Quiz Questions

Question 1

A patient is having her tonsils removed.

The patient asks the nurse what function the tonsils serve. Which of the following
would be the most accurate response?

a. The tonsils aid digestion
b. The tonsils help to guard the body from invasion of organisms
c. The tonsils contain nerves that provoke sneezing
d. The tonsils regulate the airflow to the bronchi
e. The tonsils serve no known physiological purpose

Answer 1

b. The tonsils help to guard the body from invasion of organisms

Question 2

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the unit after a colon resection.

The patient is showing signs of hypoxia.
The nurse knows that this is probably caused by what?

a. Diffusion
b. Interbalance
c. Perfusion
d. Shunting
e. Incorrect application of the oxygen saturation probe.

Answer 2

d. Shunting

Question 3

You are caring for a patient admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. During your shift assessment, you find that your patient is experiencing a change in his respiratory and mental status.

You are aware that the most accurate measurement of the concentration
of oxygen in the patient's blood is what?
Select one:
a. A capillary blood sample
b. Pulse oximetry
c. An arterial blood gas study
d. Assessment of the patient's nailbeds
e. Lung field auscultation

Answer 3

c. An arterial blood gas study

Question 4

You are the nurse working on the respiratory intensive care unit. You are aware that several respiratory conditions can affect the compliance of the lung tissue. Which condition leads to an increase in lung compliance?
Select one:
a. Emphysema
b. Pulmonary fibrosis
c. Pleural effusion
d. ARDS
e. Bronchitis

Answer 4

a. Emphysema

Question 5

Your patient has multiple sclerosis.
Neuromuscular disorders such as multiple sclerosis may lead to a decreased
vital capacity. What does vital capacity measure?
Select one:
a. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath
b. The volume of air in the lungs after a maximum inspiration
c. The maximum volume of air inhaled after normal expiration
d. The maximum volume of air exhaled from the point of maximum inspiration
e. The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximum expiration

Answer 5

d. The maximum volume of air exhaled from the point of maximum inspiration

Question 6

The instructor of the physiology class for pre-nursing students is talking about the lower respiratory tract. The instructor talks about the visceral and parietal pleura and the small amount of fluid between the two membranes. What does the instructor tell her students the function of the pleura and the pleural fluid is?
Select one:
a. Allows for full expansion of the lungs within
the thoracic cavity
b. Prevents the lungs from collapsing within the thoracic cavity
c. Determines lung expansion within the thoracic
cavity
d. Permits smooth motion of the lungs within the thoracic
cavity
e. None of the above

Answer 6

d. Permits smooth motion of the lungs within the thoracic cavity

Question 7

You are caring for a patient with a lower respiratory tract infection.

You know that this type of infection causes what?
Select one:
a. Impaired gas exchange
b. Collapsed bronchial structures
c. Ruptured blebs
d. Closed bronchial tree
e. Sputum production

Answer 7

a. Impaired gas exchange

Question 8

You are working on a gerontology unit. You admit a 77-year-old with respiratory problems. You know that the amount of respiratory dead space increases with age.

What do these changes result in?
Select one:
a. Increased diffusion of gases
b. Decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen
c. Decreased shunting of blood
d. Increased ventilation
e. Increased perfusion

Answer 8

b. Decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen

Question 9

Your patient has just had an MRI ordered because a routine chest x-ray showed suspicious areas in the right lung. The physician suspects bronchogenic carcinoma.

You would know that an MRI would assess for what in this patient?
Select one:
a. Patency of the bronchial tree
b. To evaluate inflammatory activity
c. Ability to expand the lung
d. Chest wall invasion
e. Shunting of the blood supply

Answer 9

d. Chest wall invasion

Question 10

You are caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you auscultate this patient’s breath sounds, what do you expect to hear?
Select one:
a. Continuous popping sounds early in inspiration
b. Harsh, dry sounds originating in the large
bronchi
c. Discontinuous popping sounds heard in early
inspiration
d. Soft, high-pitched, popping sounds that occur
during inspiration
e. snap crackle and pop just like Rice Bubbles

Answer 10

c. Discontinuous popping sounds heard in early

inspiration

Question 11

The nursing instructor is explaining cardiac function to the senior nursing class. The instructor explains that blood is ejected into circulation as the chambers of the heart become smaller. The instructor categorises this action of the heart as what?
Select one:
a. ejection fraction
b. diastole
c. terminal volume
d. systole
e. hyptertension

Answer 11

d. systole

Question 12

The nurse is caring for a patient with unstable angina. The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this patient. The nurse recognises what?

Select one:
a. This is only an accurate indicator of myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hrs

b. It is only an accurate indicator of skeletal muscle injury
c. It is not an accurate indicator of anything
d. Because the entry diagnosis is unstable angina this is a poor indicator of myocardial injury
e. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury

Answer 12

e. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury

Question 13

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an ECG. The nurse notes that leads I, II, and III differ from one another on the cardiac rhythm strip. Why is this?
Select one:
a. Electrocardiogram (ECG) equipment has malfunctioned.
b. The view of the electrical current changes in relation to the lead placement.
c. The circadian rhythm has changed.
d. Conduction of the heart differs with lead placement.
e. The limb leads are in an incorrect manner

Answer 13

b. The view of the electrical current changes in relation to the lead placement.

Question 14

The staff educator is teaching a class on conduction problems in the heart. The educator explains that in an adult patient who has damage to the electrical conduction of the ventricles of the heart, the nurse would expect to see changes in what?
Select one:
a. T wave
b. QRS complex
c. P wave
d. U Wave
e. Y-Z wave

Answer 14

b. QRS complex

Question 15

Your patient has returned from the operating room after having a permanent pacemaker implantation. Which potential complication should you assess for in a postoperative patient with permanent pacemaker implantation?
Select one:
a. Decreased pulse rate
b. Decreased respiratory rate
c. Decreased appetite
d. Bleeding at the generator-implantation site
e. Decreased urine output

Answer 15

d. Bleeding at the generator-implantation site

Question 16

During a CPR, class a student in the class asks what the difference is between cardioversion and defibrillation. What would be the nurse’s best response?
Select one:
a. “Defibrillation is synchronised with the electrical activity of the heart, cardioversion is not.”
b. They are identical
c. “The difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current.”
d. “Cardioversion is done on a beating heart, defibrillation is not.”
e. “Cardioversion is always attempted before defibrillation because it is not as dangerous.”

Answer 16

c. “The difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current.”

Question 17

The triage nurse in the emergency department assesses a 66-year-old male patient who presents to the emergency department with complaints of midsternal chest pain that has lasted for the last 5 hours. The nurse is aware that because of the length of time the patient has been experiencing symptoms, if they are due to a MI, what has happened to the myocardium?
Select one:
a. May have developed an increased area of infarction
b. Will probably not have more damage than if he came in immediately
c. Has been damaged already, so immediate treatment is no longer necessary
d. Can have restoration of the area of dead cells with proper treatment
e. That it couldn’t be an MI, it must be reflux

Answer 17

a. May have developed an increased area of infarction

Question 18

The nurse knows that the blood vessel most commonly used as source for a (coronary artery bypass graft) CABG is what?
Select one:
a. Femoral artery
b. Brachial vein
c. Greater saphenous vein
d. Femoral vein
e. Brachial artery

Answer 18

c. Greater saphenous vein

Question 19

A patient with angina is beginning nitroglycerin. Before administering the drug the nurse informs the patient that immediately after administration, the patient may experience what?
Select one:
a. Drowsiness
b. Paraesthesia
c. Throbbing headache or dizzyness
d. Tinnitus
e. Nervousness

Answer 19

c. Throbbing headache or dizzyness

Question 20

The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced an MI. The nurse notes that there are changes in the ECG of the patient. What change on an ECG may indicate that ischaemia is occurring?
Select one:
a. T-wave elevation
b. P-wave enlargement
c. P-wave inversion
d. Q-wave changes with no change in ST or T wave
e. T-wave inversion

Answer 20

e. T-wave inversion

Question 21

The nurse caring for a client with acute coronary syndrome knows that the top priority in the care of this patient is what?
Select one:
a. Making sure they get a good cup of coffee
b. Balancing myocardial oxygen supply with demand
c. Decreasing energy expenditure of the myocardium
d. Decreasing nutritional need of myocardial muscle
e. Balancing intake and output

Answer 21

b. Balancing myocardial oxygen supply with demand

Question 22

You are caring for a patient who is scheduled to undergo a valvuloplasty to repair a defective heart valve. You would include in your patient education which priority area?
Select one:
a. Long-term antibiotic therapy
b. Long-term anticoagulant therapy
c. Patient controlled analgesia
d. Exercise program
e. Long-term steroid therapy

Answer 22

b. Long-term anticoagulant therapy

Question 23

You are caring for an Ethiopian refugee who has been diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation. You know that in developing countries the most common cause of mitral valve regurgitation is what?
Select one:
a. Sepsis and its sequelae
b. An insect bite
c. Rheumatic heart disease and its sequelae
d. Paracetamol overdose
e. A decrease in gamma globulins

Answer 23

c. Rheumatic heart disease and its sequelae

Question 24

The nurse notes that a patient has developed a cough productive for mucoid sputum, is short of breath, has cyanotic hands and has noisy, moist-sounding, rapid breathing. These symptoms indicate:
Select one:
a. Right atrial hypertrophy
b. Pulmonary oedema
c. Right ventricular hypertrophy
d. Pericarditis
e. Heart failure

Answer 24

b. Pulmonary oedema

Question 25

You are assessing a patient suspected of having right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding may indicate right-sided heart failure?
Select one:
a. Dry cough
b. Distended neck veins
c. Hypotension
d. Pulmonary oedema
e. Orthopnoea

Answer 25

b. Distended neck veins

Question 26

You are caring for an 84-year-old male who has just returned from the operating room (OR) after inguinal hernia repair. You note the patient has fluid volume excess from the OR and is at risk for left-sided heart failure. What signs and symptoms indicate left-sided heart failure?
Select one:
a. Right upper quadrant pain
b. Dependent oedema
c. Bibasilar fine crackles
d. Left upper quadrant pain
e. Jugular vein distention

Answer 26

c. Bibasilar fine crackles

Question 27

The cardiac monitor alarm alerts the critical care nurse that the patient is showing no cardiac rhythm on the monitor. When the nurse assesses the patient, she determines that the patient is experiencing cardiac arrest. In providing cardiac resuscitation documentation, how will the nurse describe this initial absence of cardiac rhythm?
Select one:
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
c. Ventricular tachycardia
d. Ventricular fibrillation
e. asystole

Answer 27

e. asystole

Question 28

Intracardia thrombi are especially common in what kind of patients?
Select one:
a. Those with atrial tachycardia
b. Those with ventricular fibrillation
c. Those with ventricular tachycardia
d. Those with atrial fibrillation
e. Those with pulmonary oedema

Answer 28

d. Those with atrial fibrillation

Question 29

The nurse is taking a health history on a new patient. The patient reports experiencing pain in the left lower leg and foot when walking. This pain is relieved with rest. The nurse notes that the left lower leg is slightly oedematous and is hairless. What does the nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing?
Select one:
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Diabetes
c. Intermittent claudication
d. Arterial embolus
e. Raynaud's disease

Answer 29

c. Intermittent claudication

Question 30

While assessing a patient the nurse notes that the patient's ankle-brachial index (ABI) of the right leg is 0.40. The nurse is aware that this may indicate what?
Select one:
a. Dependent oedema
b. Adequate peripheral circulation
c. Venous narrowing
d. Arterial narrowing
e. Inadequate coronary output

Answer 30

d. Arterial narrowing

Question 31

You are admitting a 32-year-old woman to your unit. The woman is to undergo major surgery and will be on bed rest for at least 48 hours. While doing the admission assessment the patient tells you she takes oral contraceptives. You know that this puts the patient at an increased risk of developing what?
Select one:
a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Pressure areas
c. Thoracic aneurysm
d. Raynaud's disease
e. Intermittent claudication

Answer 31

a. Deep vein thrombosis

Question 32

The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted to your unit with a diagnosis of venous ulceration unresponsive to treatment. What is the nurse most likely to find during an assessment of this patient?
Select one:
a. No exudate
b. Pale wound bed
c. Heavy exudate
d. Gangrene
e. Deep wound bed

Answer 32

c. Heavy exudate

Question 33

Graduated compression stockings are used to treat and prevent venous insufficiency, leg ulcers, and varicose veins. What amount of compression would be prescribed for patients with venous stasis ulceration?
Select one:
a. 25–35 mm Hg
b. Over 80 mm Hg
c. 40–50 mm Hg
d. 20–30 mm Hg
e. 35–45 mm Hg

Answer 33

c. 40–50 mm Hg

Question 34

The steps to obtaining an ABI are:

1. Apply the appropriate size blood pressure cuff to the patient’s ankle above the malleolus.
2. Measure brachial pressures in both arms.
3. Have the patient rest in a supine position for about 5 minutes.
4. Palpate the posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis arteries.

Put the steps of measuring an ABI in the correct order.
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 4, 3, 1
c. 4, 2, 1, 3
d. 4, 1, 3, 2
e. 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer 34

e. 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 35

The nurse is caring for a client with a leg ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency. The nurse knows that a recommended treatment for arterial insufficiency of the leg is what?a. Vascular reconstruction
Select one:

b. TED stockings
c. Anti thrombolytic medications
d. Embolectomy
e. Compression stockings

Answer 35

a. Vascular reconstruction

Question 36

A nurse is assessing a new patient who is diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. The nurse cannot feel the pulse in the patient's left foot. What could the nurse use to assess the blood flow in the patient's left foot?
Select one:
a. Doppler
b. A fetascope
c. Palpation
d. A stethoscope
e. An ultrasound machine

Answer 36

a. Doppler

Question 37

The nurse is assessing a patient's bladder by percussion. The nurse elicits dullness after voiding. What does this finding indicate?
Select one:
a. Incomplete bladder emptying
b. Dehydration
c. Kidney enlargement
d. Ureteral obstruction
e. The presence of an alien life-form

Answer 37

a. Incomplete bladder emptying

Question 38

You are a urology nurse caring for a male
patient admitted to your unit with bladder distention from prostatic
hypertrophy. The physician orders placement of an indwelling urinary catheter.
The nurse and urologist are both unsuccessful in catheterising this patient due
to the prostatic obstruction. What approach does the nurse anticipate the
physician using to drain the patient’s bladder?
Select one:
a. Application of warm compresses to the perineum
to assist with relaxation, which will result in the patient voiding on his own
b. Insertion of a suprapubic catheter
c. Scheduling the patient immediately for surgery
to relieve the bladder obstruction
d. Restrict fluids and try again in 6 hours
e. Medication administration to relax the bladder
muscles and attempting catheterisation in 6 hours

Answer 38

b. Insertion of a suprapubic catheter

Question 39

The nurse has implemented a bladder retraining
program in a 65-year-old woman after the removal of an indwelling urinary
catheter from this patient. The nurse places the patient on a timed voiding
schedule and performs an ultrasonic bladder scan after each void. The nurse
notes that the patient has 50 mL of urine remaining in her bladder after
voiding. What would be the nurse’s best response to this finding?
Select one:
a. Plan for insertion of a supra-pubic catheter
b. Avoid further interventions at this time, as this is an acceptable finding
c. Place an indwelling urinary catheter
d. Perform a straight catheterisation on this
patient
e. Press on the patient’s bladder in an attempt to
encourage complete emptying

Answer 39

b. Avoid further interventions at this time, as this is an acceptable finding

Question 40

The nurse is caring for a patient who is not allowed oral intake of fluid or food. When evaluating this patient's urinalysis, what would the nurse anticipate?
Select one:
a. A decreased urine specific gravity
b. A fixed urine specific gravity
c. An increased urine specific gravity
d. None of the above
e. A fluctuating urine specific gravity

Answer 40

c. An increased urine specific gravity

Question 41

The nurse is caring for a patient who describes
his changes in voiding patterns. The patient states, “I feel the urge to
empty my bladder several times an hour and when the urge hits me I have to get
to the restroom quickly. But when I empty my bladder, there does not seem to be
a great deal of urine flow.” What would the nurse expect this patient’s
physical assessment will likely reveal?
Select one:
a. Haematuria
b. Dehydration
c. Hypotension
d. Urine retention
e. Renal failure

Answer 41

d. Urine retention

Question 42

What function does the kidney perform to assist
in maintaining acid–base balance within the necessary normal range?
Select one:
a. Return bicarbonate to the body’s circulation
b. Excrete bicarbonate in the urine
c. Excrete alkali from the body’s circulation
d. Excrete acid in the lungs
e. Return acid to the body’s circulation

Answer 42

a. Return bicarbonate to the body’s circulation

Question 43

A diabetic patient with renal failure   has been admitted to your unit. What is the most life-threatening effect of   renal failure you will monitor for?
Select one:
a. Lack of blood pressure control
b. Accumulation of wastes
c. Polyuria
d. Retention of potassium
e. Depletion of calcium

Answer 43

d. Retention of potassium

Question 44

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving haemodialysis treatments. The patient has had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula. What is most important for the nurse to be aware of when providing care for this patient?
Select one:
a. The patient shouldn’t feel pain during
initiation of dialysis
b. Using a stethoscope for auscultating the fistula is contraindicated.
c. The patient feels best immediately after the
dialysis treatment.
d. All of the above
e. Taking a blood pressure reading on the affected arm can cause clotting of the fistula.

Answer 44

e. Taking a blood pressure reading on the affected arm can cause clotting of the fistula.

Question 45

Renal failure can have prerenal, renal, or postrenal
causes. A patient presents with acute renal failure and is being assessed to
determine where, physiologically, the cause is. If the cause is found to be
prerenal, which condition most likely caused it?
Select one:
a. Aminoglycoside toxicity
b. UTI
c. Ureterolithiasis
d. Heart failure
e. Glomerulonephritis

Answer 45

d. Heart failure

Question 46

A patient is receiving patient education prior
to beginning continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. What would the nurse
teach the patient that the most common complication associated with this
procedure is?
Select one:
a. Constipation
b. Dehydration
c. Peritonitis
d. Blood loss
e. DVT

Answer 46

c. Peritonitis

Question 47

The clinic nurse is teaching a young wife about
preventing recurrent urinary tract infections. What information should the
nurse include?
Select one:
a. Wipe back to front after going to the toilet
b. Void every 6 to 8 hours.
c. Avoid voiding immediately after sexual
intercourse.
d. Bathe daily.
e. Drink liberal amounts of fluids.

Answer 47

e. Drink liberal amounts of fluids.

Question 48

You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of renal failure. When you
review your patient's laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium
levels are high. What would be important for you to assess?
Select one:
a. Increased
Serum magnesium
b. Diminished
Deep tendon reflexes
c. Visual acuity
d. Cool,
Clammy skin
e. Tachycardia

Answer 48

b. Diminished Deep tendon reflexes

Question 49

You are working on a burn unit. One of your patients is exhibiting signs and
symptoms of third spacing, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular
space but not into the intracellular space. Based upon this fluid shift, what
would you expect the patient to demonstrate?
Select one:
a. Hypertension
b. Hypervolaemia
c. Bradycardia
d. Decreased oxygen saturations
e. Hypovalaemia

Answer 49

e. Hypovalaemia

Question 50

A patient with anxiety presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes
upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware
that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acid-base imbalance?
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. CNS
disturbances
c. Respiratory
alkalosis
d. Increased
PaCO2
e. Respiratory
acidosis

Answer 50

c. Respiratory

alkalosis

Question 51

You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the
following arterial blood gas results:
PH 7.26, 
PaCO2 28, 
HCO3 11 mmol/L. 

How would you interpret these results?
Select one:
a. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory
acidosis with no compensation
d. Metabolic
acidosis with no compensation
e. Metabolic
alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis

Answer 51

a. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

Question 52

A nurse in the medical ICU has orders to infuse a hypertonic solution into her
patient with low blood pressure. This solution will increase the number of
dissolved particles in the patient’s blood, creating pressure for fluids in the
tissues to shift into the capillaries and increase the blood volume. Which term
or terms is/are associated with this process?
Select one:
a. Osmosis
and osmolality
b. Active
transport
c. Hydrostatic
pressure
d. Rhubarb
e. Diffusion

Answer 52

a. Osmosis

and osmolality

Question 53

The nursing instructor is discussing renal failure with her senior nursing class.
The instructor states, “A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability
to regulate changes in pH.” What is the cause of this partial inability?
Select one:
a. The
kidneys regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH.
b. The
kidneys buffer acids through electrolyte changes.
c. The
kidneys combine carbonic acid and bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.
d. The
kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.
e. The kidneys produce carbonic acid to act in the buffering process

Answer 53

d. The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.

Question 54

While admitting a new patient to your medical-surgical unit, you note that the
patient is oliguric. You notify the medical officer who orders a
fluid challenge of 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes.
What do you know this intervention will do?
Select one:
a. Help provide an effective treatment for hypertension induced oliguria
b. Help
distinguish hyponatraemia from hypernatraemia
c. Very little
d. Help
distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function
e. Help
evaluate pituitary gland function

Answer 54

d. Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function

Question 55

A patient’s lab results show a slight decrease in potassium. The physician has
declined to treat with drug therapy but has suggested increasing potassium
through diet. Which of the following would be a good source of potassium?
Select one:
a. Asparagus
b. Bananas
c. Carrots
d. Apples
e. Red wine

Answer 55

b. Bananas

Question 56

Why does acute pancreatitis change the metabolic
needs of the body?
Select one:
a. Acute illness, infection and fever increase
metabolic needs.
b. Acute illness, infection and fever decrease
metabolic needs.
c. None of the above
d. Acute illness and inability to eat increase metabolic
needs.
e. Acute illness and inability to eat decrease
metabolic needs.

Answer 56

a. Acute illness, infection and fever increase

metabolic needs.

Question 57

How is hepatitis C transmitted?
Select one:
a. Airborne route
b. Faecal–oral route
c. Unintentional needle sticks
d. Pet hair
e. Contaminated food

Answer 57

c. Unintentional needle sticks

Question 58

A patient with portal hypertension has been
admitted to the floor you work on. What will you assess for related to portal
hypertension?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Ascites
c. Hepatic encephalopathy
d. Bowel obstruction
e. Haemorrhoids

Answer 58

b. Ascites

Question 59

A patient is admitted to the unit with acute
cholecystitis. The physician has noted that surgery will be scheduled in 4
days. The patient asks why the surgery is being put off for a week when he has
a “sick gallbladder.” What would be the nurse’s best response?
Select one:
a. Surgery is delayed until the acute symptoms
subside.
b. Surgery is delayed until the patient can eat a
regular diet without vomiting.
c. To get the patient stronger.
d. To determine whether a laparoscopic procedure
can be used.
e. The surgeon is on a golfing holiday

Answer 59

a. Surgery is delayed until the acute symptoms subside.

Question 60

The nurse is assessing a typical patient with cholecystitis. The patient complains of localised pain. Where would the nurse
also ask the patient if the pain has radiated to?

Select one:

a. Right shoulder
b. Lower abdomen
c. Left upper arm
d. Neck
e. Jaw

Answer 60

a. Right shoulder

Question 61

Your patient has a gallstone blocking the bile duct. When you assess the patient’s laboratory studies what would you expect to find?
Select one:
a. Decreased serum GGT level
b. Decreased cholesterol level
c. Increased BUN level
d. Increased bilirubin level in the blood
e. Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase level

Answer 61

d. Increased bilirubin level in the blood

Question 62

A patient with a liver mass is undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. After the procedure the nurse assists the physician in positioning the patient. What position should they position the patient in?
Select one:
a. Reverse Trendelenberg
b. Trendelenberg
c. On the right side with a pillow under the costal margin
d. Supine position
e. On the left side with a pillow under the knees

Answer 62

c. On the right side with a pillow under the costal margin

Question 63

You are caring for a patient with advanced
cirrhosis. You know that the most significant source of bleeding in a patient
with cirrhosis is what?
Select one:
a. Common bile duct haemorrhage
b. Oesophageal varices
c. Portal hypertension
d. Ascites
e. Haemolytic jaundice

Answer 63

b. Oesophageal varices

Question 64

A nurse is assessing an elderly patient with gallstones. The nurse is aware that the patient may not exhibit typical
symptoms and that symptoms that may be exhibited in the elderly patient may
include what?
Select one:
a. Chills and jaundice
b. Septic shock and oliguria
c. Spontaneous haemorrhage
d. Fever and pain
e. Nausea and vomiting

Answer 64

b. Septic shock and oliguria

Question 65

The nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. While making the initial shift assessment the nurse notes that
the patient has a flapping tremor of the hands. What will the nurse document
this condition as in the patient’s chart?
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Asterixis
c. Fetor hepaticus
d. Palmar erythema
e. Constructional apraxia

Answer 65

b. Asterixis

Question 66

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis. What is an essential nursing function when caring for a patient
with cirrhosis?
Select one:
a. Monitoring the patient’s support network
b. Monitoring the patient’s oral intake
c. Monitoring the patient for signs of hypervolemia
d. Monitoring for constipation
e. Monitoring the patient’s mental status

Answer 66

e. Monitoring the patient’s mental status

Question 67

The nurse is caring for a patient with liver failure. The
nurse understands that patients in liver failure often require vitamin therapy.
Which vitamin does the liver require for the synthesis of prothrombin?
Select one:
a.
Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin B6
e. Vitamin D

Answer 67

c. Vitamin K

Question 68

The triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a patient who presented with complaints of not feeling well. The patient has ascites and an enlarged liver. The patient reports a history of drinking a 12 pack of beer every evening for the past 15 years. The nurse is
aware that the patient is at risk for which disease?
Select one:
a. Renal failure
b. Hepatitis
c. Cardiovascular disease
d. Cirrhosis
e. Coronary artery disease

Answer 68

d. Cirrhosis

Question 69

A patient returns to the floor after a
laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The nurse caring for the patient is aware that
the most serious potential complication is what?
Select one:
a. Wound evisceration
b. Constipation
c. Pulmonary atelectasis
d. Bile duct injury
e. Decubitis ulcer

Answer 69

d. Bile duct injury

Question 70

You are conducting a class on how to self-manage insulin
regimens. A patient asks you how long a vial of insulin can be stored at room
temperature before it “goes bad.” What would be your best answer?

Select one:
a. If a vial of insulin will be used up within 2
weeks, it may be kept at room temperature.
b. It can only be taken out of the fridge when you are drawing it up
c. If a vial of insulin will be used up within 1
week, it may be kept at room temperature.
d. If a vial of insulin will be used up within 21
days, it may be kept at room temperature.
e. If you are going to use up the vial within 1
month it can be kept at room temperature.

Answer 70

e. If you are going to use up the vial within 1

month it can be kept at room temperature.

Question 71

A 35-year-old female patient with type 1
diabetes has come to the clinic because she just doesn’t feel well. The patient
confides in the nurse that she is going through a divorce and a custody battle for
her children ages 2 and 4. She has started drinking and has lost her job. What
would the nurse suspect is causing this patient to feel poorly?
Select one:
a. Hypernatraemia
b. Fluid overload
c. Ketoacidosis
d. Hypoglycaemia
e. Renal failure

Answer 71

c. Ketoacidosis

Question 72

The nursing tutor is discussing diabetes
mellitus with the nursing students. What would the tutor tell the
class may develop in the patient when ketone bodies accumulate in excessive
amounts?
Select one:
a. Oliguria
b. Polyuria
c. Hypovolaemia
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
e. Blurred vision

Answer 72

d. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 73

A patient with a diagnosis of syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is being cared for on your
unit. You are writing a care plan for this patient. The priority nursing
diagnosis for a patient with this condition is what?
Select one:
a. Hypotension
b. Deficient fluid volume
c. Excessive fluid volume
d. Hypothermia
e. Hyperthermia

Answer 73

c. Excessive fluid volume

Question 74

A patient with pheochromocytoma has been admitted for an adrenalectomy tomorrow. The patient is to start IV medication this evening to prevent adrenal insufficiency. What medication is the patient
to start?
Select one:
a. Antibiotics
b. Antihypertensives
c. Dolbutamide infusion
d. Parenteral nutrition
e. Corticosteroids

Answer 74

e. Corticosteroids

Question 75

A patient you are caring for is undergoing a
renin–aldosterone stimulation test. What drugs may be discontinued for up to 2
weeks before the renin-aldosterone stimulation test?
Select one:
a. Antihypertensives
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Laxatives
d. Antibiotics
e. Beta-blockers

Answer 75

a. Antihypertensives

Question 76

The student nurses are studying for a test on diabetes mellitus. What should the students know is a complication of diabetes termed “macrovascular”?
Select one:
a. Nephropathy
b. Renal failure
c. Retinopathy
d. Stroke
e. Liver failure

Answer 76

d. Stroke

Question 77

While assisting with the surgical removal of an adrenal tumour the operating room nurse is aware that the patient's vital signs
may change upon manipulation of the tumour. What vital sign changes would the
nurse expect to see?
Select one:
a. Hyperthermia and tachypnoea
b. Hypotension and hypothermia
c. Hyperthermia and bradycardia
d. Hypertension and heart rate changes
e. Hyperthermia and bradycardia

Answer 77

d. Hypertension and heart rate changes

Question 78

The PACU (theatre recovery) staff has brought a patient to the unit
following a thyroidectomy. To promote
comfort for this patient how would you position the patient?
Select one:
a. Side-lying (lateral) with no pillow under the head
b. Flat, with a small roll supporting the neck
c. Side-lying (lateral) with one pillow under the head
d. Semi-Fowler’s with the head supported on one or two pillows
e. Head of the bed elevated 30 degrees and no pillows placed under the head

Answer 78

d. Semi-Fowler’s with the head supported on one or two pillows

Question 79

The nursing instructor is teaching the nursing class Addison’s disease. What symptom would the instructor teach the student’s is characteristic of Addison’s disease?

Select one:

a. Hypertension
b. Tetany
c. Muscle weakness
d. “Moon” face
e. Truncal obesity

Answer 79

c. Muscle weakness

Question 80

The diabetic Nurse Educator is teaching a class for newly diagnosed diabetics and their families. In this class the Nurse
Educator is teaching about “sick day rules.” What guideline applies to periods
of illness (“sick day rules”) in a diabetic patient?
Select one:
a. Report elevated glucose levels greater than 7 mmol/L
b. Do not eliminate insulin when nauseated and
vomiting.
c. Eat three meals a day.
d. If nauseated, do not eat solid foods.
e. Eat small regular meals

Answer 80

b. Do not eliminate insulin when nauseated and vomiting.

Question 81

A patient who has had a total parathyroidectomy has returned to the unit from the PACU (theatre recovery). The nurse caring for the patient knows he should assess for what complication following this surgery?
Select one:
a. Hypercalcaemia
b. Confusion
c. Brittle bones
d. Tetany
e. Fatigue

Answer 81

d. Tetany

Question 82

A newly admitted patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what caused her diabetes. The nurse is explaining to the patient the aetiology of type 1 diabetes. Which of the following explanations is
appropriate?
Select one:
a. “The secretion of placental hormones causes the body to be resistant to insulin.”
b. None of them are correct
c. “Destruction of special cells in the pancreas causes a decrease in insulin production and the level of glucose (sugar) in the bloodstream increases because the body lacks insulin to break down the glucose.”
d. “The tissues in the body are resistant to the action of insulin, making insulin less effective in the body.”
e. “The formation of an acidic substance when the liver breaks down fatty acids because of the lack of insulin in the body.”

Answer 82

c. “Destruction of special cells in the pancreas causes a decrease in insulin production and the level of glucose (sugar) in the bloodstream increases because the body lacks insulin to break down the glucose.”

Question 83

The nurse caring for a patient with Cushing’s syndrome explains to her patient about the dexamethasone suppression test scheduled for tomorrow. What does the nurse explain that this test will involve?
Select one:
a. Administration of dexamethasone orally at 11 pm
and a plasma cortisol level at 8 am the next morning
b. Administration of dexamethasone intravenously,
followed by a plasma cortisol level 3 hours after the drug is administered
c. Administration of dexamethasone orally, followed
by a plasma cortisol level every hour for 3 hours
d. Administration of dexamethasone intravenously,
followed by an x-ray of the adrenal glands
e. None of them are correct

Answer 83

a. Administration of dexamethasone orally at 11 pm and a plasma cortisol level at 8 am the next morning

Question 84

A patient has returned to the floor after having a thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer. The nurse knows that sometimes during
thyroid surgery the parathyroid glands can be injured or removed. What laboratory finding may be an early indication of parathyroid gland injury or removal?
Select one:
a. Hypocalcaemia
b. Hyponatraemia
c. Hypophosphataemia
d. Hypokalaemia
e. Hyperkalaemia

Answer 84

a. Hypocalcaemia

Question 85

A patient is prescribed corticosteroid therapy.
What would be important information for the nurse to give the patient who is
prescribed corticosteroid therapy?
Select one:
a. The patient is at increased falls risk
b. The patient’s diet should be low protein with ample fat.
c. The patient is at an increased risk of
developing infection.
d. The patient is at a decreased risk of developing
thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism.
e. There will be no change in appearance.

Answer 85

c. The patient is at an increased risk of

developing infection.

Question 86

An adolescent, newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes, asks the nurse what caused the diabetes. What would be the nurse’s
best response?
Select one:
a. “The causes of type 1 diabetes are genetic, immunological and environmental.”
b. “It is thought to be caused by environmental
factors like a virus.”
c. “Type 1 diabetes has a variety of causes that work together to cause the disease.”
d. “Part of the cause of diabetes is immunologic. That means your body is destroying itself.”
e. How would I know I’m only a nurse

Answer 86

a. “The causes of type 1 diabetes are genetic, immunological and environmental.”

Question 87

You are teaching a patient about nutrition. You know that the body needs iodine for the thyroid to function. What food would be the best source of iodine for the body?
Select one:
a. Bananas
b. Table salt
c. Red meat
d. Eggs
e. Strawberries

Answer 87

b. Table salt

Question 88

A patient has returned to the unit after having a parathyroidectomy. What drug does the nurse ensure is immediately available?
Select one:
a. Ergocalciferol
b. Digitalis
c. Calcium alginate
d. Calcium gluconate
e. Amphojel

Answer 88

d. Calcium gluconate

Question 89

The nurse is caring for a patient with
hyperthyroidism. What would the nurse closely monitor for?
Select one:
a. Hypoglycaemia
b. Thyroid storm
c. Cardiac output
d. tetany
e. Hypoxia

Answer 89

b. Thyroid storm