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MSN 6204 > Quizes > Flashcards

Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

Foods rich in fructooligosaccharides include all of the following except one.

Onions
Garlic
Yacon tubers
Black beans

A

Black beans

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2
Q

Which of the following probiotic products has clinical trial evidence of efficacy for the treatment of infantile colic?

Select one:
Culturelle Kids Probiotic
Natural Factors Children’s Multi Probiotic
Bio-Kult Infantis
Klaire Labs Ther-Biotic Children’s Chewable

A

Bio-Kult Infantis

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3
Q

All of the following are prebiotics except one. Choose the exception:

Select one:
fructooligosaccharides
lactulose
larch arabinogalactans
lactitol
galactooligosaccharides
A

larch arabinogalactans

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4
Q

The prebiotics with the current best research profile for improving skin health (levels of wrinkles and hydration) are?

Select one or more:
Lactulose and Arabinogalactans
Lactulose and GOS
GOS and FOS
Lactulose and FOS
A

Lactulose and GOS

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5
Q

What differentiates prebiotics from colonic foods?

Select one:
a. Only colonic foods are fermented to produce short-chain fatty acids
b. Prebiotics are only utilized by a limited number of beneficial bacteria in the human GIT
c. Prebiotics have to be naturally-occurring, whereas colonic foods do not
d. Nothing differentiates them – they are different terms for the same thing
E. Only prebiotics are fermented to produce short-chain fatty acids

A

b. Prebiotics are only utilized by a limited number of beneficial bacteria in the human GIT

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6
Q

Probiotic characteristics are strain dependent. This means:

Select one:

a. Desirable characteristics cannot be extrapolated across the species level
b. Strains within the same species may have differing therapeutic qualities
c. One cannot generalize research results conducted on one probiotic strain to another one, even if it is within the same species
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a common side effect from prebiotic administration?
Select one:

a. Flatulence
b. Abdominal distension
c. Sore joints
d. Abdominal bloating
e. Abdominal pain

A

c. Sore joints

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8
Q

What is the best rationale to base your prescribing of a particular probiotic supplement on?
Select one:

a. Your clinical experience
b. Your colleagues’ clinical experience
c. Choose the supplement with the highest CFU (colony forming units)
d. Clinical trial level evidence of efficacy
e. Claims made in a manufacturers’ brochure

A

d. Clinical trial level evidence of efficacy

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9
Q

Based on clinical trial data, the probiotic strains of choice in bacterial vaginosis are:
Select one:

a. Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG and Bifidobacterium lactis Bb12
b. Lactobacillus rhamnosus GR-1 and Lactobacillus reuteri RC-14
c. Lactobacillus plantarum Lp-115 and Lactobacillus rhamnosus CUL-63
d. Lactobacillus rhamnosus CUL-63 and Lactobacillus fermentum CUL-67

A

b. Lactobacillus rhamnosus GR-1 and Lactobacillus reuteri RC-14

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10
Q

Based on the most recent research, probiotics can be used to treat:
Select one:

a. Endometriosis
b. Post-partum obesity
c. Mastitis
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a probiotic myth?
Select one:

a. Never take probiotics alongside antibiotics as it is a waste of money
b. Probiotics are best taken on an empty stomach
c. Probiotics are best taken with larger, more dense meals to enhance survival through the upper GIT
d. A good probiotic strain will permanently colonize the human GIT after consumption
e. Probiotic supplements are superior to probiotic foods as therapeutic tools

A

c. Probiotics are best taken with larger, more dense meals to enhance survival through the upper GIT

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12
Q

A prebiotic must have all the following characteristics except one. The exception is:
Select one:

a. ingestion of the substance alters the colonic microflora ecosystem towards a healthier composition
b. the substance must be neither catabolised nor absorbed in the stomach or small intestine
c. ingestion results in changes that improve the health of the host
d. the substance must be naturally occurring
e. the substance must be a selective substrate only utilised by a limited number of beneficial bacteria

A

d. the substance must be naturally occurring

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13
Q

What is the minimum therapeutic dose of a probiotic strain?
Select one:

a. It differs per strain, but it is a prudent to prescribe a minimum of 1 billion (10^9) colony forming units (CFU) of each strain
b. It differs per strain, but it is a prudent to prescribe a minimum of 100 million CFU (10^8) of each strain
c. 10 billion (10^10) CFU
d. 100,000 (10^6) CFU

A

a. It differs per strain, but it is a prudent to prescribe a minimum of 1 billion (10^9) colony forming units (CFU) of each strain

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14
Q

Which of the following disease states has been associated with gastrointestinal dysbiosis?
Select one or more:

a. Obesity and Type 2 Diabetes
b. Chronic Fatigue Syndrome and Autism
c. Depression and Anxiety
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

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15
Q

Foods rich in galactooligosaccharides include all of the following except one. Choose the exception.

Select one or more:

a.
Borlotti beans

b.
Buckwheat

c.
Split peas

d.
Whole wheat

A

b.

Buckwheat

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16
Q

What is the prebiotic of choice to prevent Traveler’s diarrhea?
Select one:

a.
Fructooligosaccharides

b.
Galactooligosaccharides

c.
Larch arabinogalactans

d.
Raffinose

A

b.

Galactooligosaccharides

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17
Q

The probiotic strain Lactobacillus reuteri BioGaia is found in which commercially-available probiotic preparation in the USA?
Select one:

a.
Bioceuticals UltraBiotic 45

b.
Natren Healthy Trinity

c.
Gerber Soother Colic Drops

d.
Standard Process ProSynbiotic

A

c.

Gerber Soother Colic Drops

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18
Q

Which of the following is not a mechanism by which probiotics work:
Select one:

a.
Conversion of excess intestinal gases to water

b.
Competition for space and nutrients with potential pathogens

c.
Production of selectively-acting anti-microbial substances

d.
Via interaction with immune cells along the GIT

e.
Via production of beneficial compounds in the GIT (e.g., polyamines)

A

a.

Conversion of excess intestinal gases to water

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19
Q

All of the following are desirable probiotic characteristics except one; choose the exception:
Select one:

a.
Human origin

b.
Documented clinical safety

c.
Adherence to the intestinal mucosa

d.
Ability to colonize the human gastrointestinal tract (albeit only temporarily)

e.
Antagonism against lactobacilli and bifidobacteria

A

e.

Antagonism against lactobacilli and bifidobacteria

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20
Q

A species commonly used in probiotic supplements is:
Select one:

a.
Klebsiella pneumoniae

b.
Campylobacter jejuni

c.
Bacillus anthracis

d.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A

d.

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

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21
Q

Hydrogen sulfide gas is produced by which colonic bacterial species:
Select one:

a.
Bifidobacterium spp. and Lactobacillus spp.

b.
Desulfovibrio spp. and Bacteroides spp.

c.
Bifidobacterium spp. and Desulfomaculum spp.

d.
Desulfovibrio spp. and Desulfomaculum spp.

A

d.

Desulfovibrio spp. and Desulfomaculum spp.

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22
Q

Which of the following probiotic strains increase your endogenous populations of bifidobacteria when consumed:
Select one:

a.
Lactobacillus casei Shirota

b.
Lactobacillus acidophilus NCFM

c.
Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a physiological activity of short chain fatty acids:
Select one:

a.
Trophic effects on the small intestine

b.
Improved colonic epithelial barrier function

c.
Improved serum vitamin B12 levels

d.
Improved mineral absorption

e.
Improved laxation

A

c.

Improved serum vitamin B12 levels

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24
Q

A high milk-fat diet encouraged the growth of what microorganism?
Select one:

a.
Lactobacillus acidophilus

b.
Bifidobacterium lactis

c.
Clostridiodes difficile

d.
Bacteroides fragilis

e.
Bilophila wadsworthia

A

e.

Bilophila wadsworthia

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25
Q

Which short chain fatty acid directly suppresses the growth of the main methane-producing bacterial species in the gastrointestinal tract (Methanobrevibacter smithii)?
Select one or more:

a.
Acetate

b.
Lactate

c.
Propionate

d.
Butyrate

A

d.

Butyrate

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26
Q

The three main short chain fatty acids produced in the colon are:
Select one:

a.
Hydrochloric, acetate, and butyrate

b.
Acetate, butyrate and lactate

c.
Propionate, butyrate and acetate

d.
Lactate, propionate and isovalerate

e.
Isovalerate, acetate and butyrate

A

c.

Propionate, butyrate and acetate

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27
Q

A pathobiont is defined as:
Select one or more:

a.
A healthy balanced ecosystem

b.
A commensal microorganism that is able to promote pathology only when specific genetic or environmental conditions are altered in the host

c.
A unit of biological organization composed to a host and its microbiota

d.
A relationship benefitting both parties

A

b.
A commensal microorganism that is able to promote pathology only when specific genetic or environmental conditions are altered in the host

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28
Q

Which of the following conditions is not associated with intestinal dysbiosis?
Select one:

a.
Obesity

b.
Irritable bowel syndrome

c.
Rheumatoid arthritis

d.
Atopic eczema

e.
Functional dyspepsia

A

e.

Functional dyspepsia

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a byproduct of intestinal putrefaction?
Select one:

a.
Short chain fatty acids

b.
hydrogen peroxide

c.
Phenols

d.
Indoles

e.
Ammonia

A

b.

hydrogen peroxide

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30
Q

The disappearing microbiota hypothesis states:
Select one:

a.
That alterations in human macroecology have progressively affected the composition of our indigenous microbiota, which in turn has affected human physiology and, ultimately, increased the risk of allergic and metabolic diseases

b.
That the increased rates of modern allergic and metabolic diseases has arisen due to changes in our genetics

c.
That the increased rates of modern allergic and metabolic diseases has arisen due to global warming.

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

a.
That alterations in human macroecology have progressively affected the composition of our indigenous microbiota, which in turn has affected human physiology and, ultimately, increased the risk of allergic and metabolic diseases

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31
Q

Which if the following bacterial genera are capable of producing butyrate? Choose the most correct answer.
Select one or more:

a.
Anaerostipes, Bifidobacterium, and Lactobacillus

b.
Anaerotruncus, Faecalibacterium, Roseburia

c.
Atopobium, Faecalibacterium, Enterococcus

d.
Escherichia, Bacteroides, Peptococcus

A

b.

Anaerotruncus, Faecalibacterium, Roseburia

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32
Q

The potential for an antimicrobial agent to influence the gut microflora is related to its:
Select one:

a.
Pharmacokinetics

b.
Spectrum of activity

c.
Length of administration

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

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33
Q

Putrefaction is the process by which:
Select one:

a.
Oligosaccharides are fermented

b.
Non-starch polysaccharides are fermented

c.
Protein is fermented

d.
Resistant starch is fermented

A

c.

Protein is fermented

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34
Q

Which of the following disease states has been associated with gastrointestinal dysbiosis?
Select one or more:

a.
Obesity and Type 2 Diabetes

b.
Chronic Fatigue Syndrome and Autism

c.
Depression and Anxiety

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

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35
Q

Causes of dysbiosis include:
Select one:

a.
Antibiotics

b.
Stress

c.
Birth via Caesarean section

d.
All of the above

A

d.

All of the above

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36
Q

The main cause of gastrooesophageal reflux is:
Select one:

a.
High gastric acid output

b.
Cigarette smoking

c.
Low gastric acid output

d.
Lower esophageal sphincter incompetence

A

d.

Lower esophageal sphincter incompetence

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37
Q

Melatonin helps in GERD by:
Select one:

a.
Inhibiting gastric acid output

b.
Inhibiting nitric oxide biosynthesis; thereby reducing the rate of transient relaxations in the LES

c.
Strengthening the LES

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

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38
Q

In human clinical trials, which agent(s) appears to be the most effective in eradicating H. pylori when used without antibiotics?
Select one:

a.
Mastic gum (Pistacia lentiscus var Chia)
b.
Rhubarb root (Rheum emodi)
c.
Black seed (Nigella sativa)

d.
Vitamin C

e.
Vitamin E and C

A 
c.
Black seed (Nigella sativa)
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39
Q

All of the following agents can be used to improve the efficacy of antibiotics in eradicating H. pylori except:
Select one:

a.
Vitamin C and vitamin E

b.
Lactose

c.
Vitamin C

d.
Zinc carnosine

e.
Lactobacillus acidophilus La5 and Bifidobacterium lactis Bb12

A

b.

Lactose

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40
Q

According to human clinical trials, which agent appears to have the greatest effect in speeding the healing of peptic ulcers?
Select one:

a.
Zinc carnosine

b.
Cabbage juice

c.
Melatonin

d.
Mastic gum

A

b.

Cabbage juice

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41
Q

Causes of peptic ulcer disease include all of the following except one. Choose the exception:
Select one:

a.
Helicobacter pylori

b.
A predominantly wholefoods, plant-based diet

c.
Use of oral corticosteroids

d.
Use of NSAIDs

e.
Use of aspirin

A

b.

A predominantly wholefoods, plant-based diet

42
Q

All of the following foods or drinks inhibit the growth of Helicobacter pylori except:
Select one:

a.
Green tea

b.
Grapes

c.
Alfalfa sprouts

d.
Bilberries

A

c.

Alfalfa sprouts

43
Q

To facilitate contact between Helicobacter pylori and anti-microbial agents (natural or pharmaceutical), which agent(s) should be co-administered?
Select one:

a.
N-acetyl cysteine

b.
Lactobacillus reuteri MM53

c.
Lactobacillus acidophilus La5 and Bifidobacterium lactis Bb12

d.
Zinc carnosine

e.
B and C

A

a.

N-acetyl cysteine

44
Q

Which dietary agent causes impaired esophageal motility, increased gastric acid secretion, transient lower esophageal relaxations and slows gastric emptying?
Select one:

a.
Fatty foods

b.
Coffee

c.
Chocolate

d.
Alcohol

A

d.

Alcohol

45
Q

Other contributing factors in GERD include:
Select one:

a.
Delayed gastric emptying

b.
Impaired esophageal acid clearance

c.
Decreased salivation

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

46
Q

Slow gastric emptying contributes to GERD by:
Select one:

a.
increasing the amount of time for Helicobacter pylori to eat the food. Which results in increased gas production; causing belching and reflux

b.
increasing the length of time refluxate is available in the stomach

c.
increasing gastric distension, which has been found to increase the rate of transient LES relaxations

d.
A and B

e.
B and C

A

e.
B and C

increasing the length of time refluxate is available in the stomach

increasing gastric distension, which has been found to increase the rate of transient LES relaxations

47
Q

Key risk factors for GERD development include all the following except one. Choose the exception.

Select one or more:

a.
Physical inactivity

b.
High BMI

c.
Smoking

d.
Pregnancy

A

a.

Physical inactivity

48
Q

Which of the following nutrients has been shown to be capable of reversing Barrett’s esophagus in humans?

Select one or more:

a.
Beta-carotene

b.
Vitamin E

c.
Lycopene

d.
Vitamin C

A

a.

Beta-carotene

49
Q

Wheat allergy can be differentiated from celiac disease and gluten sensitivity by:
Select one:

a.
The presence of a positive IgE test result

b.
The presence of a positive AGA IgA test result

c.
The presence of a positive tTg IgG test result

d.
The presence of a positive tTg IgA test result

A

a.

The presence of a positive IgE test result

50
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms occur in celiac disease?

Select one:

a.
Diarrhea

b.
Constipation

c.
Vomiting

d.
All of the above

A

d.

All of the above

51
Q

Fructose malabsorption is more common in which gastrointestinal conditions?
Select one:

a.
GERD and Peptic Ulcer disease

b.
Functional dyspepsia and Crohn’s disease

c.
IBS and GERD

d.
Gastritis and IBS

e.
Crohn’s disease and diverticular disease

A

b.

Functional dyspepsia and Crohn’s disease

52
Q

Which of the following substances interferes with fructose absorption?
Select one:

a.
Dextrose

b.
Galactose

c.
Sorbitol

d.
Glucose

A

c.

Sorbitol

53
Q

Which of the following is a reason for the rising prevalence of celiac disease?
Select one:

a.
Increased frequency of C-section births

b.
Increase in the gluten content of currently grown wheat varieties

c.
Shortened duration of breastfeeding

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

54
Q

Ideally, an adequate dose of gluten needs to be consumed for how long prior to celiac disease testing to ensure the accuracy of the result?
Select one:

a.
6 weeks

b.
5 weeks

c.
4 weeks

d.
3 weeks

e.
2 weeks

A

a.

6 weeks

55
Q

Which of these fruits should be acceptable for a patient with fructose malabsorption to consume?
Select one:

a.
Apples, cherries and pears

b.
Bananas, blueberries and fresh figs

c.
Apricots, persimmons, grapes

d.
Plums, bananas and pears

e.
Watermelon, mango and lychees

A

b.

Bananas, blueberries and fresh figs

56
Q

Which of these vegetables should be acceptable for a patient with fructose malabsorption to consume?
Select one:

a.
Alfalfa sprouts and green beans

b.
Potatoes and celery

c.
Beetroot (beets) and zucchini

d.
A and B

e.
A and C

A

d.
A and B

Alfalfa sprouts and green beans

Potatoes and celery

57
Q

Fructose malabsorption causes depression as a result of:
Select one:

a.
Fermentation of fructose creates toxins that when absorbed reduce the production of melatonin

b.
Fermentation of fructose creates short chain fatty acids that when absorbed decrease the livers capacity to detoxify endotoxins and ammonia

c.
Decreased tryptophan and folic acid absorption

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

c.

Decreased tryptophan and folic acid absorption

58
Q

Indicators of “hidden” celiac disease include:
Select one:

a.
Iron deficiency anemia

b.
Delayed puberty

c.
Raised liver enzymes (AST and/or ALT)

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

59
Q

Which of the following substances does not improve absorption of fructose?
Select one:

a.
Glucose

b.
L-alanine

c.
L-glutamine

d.
Erythritol

e.
L-phenylalanine

A

d.

Erythritol

60
Q

Nutritional deficiencies of all of the following nutrients except one are common in celiac disease. Choose the one nutrient that is not commonly impacted in celiac disease.
Select one:

a.
Calcium

b.
Ascorbic acid

c.
Magnesium

d.
selenium

e.
Zinc

A

b.

Ascorbic acid

61
Q

Treatment of celiac disease differs from that of gluten sensitivity in that:
Select one:

a.
It requires a strict gluten-free diet

b.
Additional small intestinal healing measures may be required

c.
It doesn’t require a strict gluten-free diet

d.
Nutritional supplementation with a high-potency multivitamin/mineral preparation is needed

A

d.

Nutritional supplementation with a high-potency multivitamin/mineral preparation is needed

62
Q

Synbiotics are a combination of prebiotic and probiotic agents. This combination is supposed to:
Select one:

a.
enhance the survival of the probiotic bacteria through the upper GIT

b.
improve implantation of the probiotic strain in the colon

c.
have a stimulating effect on the growth and/or activities of both the exogenously provided probiotic strain(s) and the endogenous inhabitants of the bowel

d.
Do all of the above

e.
Do none of the above

A

d.

Do all of the above

63
Q

Which prebiotic has been shown to increase microbial β-glucosidase activity in the colon?
Select one:

a.
Larch arabinogalactans

b.
Fructooligosaccharides

c.
Galactooligosaccharides

d.
Apple pectin

e.
Lactulose

A

b.

Fructooligosaccharides

64
Q

Lactase persistence is more common in:
Select one:

a.
People of African descent

b.
People of Asian descent

c.
People of northern European descent

d.
People of Mexican descent

A

c.

People of northern European descent

65
Q

A lectin in which foodstuff can help treat giardiasis:
Select one:

a.
Chick peas

b.
Oat bran

c.
Mung beans

d.
Wheat germ

A

d.

Wheat germ

66
Q

Lactase nonpersistence is:
Select one:

a.
A condition in which too much cow’s milk is drunk

b.
A condition in which malabsorbed lactose produces symptoms

c.
A condition in which a sizable fraction of a dosage of lactose is not absorbed in the small bowel and thus is delivered to the colon

d.
A condition in which the brush border lactase activity is only a small fraction of the infantile level

A

d.

A condition in which the brush border lactase activity is only a small fraction of the infantile level

67
Q

Causes of secondary lactose intolerance include:
Select one:

a.
Chemotherapy

b.
Viral gastroenteritis

c.
Celiac disease

d.
All of the above

A

d.

All of the above

68
Q

Which of the following probiotic strains is the most appropriate to utilize in the treatment of giardiasis?
Select one:

a.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae var boulardii Biocodex

b.
Bifidobacterium lactis Bb12

c.
Lactobacillus plantarum La5

d.
Escherichia coli Nissle 1917

e.
Lactobacillus reuteri MM53

A

a.

Saccharomyces cerevisiae var boulardii Biocodex

69
Q

When taken on an empty stomach, the maximum dose of lactose that is generally well-tolerated in patients with lactose intolerance is:
Select one:

a.
12g

b.
14g

c.
18g

d.
24g

e.
36g

A

a.

12g

70
Q

Overall dietary recommendations to treat giardiasis include which of the following:
Select one:

a.
Eat a wholefoods, high-fiber diet

b.
Avoid simple sugars (e.g., lactose and sucrose)

c.
Decrease fat intake

d.
All of the above

e.
None of the above

A

d.

All of the above

71
Q

A condition commonly associated with lactose intolerance is:
Select one:

a.
Celiac disease

b.
Diverticulitis

c.
Irritable bowel syndrome

d.
A and B

e.
A and C

A

e.
A and C

Celiac disease
IBS

72
Q

Lactose is a sugar found in all mammalian milks
Select one or more:

a.
False

b.
True

A

b.

True

73
Q

Giardia infects what section of the gut?
Select one or more:

a.
All of the above

b.
Stomach

c.
Large intestine

d.
Small intestine

A

d.

Small intestine

74
Q

Risk factors for SIBO include all of the following except:
Select one:

a.
moderate alcohol consumption

b.
use of opiates

c.
proton pump inhibitor use

d.
radiotherapy-induced enteritis

A

a.

moderate alcohol consumption

75
Q

The microorganisms involved in SIBO can:
Select one:

a.
ferment carbohydrates only

b.
ferment carbohydrates and putrefy proteins

c.
cause deficiency of vitamin B12

d.
a and c

e.
b and c

A

e.
b and c

ferment carbohydrates and putrefy proteins

cause deficiency of vitamin B12

76
Q

Based on current best evidence, which breath test is considered the most accurate for the diagnosis of SIBO:
Select one:

a.
fructose breath test

b.
glucose breath test

c.
lactose breath test

d.
lactulose breath test

A

b.

glucose breath test

77
Q

Probiotics can play a role in the management of SIBO by:
Select one:

a.
selectively modifying the small intestinal ecosystem

b.
stimulating the migrating motor complex

c.
helping to heal the leaky gut

d.
all of the above

e.
none of the above

A

d.

all of the above

78
Q

Normal GI protective mechanisms against SIBO include:
Select one:

a.
gastrointestinal secretory IgA secretion

b.
gastric acid

c.
normal intestinal motility

d.
all of the above

A

d.

all of the above

79
Q

Gut healing agents that could be utilized in SIBO include:
Select one:

a.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae var. boulardii Biocodex

b.
glutamine

c.
lactulose

d.
partially hydrolysed guar gum

e.
all of the above

A

e.

all of the above

80
Q

Which of the following conditions is not commonly associated with SIBO?
Select one:

a.
acne vulgaris

b.
Parkinson’s disease

c.
NAFLD

d.
fibromyalgia

e.
rheumatoid arthritis

A

a.

acne vulgaris

81
Q

In patients with SIBO, prebiotics are:
Select one:

a.
potentially useful therapeutic tools

b.
contraindicated

A

a.

potentially useful therapeutic tools

82
Q

The medicinal herb with activity against the widest range of SIBO-related microorganisms is:
Select one:

a.
pomegranate rind

b.
green tea

c.
peppermint essential oil

d.
dried garlic extract

e.
none of the above

A

a.

pomegranate rind

83
Q

According to human research, the herbal medicines with the most supportive evidence in the treatment of Crohn’s disease are:
Select one or more:

a.
turmeric, chamomile, and peppermint

b.
bilberries, turmeric, and barberry

c.
wormwood, boswellia, and turmeric

d.
Aloe vera, slippery elm, and marshmallow root

A

c.

wormwood, boswellia, and turmeric

84
Q

Supplementation of what vitamin that appears to be most efficacious in the treatment of Crohn’s disease?
Select one or more:

a.
Vitamin A

b.
Vitamin D

c.
Vitamin B9

d.
Vitamin B12

A

b.

Vitamin D

85
Q

The most important aspect of dealing with a child with viral gastroenteritis is:
Select one:

a.
preventing dehydration

b.
shortening the duration of the diarrhea

c.
giving the right probiotic strain

d.
shortening the duration of the vomiting

A

a.

preventing dehydration

86
Q

Which of the following agents can be used to treat viral gastroenteritis?
Select one:

a.
carob powder

b.
cinnamon bark tea

c.
blackberry or raspberry leaf tea

d.
all of the above

e.
none of the above

A

d.

all of the above

87
Q

Etiological factors involved in the development of Crohn’s disease include all of the following except one. Choose the exception.
Select one:

a.
living at higher latitudes

b.
recent antibiotic usage

c.
formula feeding in infancy and early childhood

d.
living in a rural environment

A

d.

living in a rural environment

88
Q

Dietary risk factors for Crohn’s disease development include:
Select one:

a.
a high refined sugar intake

b.
decreased consumption of vegetables and fruit

c.
consumption of a low fiber diet

d.
increased consumption of animal protein and a high total protein intake

e.
all of the above

A

e.

all of the above

89
Q

Conditions associated with Crohn’s disease include all of the following except one. Choose the exception.
Select one:

a.
SIBO

b.
lactose intolerance

c.
peptic ulcer disease

d.
Clostridium difficile infection

e.
fructose intolerance

A

c.

peptic ulcer disease

90
Q

Dietary suggestions that may improve gastrointestinal signs and symptoms of Crohn’s disease patients in remission or prevent relapse include:
Select one:

a.
eating a predominantly plant-based diet rich in antioxidants

b.
low lactose or lactose free diet

c.
low fructose diet

d.
all of the above

e.
high intake of animal protein and processed foods

A

d.

all of the above

91
Q

The most appropriate probiotic strain for the treatment of viral gastroenteritis is:
Select one:

a.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae var. boulardii Biocodex

b.
Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG

c.
Lactobacillus rhamnosus GR1

d.
Lactobacillus reuteri MM53

e.
none of the above

A

b.

Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG

92
Q

What Western herbal medicine appears to have the greatest evidence in support for its use in the treatment of IBS?
Select one or more:

a.
Peppermint essential oil

b.
Asafoetida

c.
Turmeric

d.
Fennel essential oil

A

a.

Peppermint essential oil

93
Q

Etiological factors involved in IBS include:
Select one:

a.
dysbiosis

b.
altered GIT motility

c.
low-grade inflammation

d.
enhanced visceral perception

e.
all of the above

A

e.

all of the above

94
Q

Risk factors for the development of IBS include all of the following except:
Select one:

a.
stressful life events

b.
familial disposition

c.
antibiotic use

d.
tinea versicolour

e.
acute GIT infection

A

d.

tinea versicolour

95
Q

The three GIT symptoms that have the greatest negative impact upon the quality of life of IBS sufferers are:
Select one:

a.
distension, diarrhea and flatulence

b.
bloating, abdominal pain and straining at stool

c.
frequent belching, bloating and straining at stool

d.
bloating, diarrhea and frequent belching

e.
none of the above

A

b.

bloating, abdominal pain and straining at stool

96
Q

The prebiotic of choice in IBS is:
Select one:

a.
galactooligosaccharides

b.
fructooligosaccharides

c.
lactulose

d.
lactitol

e.
all of the above

A

a.

galactooligosaccharides

97
Q

Choose the single answer that best answers the question. Agents that have demonstrated a capability to decrease one of the key underlying factors in IBS, visceral hypersensitivity, include:
Select one or more:

a.
Both Iberogast and Lactobacillus reuteri DSM 17938

b.
Melatonin

c.
Lactobacillus reuteri DSM 17938

d.
Iberogast herbal formula

e.
Both Iberogast and Melatonin

A

e.

Both Iberogast and Melatonin

98
Q

Other dietary considerations in IBS include:
Select one:

a.
FODMAPs

b.
gluten

c.
IgG allergens

d.
all of the above

e.
none of the above

A

d.

all of the above

99
Q

The main tools used to normalize bowel habits in C-IBS are:
Select one:

a.
fiber

b.
exercise

c.
fluid

d.
all of the above

e.
none of the above

A

d.

all of the above

100
Q

Treatment aims in IBS include:
Select one:

a.
optimizing the GIT microflora

b.
minimize IBS symptoms

c.
diminish visceral hypersensitivity

d.
all of the above

e.
none of the above

A

d.

all of the above

MSN 6204 (2 decks)

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