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quiz questions Flashcards

1
Q

what happens when thyroid hormone are too low as a baby grows and they are not replaced?

A

permanent developmental delays

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2
Q

You re called code 4 to an elderly patient with a 2 to 3 day history of feeling unwell. The patient has a history of T2DM and is on glyburide. You check their blood sugar level and find it to be 30mmol/L. Other vital signs are: T 36.2C; HR 115/min; RR 24/min; BP 90/50; SpO2 98%; GCS 14. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hyperosmoalr hyperglycemia syndrome

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3
Q

Which of the following refers to primary adrenocortical insufficiency?

A

addison’s disease

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of hyperthyroidism?

A

cold intolerance

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5
Q

Testing for T4 is routinely done as part of blood screen in newborns. How is low thyroid hormone in neonates usually treated?

A

neonates receive injections of thyroid hormones

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6
Q

If ACTH levels are low and cortisol levels are high, which of the following conditions is likely to be present?

A

primary hypercortisolemia

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7
Q

Which of the following is true regarding hyperglycemia?

A

high glucose levels lead to glycosuria, polyuria, and dehydration

increased urination leads to decreased electrolytes (K+ and Na+)

weight loss occurs due to dehydration and breakdown of protein and fats

all of the above are true

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8
Q

Which of the following signs are likely to be present in a patient with severe primary adrenocortical insufficiency?

A

hyponatremia

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9
Q

Which of the following is true regarding type-1 diabetes mellitus?

A

T1DM results from an autoimmune destruction of beta cells of the pancreas, T1DM results from an autoimmune destruction of beta cells of the pancreas

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10
Q

Why does Cushing’s syndrome sometimes cause hypokalemia?

A

cushings syndrome increases the presence of aldosterone a mineralocorticoid as well as glucocorticoids that promote Na+ retention and excretion of K+

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11
Q

You are responding code 4 to a 10 year old patient who is complaining of severe abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting. The patients vital signs are as follows: HR 120/min; BP 90/50; RR 40/min, deep, regular; SpO2 98%; GCS 15; Temp 37.4C; Skin Pale, Cool, Diaphoretic; Blood Sugar 20.0 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

DKA

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12
Q

If a patient has high TSH and high T4, what condition does the patient likely have?

A

secondary hyperthyroidism

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13
Q

If TSH is high and T4 is low in the blood, what condition does the patient have?

A

primary hypothyroidism

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14
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three P’s of hyperglycemia?

A

polyposis

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15
Q

If hypothyroidism develops in adulthood but is not treated, what will happen to the patient?

A

patient will have difficulty concentrating

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16
Q

which of the following is true regarding cirrhosis

A

stage 1 - EtOH metabolite builds up causing cellular dysfunction and fat accumulation

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17
Q

Which of the following is true regarding jaundice?

A

It occurs as a result of inability to properly breakdown red blood cells

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18
Q

is the spleen a retroperitoneal structure?

A

no

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19
Q

what are some potential triggers for the vomiting center

A

central chemoreceptors

gastrointestinal tract

vestibular system

cortex and thalamus (i.e. psychological)

All are potential triggers

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20
Q

what are the characteristics of HAV?

A
  • route: oral/fecal
  • Pathogen: RNA
  • acute
  • carrier: no
  • self limiting contagious before CM
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21
Q

what are the characteristics of HBV?

A

route: blood/bodily fluids
pathogen: DNA
chronic
carrier: yes
notes: asymptomatic carriers: 2mon incubation

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22
Q

what are the characteristics for HCV?

A

route: blood and bodily fluids
pathogen: RNA
chronic
carrier: yes
notes: asymptomatic carriers

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23
Q

what are the characteristics for HDV?

A

route:blood/bodily fluids
pathogen: RNA
chronic
carrier: yes
requires presence of HBV: carrier

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24
Q

what are the characteristics for HEV?

A

route: oral/fecal
pathogen: RNA
chronic
carrier: no

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25
Q

cholelithiasis are most commonly a result of excess cholesterol build-up

peptic ulcer disease is most commonly associated with H Pylori bacterial infection

Hepatitis is most often the result of a viral infection leading to liver inflammation
true or false?

A

true

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26
Q

what are the 4 major functions of the GI

A
  1. motility
  2. secretion
    3.digestion
  3. absorprtion
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27
Q

what are the 4 F’s for cholelithiasis?

A

female, 40, fertile, fatty foods

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28
Q

what is the most common cause of pancreatitis?

A

chronic alcoholism

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29
Q

You are called code 3 to a patient with abdominal pain. You find on scene a 40 year old female patient complaining of RUQ abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. The patient has no previous medical history. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

cholecystitis

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30
Q

if a pt complains of being in intense pain during movement on the way to the hospital most likely would have…..

A

peritonitis

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31
Q

what is hyperopia?

A

farsightedness develops when the eyeball is too short & the image is focussed behind the retina.

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32
Q

a conditions associated w sensorineural deafness?

A

Prebycusis

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33
Q

what type of vision is lost during macular degeneration?

A

high acuity colour vision

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34
Q

why is it important ot never stick anything small in your ears?

A

to prevent conduction hearing loss through compassion of cerumen on the tympanic membrane

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35
Q

how does narrow angle glaucoma differ from open angle?

A

Narrow angle usually has an acute onset while open angle has an insidious onset

36
Q

what is the most common cause of otitis media in toddlers?

A

upper respiratory tract infection

37
Q

which of the following best describes the visual problem associated w astigmatism

A

irregular curvature of the cornea

38
Q

which of the following does not result in painful vision loss?

A

conjunctivitis

39
Q

Upon assessing your patient, you discover that the eyes are not properly aligned. What is this condition called?

A

amybylopia

40
Q

Your patient complaints that she can see better at night but has trouble during the day. When you examine her eyes, you see some grey in the pupils. What condition has she likely developed?

A

cataracts

41
Q

what are some signs and s/ w central cause of dizziness (ie: cerebellar stroke)

A

dysarthria, diplopia, dysphagia

42
Q

what are the common signs and symptoms of meninere’s disease

A

weird feeling in ears, vertigo, tinnitus, nystagmus on the affected side, n/v

43
Q

what condition is associated w a loss of accommodation?

A

Presbyopia

44
Q

narrow angle glaucoma…..

A

increased intraocular pressure due to narrowing of passageways to canal of schlemm.

45
Q

meniere’s disease affects ears bilaterally… t/f

A

false, unilateral affect

46
Q

Myoglobinemia is life-threatening because myoglobin is toxic to:

A

the kidneys

47
Q

sprains involve ligaments true or false…

A

true

48
Q

how to drugs such as paralytics work by

A

block acetylcholine receptors to decrease contractions

49
Q

Compartment syndrome occurs as a result of:

A

increased pressure within the myofacia

50
Q

what causes fibromyalgia….

A

unknown cause

51
Q

Muscular dystrophy results as a malformation of which protein?

A

dystrophin

52
Q

Release of potassium from a crush injury can be lethal because:

A

it causes ventricular arrhythmias including ventricular fibrillation

53
Q

what are the the 5 p’s of compartment syndrome?

A

pulselessness, parenthesia, pallor, pain, paralysis

54
Q

A life-threatening condition caused by the breakdown of muscle tissue and release of myoglobin and electrolytes is called

A

rhabdomyolysis

55
Q

strains involve what structure…..

A

tendon

56
Q

Curare was used as one of the first anaesthetic agents, and is used on poison arrows in South America. It acts by paralyzing people who come in contact with it. Based on this, Curare likely has what mechanism of action?

A

blocks acetylcholine receptors

57
Q

Muscular dystrophy is best described as:

A

A genetic disorder that reduces muscle fibres causing muscle weakness

58
Q

Osteoarthritis is best described as:

A

A degenerative disease that results in erosion of articular cartilage in the joint

59
Q

Rickett’s is often caused by:

A

lack of calcium

60
Q

rheumatoid arthritis is:

A

an autoimmune disorder that causes progressive joint damage

61
Q

osteoporosis impacts large bones first t/f

A

false; smaller bones first like vertebrae

62
Q

what are the stages of bone healing fractures:

A

wk1:blood pooling & clotting( hematoma) & inflammation
wk2-3: soft cartillage forms to help keep ends of bones together
wk4-16:boney framework called callus forms during bone repair
wk4-wk17: osteoclasts/blasts continue remodelling until repair= achieved

63
Q

unilateral closed femur fracture can result in up to _____L of blood loss….

A

1.5L

64
Q

bone fractures result in myoglobin release–> kidney damage (t/f

A

false: muscle breakdown causes that

65
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is most likely to start in what joint?

A

smaller joints in the hands and feet first such as cervical spine

66
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is most likely to start in what joint?

A

a partial dislocation where articulating surfaces do not lose contact

67
Q

osteopenia

A

a condtion of bone density

68
Q

osteomyelitis

A

infection/inflammation of bone

69
Q

a partial dislocation where articulating surfaces do not lose contact

A

osteoclasts

70
Q

what are some risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Ca2+ deficient, female, older age,

71
Q

gout is characterized by what type of crystal formation?

A

uric acid

72
Q

You are looking at a patients blood work in hospital. The patient is complaining of abdominal pain and nausea and vomiting and feeling generally unwell. The nurse says, ‘oh my gosh check out the arterial blood gas (ABG) for this patient…” as she shows you the following: pH 7.7; pCO2 36mmHg; pO2 80mmHg; HCO3 42mEq/L. Which of the following is the patient suffering from?

A

metabolic alkolosis

73
Q

Buffer systems work by changing a strong acid into a weak acid (or strong base to weak base) T/F?

A

true

74
Q

The following represents what acid/base disturbance?

pH 7.2; pCO2 66mmHg; pO2 100mmHg; HCO3 24mEq/L

A

respiratory acidosis

75
Q

Your patient in clinical has the following ABG? pH 7.1; pCO2 50mmHg; pO2 60mmHg; HCO3 24mEq/L. Which of the following treatment would be most appropriate?

A

BVM ventilations

76
Q

between: RR 15 and Vt 500 and RR 30 and Vt of 200: who has the lowest ETCO2 levels?

A

RR 15 and Vt 500

77
Q

which of the following is correct from fastest to slowest speed of compensation for acid/base problems?

A

buffer, lungs, renal

78
Q

what are some protien buffer examples?

A

bicarbonate

phosphate

hemoglobin

albumin

79
Q

Your patient has the following blood gases: pH 7.55; pCO2 52mmHg; pO2 80mmHg; HCO3 32mEq/L. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis?

A

metabolic alkolosis w partial resp compensation

80
Q

Your patient in clinical has the following ABG? pH 7.1; pCO2 50mmHg; pO2 40mmHg; HCO3 24mEq/L. Which of the following treatment would be most appropriate?

A

BVM w supplemental O2

81
Q

norm ph

A

7.35-7.45

82
Q

Which of the following compensation systems works immediately to prevent massive fluctuations in acid/base balance?

A

protein buffers

83
Q

sepsis leads to metabolic acidosis t/f?

A

true

84
Q

decreasing the reabsorption of bicarb in kidneys leads to …

A

metabolic acidosis

85
Q

Which of the following compensation systems works immediately to prevent massive fluctuations in acid/base balance?

A

low ph & + CO2

Patho (4 decks)

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