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Spinal Anatomy > Quiz Questions Part 1 > Flashcards

Quiz Questions Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast: form bone
Osteocyte: maintain or nurture bone
Osteoclast: remodel bone

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2
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals.

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3
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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4
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber found in bone?

A

Type 1 collagen

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5
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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6
Q

What is wolffs law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors

Bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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7
Q

What are the three main responses of bone to allow it to be described as “living”?

A

Heal
Remodel under stressors and
Age

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8
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

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9
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramebranous ossification

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10
Q

What is the timing for appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to the third month in utero

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11
Q

What bones are derived from intramembranous ossification?

A

Nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, frontal, parietal, most of the mandible and clavicle, squama of the temporal and occipital bones and the greater wing of the sphenoid.

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12
Q

What bones of the facial skeleton are formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, maxilla and part of the mandible

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13
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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14
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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15
Q

What skull bones ossify by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

Mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones

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16
Q

What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering on bone?

A

Periosteum

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17
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelium
Muscle
Neural tissue
Connective tissue

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18
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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19
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal Anatomy?

A

Heterotopic and accessory bone

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20
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in non-bone location?

A

Heterotopic bone

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21
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

They are essentially cuboidal

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22
Q

What are the examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of carpals and tarsals

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23
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

Parietal bone and sternum

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24
Q

What is the characteristic of pneumatic bone?

A

Air spaces within the bone

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25
Q

What are the examples of pneumatic bone?

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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26
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid

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27
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

The bone develops within a tendon

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28
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bone?

A

Patella and pisiform

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29
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

Calcific deposits in pineal gland, heart and ligaments

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30
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

Para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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31
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

Elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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32
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

Linear, rounded and sharp

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33
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevations?

A

The line, ridge and crest

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34
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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35
Q

What is the definition of an osseous trochanter?

A

A large, blunt projection from the surface of bone with a significant base and height

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36
Q

What is the definition of and osseous malleolus?

A

A hammer-head likee elevation on the surface of bone

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37
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

Spine and process

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38
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

Linear and rounded

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39
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

Notch or incisure, groove and sulcus

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40
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

The fovea and fossa

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41
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fovea?

A

A shallow depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone.

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42
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

Ostium of orifice and hiatus

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43
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

An irregular opening on the surface of bone

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44
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

Foramen or canal

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45
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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46
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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47
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

Meatus

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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49
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

Flat facets and rounded facets

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50
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

Articular heads and articular condyles

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51
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

A knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

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52
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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53
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80

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54
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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55
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

The cranium

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56
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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57
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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58
Q

What bones form the facial skeleton?

A

Mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and zygomatic

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59
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14

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60
Q

How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?

A

6 bones

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61
Q

How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?

A

One bone

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62
Q

What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx

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63
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

The spine

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64
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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65
Q

What is the definition of “spine” as it pertains to the vertebral column?

A

The pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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66
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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67
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

The manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process

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68
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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69
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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70
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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71
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

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72
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

24 presacral segments, the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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73
Q

How many segments unite to form the sacrum?

A

5 segments

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74
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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75
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth

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76
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The ant bear and the three-toed sloth

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77
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The manatee and two-toed sloth

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78
Q

What does the term cervical refer to?

A

The region of the neck

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79
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

Breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

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80
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

The dorsal segments; the dorsals

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81
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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82
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

The loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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83
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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84
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

The holy bone or holy region

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85
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

A cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

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86
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

About 70 cm or 28 inches

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87
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

About 60 centimeters or 25 inches

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88
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

About 3 inches

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89
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region?

A

About 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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90
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

About 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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91
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

About 18 centimeters or 7 inches

92
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

About 12 centimeters or 5 inches

93
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

About 58 cm or 23 in

94
Q

What parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column?

A

The head, UL, ribs, viscera and pelvis

95
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

96
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accomodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 and the auricular surface

97
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

Motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location

98
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated witht the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

99
Q

What are the 3 layers of the embryo called?

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

100
Q

Invagination of the ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

Notocord

101
Q

What is the name given to mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

102
Q

What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column

A

Somites

103
Q

What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

Sclerotome

104
Q

List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

105
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

The perichordal blastema

106
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

Neural processes and costal processes

107
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

Intersegmental artery

108
Q

Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features?

A

A loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite

109
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

110
Q

What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

The intrasclerotomal fissure (of von Ebner)

111
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature?

A

The vertebral blastema

112
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

The segmental artery

113
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

Chondrification

114
Q

Chondrification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

The cervical region

115
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?

A

Centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

116
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

Six… 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for each transverse process

117
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in cartilagenous vertebra?

A

During the 7th embryonic week

118
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossificaiton for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

119
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Centrum centers and neural arch centers

120
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?

A

Cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

121
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?

A

Neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

122
Q

What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Tip of transverse process, tip of spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

123
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

Five… 1 for the tip of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate

124
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

Cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

125
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

Tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

126
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

During puberty, typically ages 11-16 yrs old.

127
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

A

The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

128
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical-rectangular; thoracic-triangular; lumbar-rentiform

129
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

Superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

130
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

Superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

131
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body

A

Nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

132
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

The basivertebral venous foramen

133
Q

What is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

The inferior vertebral notch of inferior vertebral incisure

134
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- posterolateral
Thoracic- posterior, slightly lateral
Lumbar- posterior

135
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

The pedicle

136
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

Posterior and median

137
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

Shingling

138
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

The ligamentum flavum

139
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

Para-articular process

140
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

Accessory bone

141
Q

What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical-articular pillar

Thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis

142
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch-spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

The spinolaminar junction

143
Q

What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

The apophyseal regions

144
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

The transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

145
Q

What is the generic orientatiion of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- anterolateral
Thoracic- posterolateral
Lumbar- lateral

146
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

147
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

148
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

149
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple

A

The zigapophysis

150
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

Superior articular facet

151
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis

A

The inferior articular facet

152
Q

In the vertebral couplle, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygaphophysis is called the….

A

Pre-zygapophysis

153
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the….

A

Post-zygapophysis

154
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

155
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis

156
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament and the ligamentum flavum

157
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

158
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

159
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

Imbrication

160
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

The spinous tubercle

161
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
Lumbar- no inferior angle

162
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

Cecrvical-triangular; thoracic- oval; lumbar- triangular; sacrum- triangular

163
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

164
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

165
Q

Which of the segmental arteries will arise from the internal iliac artery?

A

The iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

166
Q

Identify all segmental arteries

A

Vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral

167
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

The vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

168
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

The deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

169
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

170
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

The iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

171
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

172
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

173
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1,T2

174
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

175
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

176
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

177
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

178
Q

What segmental levels is/are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

179
Q

What segmental levels is/are supplied by the lateral sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

180
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

181
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

Iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

182
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

Dorsospinal artery

183
Q

Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?

A

Spinal artery

184
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

Osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery

185
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

Osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

186
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

187
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

188
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

Anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

189
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

Anterior radicular artery

190
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular artery

191
Q

Which artery is now said to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery?

A

The radicular artery

192
Q

What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries present in the adult?

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

193
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

Anterior spinal artery

194
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The vertebral artery

195
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continous artery along the spinal cord?

A

No

196
Q

As tthe anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Anterior medullary feeder arteries

197
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery

198
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

It lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

199
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Posterior medullary feeder arteriees

200
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

Right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

201
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

A median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

202
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

Intramedullary arteries

203
Q

What is the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

Pial perforating arteries and central/vental/sulcal perforating arteries

204
Q

What artery gives off the ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries?

A

The anterior spinal artery

205
Q

What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial vasa corona along the cord?

A

Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

206
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

Pial veins

207
Q

What will pial veins drain into?

A

Venous vasa corona

208
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

Right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

209
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

210
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

Anterior radicular veins

211
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular veins

212
Q

What veins will lie in the subarachnoid space?

A

Pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins

213
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

214
Q

What veins are observed in thhe epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

215
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

Intervertebral veins

216
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

Dura mater- tough mother; arachnoid mater- spider mother; pia mater- tender or delicate mother

217
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

Interstitial fluid

218
Q

What are the vascular contents of the epidural space?

A

Anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein

219
Q

What are the neural contents of the epidural space?

A

Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

220
Q

What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?

A

Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
Ligamentum flavum
Posterior longitudinal ligament

221
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein

222
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

223
Q

Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament and hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

224
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

225
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

Spinal Anatomy (1 decks)

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