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Emily: Pharm 2 > Quiz Review: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 > Flashcards

Quiz Review: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Beta 1 adrenergic receptors are linked to which G-protein:

A

-Gs

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2
Q

Which is the following is the main mechanism of signal termination for norepinephrine:

A

Presynaptic reuptake

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3
Q

Which medication has the highest risk of developing tachyarrhythmias?

A

-Epinephrine

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4
Q

To reduce the risk of toxicity with nitroprusside, which medication may be added to the same bag for prevention:

A

-sodium thiosulfate

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5
Q

Which medication is safest to reduce blood pressure for patients with coronary artery disease?

A

nitroglycerine

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6
Q

-When deciding between phenylephrine and ephedrine for a pregnant patient, which parameter should be considered:

A

heart rate

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7
Q

T/F: Vasopressin is always preferred over epinephrine due to improved effectiveness during cardiac arrest:

A

False

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8
Q

Which medication has the highest risk of agitation or psychosis when given for an extended period of time

A
  • ephedrine

- norepinephrine

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9
Q

Hydralazine predominantly affects which part of the vasculature:

A

Dilates arteries to reduce afterload

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10
Q

Which electrolyte is responsible for aiding in Norepinephrine release from its presynaptic vesicle?

A

Calcium

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11
Q

What is the main mechanism of ephedrine tachyphylaxis?

A

-Reduced norepinephrine release

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12
Q

Enalaprilat is responsible for blocking the enzyme responsible for which reaction:

A

Angiotensin1 to angiotensin 2

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13
Q

Which of the following would be the least safe to give to a pregnant patient:

A

enalaprilat

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14
Q

Midazolam is a CYP3A4 substrate. Diltiazem is a CYP3A4 inhibitor. What reaction may happen when given together:

A

Over sedation

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15
Q

If dexmedetomidine is given as a rapid bolus, what cardiovascular side effects are possible:

A

-hypertension and bradycardia

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16
Q

Which electrolyte needs to be monitored closely when a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor?

A

-Potassium

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17
Q

Which pharmacokinetic parameter is responsible for esmolol’s short duration of action metabolim:

A

Metabolism

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18
Q

Which beta blocker has the highest risk of side effects due to its extended mechanism of action?

A

Labetalol

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19
Q

Which beta blocker could possibly exacerbate bronchospasms:

A

-Propranolol

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20
Q

When organ damage is caused by accelerate hypertension, it is important to correct the blood pressure as quickly as possible to avoid further damage:

A

FALSE

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21
Q

Which of the follwoing does not need to be tapered to avoid withdrawal symptoms:

A

Nicardipine

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22
Q

Which of the following is the most potent negative inotrope?

A

Verapamil

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23
Q

A patient experiencing clonidine withdrawal may have all of the following side effects except:

A

bradycardia

24
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality greatly increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity:

A

hypokalemia

25
Q

Increasing heart rate puts a patient at risk of developing arrhythmias. which of the following has the highest risk of arrhythmia developement:

A

Isoproterenol

26
Q

Which lab value should be monitored closely after administration of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor:

A

Platelets

27
Q

Which type of arrhythmia is the most frequent cause of death from digoxin toxicity:

A

Ventricular fibrillation

28
Q

What may be present on EKG when a patient is taking digoxin to suggest digoxin therapy, not toxicity:

A

Swooping ST segment

29
Q

According to the ALARM-AF trial, the use of inotropes has the possibility of increasing in hispital mortality.

A

TRUE

30
Q

Which receptor does dobutamine not effect:

A

Dopamine

31
Q

Which medication mmay potentially depress the ventilatory response to hypoemia due to it’s interaction with the carotid bodies:

A

Dopamine

32
Q

What is the general principle of the Frank Starling Curve:

A

Stroke volume increases with End diastolic Volume

33
Q

At high doses, which medication predominantly have alpha 1 effects:

A
  • Norepinephrine
  • Dopamine
  • Epinephrine
34
Q

Phase 0 of the action potential is effected by which electrolyte AND which class of antiarrhythmic:

A
  • Sodium

- Class1

35
Q

Reentry type arrhythmias are regulated predominantly by which electrolyte?

A

Sodium

36
Q

Torsades de Pointes (TdP) may be exacerbated by which electrolyte abnormality?

A

-Hypomagnesemia

37
Q

Which medication would be inappropriate for the treatment of atrial fibrillation?

A

-Lidocaine

38
Q

Which class of medication carries the highest proarrhythmic risk:

A

1c

39
Q

Lidocaine is classified as which type of antiarrhythmic:

A

1b

40
Q

A patient with Lupus should avoid which antiarrhytmic if possible, due to exacerbation of the condition?

A

Procainamide

41
Q

Adenosine produces an arrhythmia to stop an arrhythmia. What is seen on EKG after a dose of adenosine:

A

Third degree heart block

42
Q

Amiodarone has several significant side effects. Which of the following would not be caused by amiodarone?

A

Acute kidney failure and electrolyte abnormalities

43
Q

Verapamil will exacerbate an arrhythmia that has a re-entry mechanism?

A

True

44
Q

Which of the following medication may precipitate TdP?

A

Amiodarone

45
Q

Which adenosine receptor is primarily found in the cardiomyocytes:

A

A1

46
Q

Which of the following medications inhibits both bound and unbound clotting factors?

A

Alteplase

47
Q

Which ADP inhibitor only needs to be held 5 days prior to a procedure due to it’s reversible mechanism of action:

A

-Ticagrelor

48
Q

Which clotting factor combines the intrinsic and extinsic pathways to inititae the common pathway, and is also a drug target for several medication s, including warfarin, heparin, and enoxaparin

A

Xa

49
Q

A pregnant patient with a DVT may use which medication:

A

Enoxaparin

50
Q

A patient with a history of heparin induced thrombocytopenia may safely use which medication in the future for anticoagulation:

A

Bivaludin

51
Q

Which new oral medication has a similar mechanism of action to argatroban?

A

-Dabigatran

52
Q

Which of the following medications has the longest hold time prior to surgery:

A

-Clopidogrel

53
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia occurs how soon after initiation of the medciation in a heparin naive patient :

A

1 to 2 weeks

54
Q

Which of the following reaction is inhibited by amicar

A

Plasminogen to plasmin

55
Q

Which new anticoagulant has recommendation for discontinuation prior to surgery based on the patient’s kidney function?

A

Dabigatran`

56
Q

Which clotting factors are inhibited by Warfarin

A
  • 2
  • 7
  • 9
  • 10

Emily: Pharm 2 (11 decks)

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