quiz review ppt WY Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of RTK/Ras/NF1/MAPK?

A

Prosurvival path.

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2
Q

What would happen if there was a mutation of RTK/Ras/NF1/MAPK?

A

Ras or NF1 mutation could cause constitutive stimulation of pathway if GTP not hydrolyzed.

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3
Q

What is the function of PI3K/PKB-Akt/BAD-P/Bcl2/BAX/CytC?

A

BAD is pro-apoptotic; Bcl2 is anti-apoptotic. Phosphorylation of BAD allows Bcl2 to bind BAX and inhibits its oligomerization and CytC leaves mitochondrion

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4
Q

What is the function of CDK/Rb/E2F?

A

Rb is a brake. It binds and inhibits E2F transcription factor thus causing pause in the cell cycle.

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5
Q

What is the function of P53/p21/Rb/E2F?

A

P53 is a brake and can also cause apoptosis.

P53 is active with DNA damage. It stimulates p21 expression. P21 is a CKI and it inhibits CDK-cyclin complex.

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6
Q

What are the syndromes associated with Rb and TP53 mutations?

A

The cancer predisposition syndromes; Li Fraumeni if there is a TP53 mutation; Rb mutations can lead to retinoblastoma and other cancers.

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7
Q

In cell signaling and apoptosis, what does Bcl2 do?

A

Bcl2 inhibits BAX oligomerization and is anti-apoptotic.

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8
Q

What is oligomerization?

A

The combining of a few monomers, in a set number, to form an oligomer. An oligomer is different than a polymer in that, in theory, a polymer could have an infinite number of monomers whereas an oligomer has only a particular number.

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9
Q

What does p53 do when it finds DNA damage?

A

With DNA damage, p53 induces Puma which binds Bcl-2, promoting Bcl-2’s dissociation from Bax

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10
Q

What happens when BAD is de-phosphorylated?

A

Unphosphorylated Bad binds Bcl-2 & further inhibits Bcl interaction w/ Bax

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11
Q

When Bcl2 can’t interact with Bax, what does Bax do?

A

Bax oligomerizes & forms a mitochondrial channel.

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12
Q

What happens if Bax is able to oligomerize into a mitochondrial channel?

A

Cyt C leaves the mitochondria and binds to Apaf-1, which initiates a caspase cascade.

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13
Q

What happens when a caspase cascade has been initiated?

A

Substrates are cleaved, apoptosis results

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14
Q

What are the three types of cancer genes?

A

Oncogenes
Tumor suppressor genes
DNA repair/cell cycle genes

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15
Q

What are some distinguishing features of a retrovirus tumor (as opposed to a DNA tumor virus)

A

Retroviruses carry oncogenes picked up from a genome. They are not a significant cause of human cancer as far as we know.

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16
Q

What are some distinguishing features of DNA tumor viruses (as opposed to a retrovirus tumor)

A

There is no ortholog of DNA tumor viruses in human or animal genomes. For example, the T antigen gene of SV40 virus evolved on its own. HPV is a DNA tumor virus and it causes cervical cancer.

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17
Q

What are features specific to DNA tumor viruses?

A

DNA tumor viruses have a DNA genome, they can cause human cancer, and vaccines can help.

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18
Q

What are features specific to retroviruses?

A

Retroviruses have an RNA genome, the transforming gene has a human counterpart, they can integrate into the host genome, and they can be used for gene therapy.

19
Q

Can both retroviruses and DNA Tumor viruses cause animal cancer?

A

Yes

20
Q

Between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes, which one is activated by a mutation and which one is inactivated?

A

Oncogenes are ACTIVATED by mutations.

TSGs are INACTIVATED by mutations.

21
Q

What do tumor suppressor genes and oncogenes have in common?

A

Both can be involved in cell growth, in both there are somatic mutations associated with cancer.

22
Q

What do oncogenes rarely do that tumor suppressor genes always do?

A

Have germline mutations associated with cancer, and follow autosomal dominant inheritance.

23
Q

How do we know HPV causes cervical cancer?

A

DNA sequences of HPV types 16 and 18 (high-risk viral types) are present in 85% of cervical squamous cell carcinomas and high-grade in-situ neoplasia.

24
Q

How does HPV cause cervical cancer?

A

Viral DNA is integrated into host genome causing disruption of a viral gene that leads to overexpression of the viral oncoproteins E6 and E7.

25
Q

Once the HPV DNA is integrated into the host genome, what do oncoproteins E6 and E7 do?

A

E6 and E7 proteins bind to p53 and Rb proteins respectively and inactivate them, causing loss of cell cycle control, genomic instability, and transformation to the neoplastic phenotype.

26
Q

What are the three tumor suppressor genes we talked about this week?

A

p16, p21 and Rb

27
Q

Go through the pathway of what happens when E6 is produced.

A

E6 binds to p53, preventing it from transcribing p21, performing DNA repair, and from initiating apoptosis.

28
Q

In terms of activating proto-oncogenes, describe what happens with 9:22 reciprocal translocation.

A

9:22 reciprocal translocation on the Philadelphia chromosome;
This causes bcr-abl fusion;
It is associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML);
Treated with imatinib (inhibitor of tyrosine kinase)

29
Q

In terms of activating proto-oncogenes, describe what happens with 8:14 translocation.

A

8:14 translocation is associated with Burkitt lymphoma;
after translocation, c-Myc (a gene for a transcription factor) expression is regulated by IgH promoter and is overexpressed.
This results in overexpression of many other genes, including cell proliferation genes.

30
Q

What does it mean that oncogenes are dominant at a cellular level?

A

It means that a single mutation which will activate the oncogene on only one allele will cause the mutation to be expressed.

31
Q

What are the proto-oncogenes that are often activated and overexpressed in breast cancer? How is that treated?

A

HER2/neu genes (ErbB protein family)

Treated with monoclonal antibody drug trastuzumab (Herceptin) which targets tyrosine kynase

32
Q

Germline heritable oncogene mutations are rare. What is the important exception for this week?

A

RET proto-oncogene (gain of function mutation)
- Activating point mutations in RET can give rise to the hereditary cancer syndrome known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2).
-Associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma, parathyroid tumors, pheochromocytoma
RET stands for “rearranged during transfection”

33
Q

Is MEN 2 related to MEN 1?

A

No, not really. MEN 1 is a mutation of a different gene, which causes a different spectrum of disease. (MEN 2 Is an oncogene, and MEN 1 is a TSG)

34
Q

What are the hallmarks of hereditary predisposition cancers?

A
Earlier age of onset
Multiple primaries (and bilateral involvement in paired organs)
35
Q

Tumor Suppressor genes are inherited with autosomal dominant genetics but act recessively at the cellular level. What does this mean in plain English?

A

TS genes are passed through the autosome and sorted like all other genes. However, like autosomal recessive genes, you need two mutated alleles in one cell for that cell to become cancer. If the normal version of that allele mutates at some point, that is called the “second hit” that puts you on the road to cancer. All of this will happen in a single somatic cell, which is why it is referred to as “at the cellular level.”

36
Q

Important facts about Retinoblastoma

A

A form of eye cancer caused by a gene defect in the Rb protein, which is a regulator of the cell cycle. Loss of function of both of these Tumor Suppressor Genes leads to cancer.

During early development, retinoblast cells differentiate into cells that fill the eye. If there are two hits on the Rb gene, these cells can continue to divide until they become cancer.

You see no red light reflex when you shine light into the eye, because the tumor blocks return of light (Leukocoria)

Primarily a pediatric cancer.

37
Q

What might help you differentiate between hereditary and sporadic Retinoblastoma?

A

In hereditary, the first hit was inherited from a parent and thus is a germ-line mutation. That means the first hit would be present throughout all the retinoblasts in both eye. In sporadic, you would need to randomly develop two distinct “hits”.

With that in mind I would expect a bilateral (in both eyes) presentation of Retinoblastoma or multiple primary sites of it in one eye to be indicative of the hereditary form (the odds would be so low of getting two somatic mutations to the same cell in each eye simultaneously).

38
Q

Ways you can get a second hit

A

Somatic mutation of the good allele

Lose the locus from an unaffected parent by chromosome loss or by mitotic recombination.

Hypermethylation: gene silencing of the good copy via epigenetic change.

39
Q

What is Rb protein and how does it work?

A

Rb is a brake for cell division.

It binds and inhibts E2F transcription factors, causing a pause in the cell cycle.

Two hit mutations in it can lead to retinoblastoma and other forms of cancer.

40
Q

TP53 (P53)

A

The guardian of the genome:

  • causes cell cycle to pause so DNA damage can be reparaired
  • also can initiate apoptosis if damaged cell needs to be eliminated
  • mutation in P53 can cause Li-Fraumaeni syndrome ( a cancer predisposition syndrome)
41
Q

How does P53 work?

A

When DNA damage is detected, transcription factor P53 is activated:

  • P53 stimulates transcription of P21, a CDK inhibitor
  • P21 binds and inactivates a CDK-cyclin complex
  • Cell is arrested in G-1 until DNA damage is repaired or it dies.
42
Q

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

A

Hereditary cancer pre-disposition syndrome that greatly increases the risk of developing cancer.

Results from a child receiving a bad copy of the P53 allele.

Though P53 is a tumor suppressor gene, Li-Fraumeni phenotype is passed down in an autosomal dominant way because the second hit is virtually inevitable with every cell in the body having the first hit.

43
Q

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome: Presentation and Treatment

A

Characterized by early onset of cancer/and or multiple different cancers because of inheriting a bad P53 allele.

Typically breast, bone, brain, lung, skin, and other cancers.

Patient must avoid mutagens like x-rays. They need colonoscopies and other screening exams frequently.