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Introduction to American Politics > Quiz Questions (8-14) > Flashcards

Quiz Questions (8-14) Flashcards

1
Q

Party platforms are important because…

A

they provide a general guide for the types of policies winning candidates are likely to vote for if elected

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2
Q

What is realignment?

A

A situation in which the issues that divide the political parties change in a way that cuts across existing political coalitions

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3
Q

True or False: Duverger’s Law works against minor political parrties

A

True, Duverger’s Law is a law that states that single-member and plurality districts tend to favor a two-party system whereas proportional representation favors a multiparty system

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4
Q

What is the party principle?

A

the idea that parties are organizations distinct from their elected officials

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5
Q

Today, what group is a key party of the Democrat coalition?

A

African Americans

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6
Q

True or False: Most independents have a weak attachment to one of the major political parties?

A

True

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7
Q

What issue in the 1850s ended the second party system involving the Whigs and Democrats?

A

Slavery. Democrats either supported slavery or ignored it. The Whigs were split between pro-slavery and abolitionists. The Republican Party was formed and was abolishonist.

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8
Q

The Republican Party formed when the [x] Party dissolved

A

The Whigs. In the 1840s, the issue of slavery split the second party system. Most Democratic politicians either supported slavery outright or wanted to avoid debating the issue.5 The Whig Party was split between abolitionists, who wanted to end slavery, and politicians who agreed with the Democrats. Ultimately, antislavery Whigs left the party and formed the Republican Party, which also attracted antislavery Democrats, and the Whig Party soon ceased to exist.

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9
Q

What is true about political polarization?

A

It is more difficult for Republicans and Democrats in Congress to achieve common ground

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10
Q

True or False: the popularity of party brands for the Republicans and Democrats tends to be very stable over. time

A

False

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11
Q

True or False: There is evidence of voter fraud in most American elections

A

False

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12
Q

Which party’s primaries and caucus use proportional allocation to divide delegates

A

Democrats. Proportional allocation is when, after a caucus or primary, the votes for each candidate are allocated proportionally to the delegates, who then vote for the candidate at a national convention. Some Republican states have winner take all

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13
Q

Why do election rules and their implementation matter?

A

In close races, small changes to rules can change electoral outcomes

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14
Q

What kind of campaign funds are subject to clear limits on how much can be raised but not on how much is spent?

A

independent expenditures. Independent expenditures: a
party or group spends money to advocate for a candidate but the candidate or
the campaign does not control, direct, or approve the activity

Coordinated expenditures, in which the candidate has some control.

Independent expenditures are not limited, but coordinated expenditures are. For example, in Senate races, there is a cap on coordinated expenditures by political parties, ranging from several hundred thousand dollars in small states like Delaware to several million dollars in California.

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15
Q

What can be concluded from the data presented in this figure?

A

Turnout was highest during this time period in 2008

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16
Q

Some Americans may not vote becuase the likelihood of one vote being the decisive one is very small. What does this illustrate?

A

The paradox of voting

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17
Q

Donald Trump won Michigan Pennsylvania and Wisconsin because of higher-than-expected voter turnout in urban communities

A

False, he won because of white suburban voters

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18
Q

Which one of the following groups does not typically turn out in large numbers?

A

People with less than a high school education

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19
Q

True or False, retrospective evaluations make incumbents less responsive to constituent demands?

A

False, retrospective evaluations men that constiuents evaluate what the incumbent has done

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20
Q

Which one of the following is the appropriate order of events in a presidential election?

A

Iowa Caucus, NH Primary, Super Tuesday, national conventions, Electoral College vote

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21
Q

Astroturf lobbying is sometimes effective because

A

It sometimes involves large numbers of participants, forcing officials to pay attention. Astroturf lobbying is when a group of people send the same letter/email in hopes for change on a certain issue

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22
Q

True or False: The increasing number of interest groups and lobbyists is partly due to the size and influence of the federal government

A

True

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23
Q

Which one of the following statements categorizes interest groups?

A

Most groups are only successful some of the time, regardless of resources

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24
Q

The National Independent Automobile Dealers Association (NIADA) comprises 50 largely independent state-level organizations that provide membership benefits to car dealers. NIADA is an example of a group with a ________ organizational structure.

A

confederal because it comprises multiple multiple organizations without a central influence

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25
Q

Which one of the following describes a peak association?

A

A peak association is made up of businesses or other organizations rather than individuals

26
Q

When does lobbying increase?

A

When new policies are being considered by Congress and/or burreaucrats

27
Q

True or False: Elected officials who later become lobbyists must wait two years before they can start lobbying?

A

True

28
Q

If legislators in a state put a tax increase on the ballot, this is an example of ________.

A

A referendum, which is a policy change proposal proposed by legislators. An intiative is proposed by citizens

29
Q

Which types of benefits can a group provide to overcome the free rider problem?

A

Solidary: Satisfaction derived from working with like-minded people
Purposive: Satisfaction derived from working towards a certain policy goal
Selective: incentives that motivate participation because they get a reward for participating, like a membership service offered by service groups

30
Q

What does it mean when the US is describes as an interest group?

A

Interest groups influence most public policy decisions

31
Q

Who has more freedom to debate bills on the floor?

A

Members of the Senate have more freedom to debate bills on the floor than members of the House.

32
Q

What is descriptive representation?

A

Shared demographic traits between legislators and constituents. Substantive id when politicans share polciy goals with constituents

33
Q

Legislators who make public statements demonstrating how they share priorities with the groups in their district are engaged in ________.

A

Position taking, which is different than credit claiming (To improve the relationship with constituents through specific casework or pork barrels.) and gerrymandering (Redrawing district lines so that there is a party majority in that area)

34
Q

True or False: The president is better suited to pork-barrel projects than Congress

A

False, Congress is better suited because pork barrel projects are legislative appropriations that benefit specific constituents, created with the aim of helping local representatives win reelection.

35
Q

Effective home style explains the rise of

A

The Incumbent Advantage

36
Q

True or False, Because incumbency rates are so high, members of Congress who hold a “safe” seat do not worry about the electoral connection to voters.

A

False, there’s a primary

37
Q

True or False, States can only gain seats in the House, never lose seats

A

False

38
Q

Generally, Americans would prefer if..

A

Senators and representatives would stay at home

39
Q

What is gridlock?

A

when Congress is unable to pass important legislation because of partisan conflict

40
Q

True or False, Congress as a whole is perceived to be dishonest and unethical by the American people.

A

True

41
Q

When is a signing statement issued?

A

When a president signs a bill. A signing statement is A document issued by the president when signing a bill into law explaining his or her interpretation of the law, which often differs from the interpretation of Congress, in an attempt to influence how the law will be implemented.Judges can use signing statements in order to determine what the president’s intent was

42
Q

When presidents offer interpretations of new laws before those laws are implemented, they typically do so ________.

A

In a signing statement

43
Q

What do the annexation of Texas, the Emancipation Proclamation, and affirmative action have in common?

A

All were unilateral presidential actions (executive orders)

44
Q

Implementation of law..

A

requires judgement because laws are often very vague

45
Q

When can the VP cast a vote in Senate?

A

Only when there is a tie on a piece of legislation

46
Q

Which one of the following conditions make vetoes more likely?

A

When there is a divided-party government (house, senate and pres are in different parties)

47
Q

When President Donald Trump imposed tariffs on imports of steel and aluminum, he was exercising his authority ________.

A

to interpret and implement the laws, versus the commander in chief role (control the army) and head of state (represents the country symbolically and politically)

48
Q

Presidents can avoid ratification of a treaty by simply announcing that the United States will comply with its requirements. However, this strategy can be disadvantageous in that

A

A future president may simply ignore it

49
Q

Recent vice presidents (Mike Pence) have differed from earlier vice presidents

A

Because they are more influential in the president’s policy-making decisions

50
Q

The 2011 attack on Osama Bin Laden’s compound

A

Was carried out the approval of Congress (executive order)

51
Q

What is the principal agent game?

A

When an individual or group acts on behalf the other (when government needs something done, so beurracrats act on their behalf)

52
Q

True or False, 20% of all federal civil servants are fired annually due to poor job performance

A

False, 1883 Pendleton Civil Service Act allows for civil servants to not be fired so they don’t have to worry about that. After three years of satisfactory service, civil servants can not be fired unless they cite a reason

53
Q

Before a new regulation can take effect, it must be ________.

A

Published in the Federal Register

54
Q

True or False, Bureaucrats are principals in the principal-agent game.

A

False

55
Q

From the early 1800s until the Civil War, ________ in the size of government occurred largely because of ________.

A

growth; the increased size of the United States

56
Q

The office of management and budget

A

Prepares the president’s annual budget proposal to congress, has oversight of the development of new regulations, and is part of the Executive Office of the President

57
Q

What was the principal bureaucratic change that occurred during the New Deal?

A

The range of policy areas in which the government intervened expanded

58
Q

True or False, One of the reasons regulations are controversial is because they require bureaucrats to choose between policy goals that are often incompatible, such as the federal drug-approval process.

A

True

59
Q

Who used the spoils system first?

A

Andrew Jackson

60
Q

True or False, All presidents have been challenged to maintain bureaucratic control.

A

True

Introduction to American Politics (3 decks)

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