Quiz Unit 6

Question 1

Explain the difference between hyperplasia and hypertrophy.

Answer 1

Hypertrophy is enlargement of a single cell and hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells

Question 2

If cells divide and form tissue when there is no real need for them it is called a _____?

Answer 2

Neoplasm or neoplastic cells

Question 3

How do neoplastic cells differ from normal cells?

Answer 3

They don’t undergo apoptosis, have no limit to cell division, and are migratory

Question 4

How are embryonic cells like a neoplasm?

Answer 4

They have no response to apoptosis, have rapid/continuous cell division, large nuclear cytoplasm, have no specific function, anaplastic morphology, adhere loosely together, and are able to migrate

Question 5

Define cancer initiation.

Answer 5

The changes made to a cell by carcinogens that begin the mutation

Question 6

Define cancer promotion.

Answer 6

The process in which the initiated cell divides and grows into a tumor

Question 7

Define cancer progression.

Answer 7

This involves the development of blood supply to the tumor, and subcolonies appear on the original tumor, and cells begin to adapt to adverse conditions.

Question 8

How is cancer spread throughout the body?

Answer 8

Through a process called metastasis, where cells break off the original tumor and penetrate the blood supply and invade surrounding tissue.

Question 9

How is cancer classified?

Answer 9

By tissue type, anatomic site, or biologic behavior

Question 10

Explain oncogene activation.

Answer 10

Proto-oncogenes normally are activated around the 8th day of development. When the normal gene is exposed to carcinogens, they are turned on, and overexpress, upsetting the balance between cell growth and cell limitation

Question 11

Name a common chemical carcinogen.

Answer 11

Tobacco

Question 12

What would be considered physical carcinogens?

Answer 12

Tissue trauma (irritation), and radiation

Question 13

Name another type of carcinogen.

Answer 13

Viral carcinogens (oncoviruses)

Question 14

Besides viruses/chemicals/trauma, what are some other causes of cancer?

Answer 14

Diet (low fiber/high fat/additives), age, genetics, immune function

Question 15

How are cancer cells graded?

Answer 15

By how similar they look to the original cells. High grade cancers look very different, while low grade cancers look very similar

Question 16

Most cancer cells are __euploid, meaning that they have more or less than 46 chromosomes.

Answer 16

AN

Question 17

What is the difference between clinical, surgical, and pathologic staging?

Answer 17

Clinical is done by biopsy/x-ray/bloodwork/PSA. Surgical is done by physically assessing size/number/sites/spreading. Pathologic is done by looking at tissue harvested during surgery and is the the most definitive

Question 18

Describe “TNM” staging stand for?

Answer 18

T = Tumor. N = Nodes. M = Metastasis

Question 19

Describe tumor staging within the TNM system.

Answer 19

Tx = Unassessable. T0 = No primary Tumor. T1s = Tumor insitu (in place). T1,2,3,4 = Size of tumor

Question 20

Describe nodal staging within the TNM system.

Answer 20

Nx = Unassessable. N0 = No lymph node involvement. N1,2,3 = Increasing node involvement

Question 21

Describe the “M” in the TNM system of staging.

Answer 21

Mx = Unassessable. M0 = No distant metastasis. M1 = Distant metastasis

Question 22

For what type of cancer is the TNM system unuseful?

Answer 22

Lymphatic and hematopoietic cancers

Question 23

In radiation treatment for cancer, what is the difference between Exposure and Dose?

Answer 23

Exposure is the amount of radiation you are exposed to and dose is the amount absorbed.

Question 24

What are the 2 types of radiation therapy?

Answer 24

Brachytherapy (source within the body), and teletherapy (beam originates outside the body).

Question 25

Explain the difference between primary prevention and secondary prevention?

Answer 25

Primary = Stop it before it develops (diet, etc.). Secondary = Target the cancer before it spreads/early detection

Question 26

How should you teach a patient to clean an irradiated spot on the skin?

Answer 26

Wash with soap and water, do not use a washcloth, rinse thoroughly, pat dry, do not move skin targets placed to aid in targeting radiation

Question 27

What are some precautions for those undergoing radiation therapy?

Answer 27

Use no powders/perfumes/lotions, wear soft clothing, avoid belts/buckles/straps, avoid heat/sun exposure, be aware of dry mouth in head/neck treatment, and be aware of bone break risk for bone radiation

Question 28

If a radiation patient suffers from alopecia, what do you tell them?

Answer 28

It should grow back in about 1 month after the treatments have stopped

Question 29

What is mucositis and what nursing measures are done for it?

Answer 29

Ulcerations in the mouth. Examine mouth often, document size/location/character, obtain specimen for lab, brush teeth/tongue with soft brush, rinse with hydrogen peroxide q12 hrs, avoid alcohol/glycerin swabs, rinse/spit salt water, use lip balm, avoid hard/spicy food, VS q4hr, change IV tubing daily, observe for thrombocytopenia, monitor WBC/RBC, avoid catheters, neutropenic precautions.

Question 30

What is the most common pain med for cancer patients? Others?

Answer 30

Morphine. NSAIDS & Opioids

Question 31

What life threatening condition arises from cancer therapy, but is an indication that therapy is working?

Answer 31

Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS). So many cells are dying that it floods the body with more potassium/purines/etc, that the body can’t excrete them fast enough and they build up

Question 32

What cell does HIV primarily attack?

Answer 32

CD4 helper T-cells

Question 33

What are the 5 types of HIV fighting drugs and how does each work?

Answer 33

Entry inhibitors (inhibit entry into CD4), Fusion inhibitors (inhibit fusion to proteins within the cell), Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (inhibit reverse transcriptase), Integrase inhibitors (inhibit insertion of new viral DNA into host cell), Protease inhibitors (inhibit new HIV from being “cut” into several new particles).

Question 34

How is AIDS differentiated from HIV infection?

Answer 34

Full blown AIDS means a CD4 count of less than 200, or invasion by an opportunistic infection. Once AIDS diagnosis is made, it stays, no matter what the CD4 count does.

Question 35

How do you tell if an HIV patient is category A, B, or C?

Answer 35

CD4 of >500 = A1. CD4 of 200-499 = A2. CD4 of <200 = A3. B = Same as A, but add 1 more problem associated with decreased immune function. C = Includes A, but add cancers.

Question 36

What are the 3 ways AIDS is transmitted?

Answer 36

Sexually, parenterally, or perinatal

Question 37

What tests determine if HIV is present?

Answer 37

ELISA first, then if positive the Western Bot test is done. If 2 or more antigens detected, it is + and they have HIV

Question 38

What is viral load referring to in HIV cases?

Answer 38

It is a measure of the quantity of the virus present. It is useful in determining disease progression and effectiveness of Tx

Question 39

What is HAART?

Answer 39

Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy. 3 or more drugs are combined to fight HIV