from bonds is deducted in arriving at taxable income.
• Bonds payable are permanent capital.
• Preference dividends on bonds payable are usually slightly higher than interest rates on preferred stock.
• Bonds payable are classified as stockholders’ equity

A

Interest from bonds is deducted in arriving at taxable income.

Interest from bonds is deducted in arriving at taxable income.

Capital stock is permanent capital, and is classified as stockholder’s equity. Preference dividends on preferred stock are usually slightly higher than interest rates on bonds.

277
Q

If current assets are $65,000 and total assets are $325,000, what percentage of total assets are current assets?

Multiple Choice
•	16.7%
•	20.0% 
•	80.0%
•	83.3%
A

20.0%

$65,000 current assets / $325,000 total assets = 20%

278
Q

A horizontal analysis of balance sheet data involves a comparison of a balance sheet amount on a given date with the:

Multiple Choice
• total of the assets on the balance sheet for that date.
• net sales from the income statement for the period ending on that date.
• total stockholders’ equity on the balance sheet for that date.
• amount for the same balance sheet item on a previous date.

A

amount for the same balance sheet item on a previous date.

A horizontal analysis of balance sheet data involves a comparison of a balance sheet amount on a given date with amount for the same balance sheet item on a previous date.

279
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Multiple Choice
• Trend analysis makes it possible to ask questions about all aspects of operations of the company.
• Comparisons between only two years could be misleading and might not be adequate to indicate long-term trends.
• Comparing ratio and percentage relationships of the current year with those of the immediately preceding year is a normal and helpful procedure, but a better technique is trend analysis, which compares selected ratios and percentages over a period of time.
• All of the statements are correct.

A

All of the statements are correct.

Comparing ratio and percentage relationships of the current year with those of the immediately preceding year is a normal and helpful procedure. However, comparisons between only two years could be misleading and might not be adequate to indicate long-term trends. A better technique is trend analysis, which compares selected ratios and percentages over a period of time. Trend analysis makes it possible to ask questions about all aspects of operations of the company.

280
Q

What types of ratios measure the ability of a business to pay its debts when due?

Multiple Choice
•	financial strength ratios
•	efficiency ratios
•	profitability ratios
•	liquidity ratios
A

liquidity ratios

Liquidity ratios measure the ability of a business to pay its debts when due.
Financial strength ratios measure how well-positioned a business is to pay its bond interest payments and debts, as well as the protection afforded creditors against possible losses, and the amount that each share would receive in case of liquidation if the assets were sold for book value.
Profitability, operating results, and efficiency ratios examine the earnings and overall operations of a business in various contexts. This is accomplished by examining relationships between key figures such as net income, net sales, total assets, common stockholders’ equity, number of shares of common stock, and market price per share of common stock.

281
Q

A company’s net income before income tax is $60,000. Income tax for the year was $10,000. Dividend requirements for preferred stock are $20,000. There are 10,000 shares of common stock outstanding. Earnings per common stock are:

Multiple Choice
•	$3.00. 
•	$4.00.
•	$5.00.
•	$6.00.
A

$3.00.

Earnings per share of common stock equals $3.00 [($60,000 net income before income tax − $10,000 income tax − $20,000 dividend requirements for preferred stock) divided by 10,000 shares].

282
Q

Asset Turnover is calculated as:

Multiple Choice
• income before interest expense and income taxes / total assets
• net sales / total assets
• total assets / income before interest expense and income taxes
• net income divided by total stockholders’ equity

A

net sales / total assets

Asset Turnover is computed as net sales divided by total assets.

283
Q

Number of times bond interest earned is calculated as:
Multiple Choice
• Net Income divided by Bond interest cash requirement.
• Bond interest cash requirement divided by Net income.
• Income before bond interest and income taxes divided by Bond interest cash requirement.
• Bond interest cash requirement divided by Income before bond interest and income taxes.

A

Income before bond interest and income taxes divided by Bond interest cash requirement.

Number of times bond interest earned is calculated as Income before bond interest and income taxes divided by Bond interest cash requirement.

284
Q

A company has total assets of $305,000, current assets of $110,000, total liabilities of $80,000, and current liabilities of $50,000. What is the current ratio?

Multiple Choice
•	1.4 to 1.
•	2.2 to 1. 
•	3.8 to 1.
•	6.1 to 1.
A

2.2 to 1.

The current ratio is computed as current assets divided by current liabilities. $110,000 current assets / $50,000 current liabilities = 2.2 to 1.

285
Q

Low inventory turnover compared with the industry average might reflect:

Multiple Choice
•	obsolete goods.
•	poor purchasing procedures.
•	excess merchandise.
•	all of the answers are correct.
A

all of the answers are correct.

Inventory turnover measures how quickly a merchandiser sells inventory, calculated by dividing cost of goods sold by average merchandise inventory. Obsolete goods and poor purchasing procedures may result in slow sales. Excess inventory increases the denominator in the ratio, reducing the inventory turnover measure.

286
Q

All of the following statements describe shortcomings in financial statement analysis except:
Multiple Choice
• Financial statements are prepared assuming that the dollar is a stable monetary unit.
• Financial statements use book values.
• It is difficult to compare financial results of businesses that use different financing methods.
• All of the statements describe shortcomings in financial statement analysis.

A

All of the statements describe shortcomings in financial statement analysis.

There are limits to the benefits of financial statement analysis. Financial statements use book values. Book value depends on accounting procedures and policies. Different accounting policies and procedures make it difficult to compare financial results across companies. Another limitation of financial statement analysis is that financial statements are prepared assuming that the dollar is a stable monetary unit; this is far from correct. The amounts reported do not necessarily represent dollars with today’s purchasing power. Finally, it is difficult to compare financial results of businesses that use different financing methods, classify expenses differently, have different policies for paying owner-employees, and operate as different types of business entities.

287
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a high current ratio is inaccurate?
Multiple Choice
• A high current ratio could be caused by large sums of money tied up in accounts receivable that might be uncollectible.
• A high current ratio could be caused by obsolete inventory.
• A high current ratio could be caused by an inventory level lower than required to conduct normal operations.
• The higher the current ratio, the greater the amount of protection afforded.

A

A high current ratio could be caused by an inventory level lower than required to conduct normal operations.

A higher current ratio is preferable, as the higher the current ratio, the greater the amount of protection afforded. A high current ratio could be caused by a variety of factors including large sums of money being tied up in accounts receivable that might be uncollectible, obsolete inventory, and an inventory level higher (not lower) than required to conduct normal operations.

288
Q

Which of the following is a profitability ratio?

Multiple Choice
•	earnings per share of common stock 
•	number of times bond interest earned
•	book value per share of common stock
•	acid-test ratio
A

earnings per share of common stock

Earnings per share of common stock is calculated as income available to common stockholders divided by average number of shares of common stock outstanding during the year. Earnings per share is a profitability ratio.

The acid-test ratio is a liquidity ratio, while the number of times bond interest earned and the book value per share of common stock are both financial strength ratios.

289
Q

Cash and cash equivalents, as used on the statement of cash flows, consist of:

Multiple Choice
• only currency and bank accounts.
• only bank accounts.
• currency, bank accounts, and all investments.
• currency, bank accounts and short-term, highly liquid investments.

A

currency, bank accounts and short-term, highly liquid investments.

Cash consists of coin, currency, and bank accounts. Cash equivalents are easily convertible into known amounts of cash. They include certificates of deposit (CDs), U.S. Treasury bills, and money market funds. A short-term investment is a cash equivalent if it matures within three months from the date the business acquired it.

290
Q

Which of the following is a source of cash that would appear in the investing activities section of the statement of cash flows?

Multiple Choice
•	proceeds from issuance of common stock
•	depreciation expense
•	purchase of office equipment
•	proceeds from sale of equipment
A

proceeds from sale of equipment

Investing activities involve the acquisition (cash outflow) or disposal (cash inflow) of long-term assets, including land, buildings, equipment, and investments in bonds and other securities. Proceeds from the sale of equipment is a source of cash that would appear within the investing activities section.

Proceeds from the issuance of common stock would be a source of cash in the financing activities section, depreciation expense would be added to net income in the operating activities section (when using the indirect method), and the purchase of office equipment would be a use of cash (not a source of cash) in the investing activities section.

291
Q

Which of the following would not appear in the financing activities section of the statement of cash flows?

Multiple Choice
•	payment of dividends on preferred stock
•	gain on sale of equipment 
•	payment of mortgage payable principal
•	proceeds from issuance of common stock
A

gain on sale of equipment

Financing activities involve transactions that provide cash to the business to carry on its activities. Cash inflows from financing activities include issuing bonds and capital stock for cash, borrowing cash by signing notes payable, and reselling treasury stock. Cash outflows from financing activities include paying notes or bonds payable, purchasing treasury stock, and paying cash dividends.

A gain on the sale of equipment would be subtracted from net income in the operating activities section (when using the indirect method) and would also be included as a source of cash within the investing activities section.

292
Q

On a statement of cash flows, depreciation expense is:

Multiple Choice
• subtracted from net income in the computation of the net cash provided by (used in) operating activities.
• added to net income in the computation of the net cash provided by (used in) operating activities.
• treated as a cash outflow in the computation of the net cash provided by (used in) investing activities.
• treated as a cash inflow in the computation of the net cash provided by (used in) investing activities.

A

added to net income in the computation of the net cash provided by (used in) operating activities.

The acquisition of property, plant, and equipment is reported in the Cash Flows from Investing Activities section of the statement of cash flows in the year acquired. Depreciation, depletion, and amortization of assets do not involve a cash outlay in the year the expense is recorded. Since depreciation has been subtracted on the income statement in the determination of net income, it must be added back to net income in the computation of the net cash provided by operating activities.

293
Q

What is the final figure displayed at the bottom of the statement of cash flows?
Multiple Choice
• ending cash and cash equivalents
• net income after taxes
• net income in cash and cash equivalents
• beginning cash and cash equivalents

A

ending cash and cash equivalents

The statement of cash flows displays the sources and uses of cash throughout the period. These are added together to arrive at the net increase (decrease) in cash and cash equivalents which, when added to the beginning cash and cash equivalents balance, provides the ending cash and cash equivalents balance, the final figure displayed on the statement of cash flows.

294
Q

An increase in accounts payable is:

Multiple Choice
• added to the net income when determining the net cash provided by operating activities.
• subtracted from the net income when determining the net cash provided by operating activities.
• added to the cash flows from investing activities.
• not used to calculate the net cash provided by operating activities.

A

added to the net income when determining the net cash provided by operating activities.

An increase in accounts payable means less cash was paid on account than purchases were recorded on account. To obtain cash flows from operating activities, the increase in accounts payable is added to net income.

295
Q

An increase in accounts receivable is:
Multiple Choice
• added to the net income when determining the net cash provided by operating activities.
• subtracted from the net income when determining the net cash provided by operating activities.
• added to the cash flows from investing activities.
• not used to calculate the net cash provided by operating activities.

A

subtracted from the net income when determining the net cash provided by operating activities.

An increase in accounts receivable means that more sales on account were recorded than collected. The sales were included in net income, but the cash has not been received. To obtain cash flows from operating activities, the increase in accounts receivable is subtracted from net income.

296
Q

A corporation received $50,000 in cash when it sold a building and paid $90,000 in cash when it purchased some new machinery. As a result, the statement of cash flows would report:

Multiple Choice
• $40,000 as the net cash used in financing activities.
• $40,000 as the net cash provided by investing activities.
• $40,000 as the net cash used in investing activities.
• $40,000 as the net cash provided by financing activities.

A

$40,000 as the net cash used in investing activities.

Investing activities involve the acquisition (cash outflow) or disposal (cash inflow) of long-term assets, including land, buildings, equipment, and investments in bonds and other securities. The proceeds from the sale of the building of $50,000, which is the cash flow arising from this transaction, will be reported as a cash inflow in the investing activities section of the statement of cash flows. The cash payment for the purchase of the new machinery will be reported as a cash outflow in the investing activities section. The net amount, a decrease of $40,000 will be reported as the net cash used in investing activities.

297
Q

During the year, the Common Stock account increased by $80,000 and the Paid-in Capital–Common Stock account increased by $30,000 as a result of the issuance of 10,000 shares of common stock for $11 per share. As a result, the statement of cash flows would report:

Multiple Choice
• $80,000 as a cash outflow in the financing activities section.
• $80,000 as a cash inflow in the investing activities section.
• $110,000 as a cash outflow in the investing activities section.
• $110,000 as a cash inflow in the financing activities section.

A

$110,000 as a cash inflow in the financing activities section.

Financing activities involve transactions that provide cash to the business to carry on its activities. Cash inflows from financing activities include issuing bonds and capital stock for cash, borrowing cash by signing notes payable, and reselling treasury stock. Cash outflows from financing activities include paying notes or bonds payable, purchasing treasury stock, and paying cash dividends. The proceeds of the stock issuance of $110,000 ($80,000 + $30,000) would be reported as cash inflow in the financing activities section of the statement of cash flows.

298
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the direct method for the statement of cash flows is inaccurate?

Multiple Choice
• When the statement of cash flows is based on the direct method, it must be accompanied by a reconciliation of net income to the net cash provided by operating activities.
• Most corporations use the direct method to prepare the statement of cash flows.
• The cash flows from investing activities and the cash flows from financing activities are the same under the direct and indirect methods
• The financial accounting standards board allows for the use of the direct method to prepare the statement of cash flows.

A

Most corporations use the direct method to prepare the statement of cash flows.

The Financial Accounting Standards Board allows the indirect or direct method. Under the direct method, all revenue and expenses reported on the income statement appear in the operating section of the statement of cash flows and show the cash received or paid out for each type of transaction. Under the direct method, a corporation reports cash flows from operating activities in two major classes: gross cash receipts and gross cash payments.

The direct method is not used by most corporations because many businesses do not have easy access to the records of cash payments for each type of expenditure.

299
Q

Which of the following is a use of cash that would appear on the statement of cash flows?

Multiple Choice
•	purchase of treasury stock 
•	dividend income
•	issuance of bonds payable
•	issuance of common stock
A

purchase of treasury stock

The purchase of treasury stock requires a cash outlay, and therefore is a use of cash in the financing activities section of the statement of cash flows.

Dividend income is a source of cash that would appear in the operating activities section, while the issuance of bonds payable and the issuance of common stock are sources of cash that would appear in the financing activities section.

300
Q

What type of expense is shown in greater detail within the schedule of operating expenses?
Multiple Choice
• bond interest expense
• income tax expense
• selling and general and administrative expense
• cost of goods sold

A

selling and general and administrative expense

The schedule of operating expenses is a supplemental schedule showing the selling and general and administrative expenses in greater detail.