Quiz MCQ Flashcards
1
Q
The subject doesn’t want to admit to the interviewer the amount of alcohol consumption per week, so admit just half of it.
a. Recall Bias
b. Random Error
c. Response Bias
d. Selection Bias
A
c. Response Bias
2
Q
What are the properties of the cohort in a cohort study?
a. Have the risk of the end point.
b. Made by carefully selected cases.
c. Free from the endpoint we observe.
d. Get no explosion during the study.
A
a. Have the risk of the end point.
c. Free from the endpoint we observe
3
Q
What type would you choose to examine a rare endpoint?
a. Case control study
b. Cohort study
A
a. Case control study
4
Q
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Statistics is a collection of mathematical techniques that help to analyze and present data.
b. The lack of information leads to randomness.
c. Physical laws always describe deterministic processes.
d. Everyday thinking estimates probabilities and risks surprisingly well
A
a. Statistics is a collection of mathematical techniques that help to analyze and present data.
b. The lack of information leads to randomness.
5
Q
Select one or more:
a. Computers cannot generate random numbers.
b. A medical prognosis is essentially a probability statement.
c. Probability can be interpreted as our belief that an event (like rain falls tomorrow) will occur.
d. Data collected from the populations helps to make individual decisions.
A
b. A medical prognosis is essentially a probability statement.
c. Probability can be interpreted as our belief that an event (like rain falls tomorrow) will occur.
d. Data collected from the populations helps to make individual decisions.
6
Q
Which statement(s) are true to the Wilcoxon signed rank test?
Select one:
a. Normality assumption has to be fullfilled.
b. The null hypothesis could be that the difference of the medians of the paired samples is 0, assuming that the distribution of the difference between the samples is symmetrical to the median.
c. The null hypothesis is the equality of the median of the paired samples.
d. The null hypothesis could be that the median of the difference between the paired samples is 0, assuming that the distribution of the difference between the samples is symmetrical to the median.
A
d. The null hypothesis could be that the median of the difference between the paired samples is 0, assuming that the distribution of the difference between the samples is symmetrical to the median.
7
Q
The meaning of p-value in a hypothesis test:
Select one:
a. the probability of having a corresponding (to the sample) or more extreme if the alternative hypothesis is true
b. the probability of having a corresponding (to the sample) value if the alternative hypothesis is true
c. the probability of having a corresponding (to the sample) value if the null hypothesis is true
d. the probability of having a corresponding (to the sample) or more extreme if the null hypothesis is true
A
d. the probability of having a corresponding (to the sample) or more extreme if the null hypothesis is true
8
Q
The aim of a hypothesis test is:
Select one:
a. to give a statistical answer on yes/no question.
b. to answer whether the effect is relevant or not.
c. to determine an error probability.
d. to calculate the significance level.
A
a. to give a statistical answer on yes/no question.
9
Q
You are analyzing the results of a cohort study. At the baseline examination you assessed cardiovascular risk factors on the enrolled subjects. During the 10-year follow-up you recorded the occurrence of several outcomes (death, cardiovascular diseases).
Suppose you want to examine the association between diabetes at the baseline examination and the incidence of death during the follow-up. There were no losses to follow-up for the outcome of death in this study; mortality status was obtained for everyone. Which of the following measures can you calculate validly from the data?
a. risk ratio
b. incidence rate ratio
c. none of them
d. odds ratio
A
a. risk ratio
b. incidence rate ratio
d. odds ratio
10
Q
Select the correct statements about ’prevalence’.
Select one or more:
a. Prevalence ratio can be calculated as the number of new cases developing during the follow-up period divided by the total number at risk at the beginning of the study.
b. One of the most frequently used measures to describe causality between exposure and outcome.
c. Its value is highly influenced by the incidence and the duration of the disease.
d. It describes the existence of a disease at some point in time.
A
c. Its value is highly influenced by the incidence and the duration of the disease.
d. It describes the existence of a disease at some point in time.
11
Q
Which are the methods what we can use to address confounding in the design phase?
Select one or more:
a. Matching
b. We enroll at least twice as many exposed subjects to the study as control subjects.
c. There is no way to address confounding in the design phase of cohort studies.
d. Randomization
A
a. Matching
d. Randomization
12
Q
The members of the Ethical Committee, EXCEPT: Select one: a. independent physician b. head of department c. lay member d. theologian
A
b. head of department
13
Q
Which is not necessary in a good inform consent? Select one: a. the number of enrolled patients b. insurance c. the experimental character d. the end day of the study
A
d. the end day of the study
14
Q
Which is not the principle of the human research according to the Belmont Report? Select one: a. respect for the person b. justice c. equity d. beneficiency
A
c. equity
15
Q
Which of the following can mean in ideal case the sure solution of confounding? Select one: a. Randomization b. Standardization c. Matching d. Stratification
A
a. Randomization
16
Q
In a linear regression, what do we assume about the nature of the response variable? It is… Select one: a. Binary b. Continuous c. Ordinal d. Time-to-event
A
b. Continuous
17
Q
What is a dummy variable?
Select one:
a. A continuous variable
b. A categorical variable
c. A variable that can take more than two values
d. A variable that can take only two values
A
d. A variable that can take only two values
18
Q
What is multicollinearity?
Select one:
a. If explanatory variables explain the response variable
b. If explanatory variables explain each other
c. If the response variable explains the explanatory variables
d. If the response variable explains itself
A
c. If the response variable explains the explanatory variables
19
Q
Which of the following is the type of the test that tests the significance of a single variable? Select one: a. t-test b. F-test c. χ 2 -test d. z-test
A
a. t-test
20
Q
Which of the following violate linearity as a model assumption?
Select one or more:
a. If a variable’s effect is not linear
b. If the errors are correlated
c. If the errors have a non-normal distribution
d. If there is an interaction between two variables
A
a. If a variable’s effect is not linear
d. If there is an interaction between two variables
21
Q
In the logistic regression models
Select one or more:
a. different types of variables can appear among the predictors.
b. the number of the predictors must be the same as those of dependent variables,
c. the number of the predictors can be arbitrary,
d. the predictors must be binary,
A
a. different types of variables can appear among the predictors.
c. the number of the predictors can be arbitrary,
22
Q
The odds ratio … Select one: a. is a number between 0 and 1, b. is an integer, c. can be an arbitrary number. d. is a non-negative number,
A
d. is a non-negative number,
23
Q
A categorical variable, which can take 4 different values, can be substituted by ..... indicator variables. Select one: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 1
A
a. 3
24
Q
The following data are from a screening test result. Calculate the positive predictive value! Screening result Confirmed Not confirmed Positive 2100 800 Negative 145 15400
Select one:
a. 99,1%
b. 72,4%
c. 93,5%
d. 87,6%
e. 57,9%
A
b. 72,4%
25
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Biomarkers are very important tools for "translational medicine".
b. The disadvantage of biomarkers is that provide information about the course of the disease only
following the standard clinical diagnostics.
c. Predictive biomarker estimates how well a given treatment will be successful for a given patient.
d. The microarray technology cannot be used in clinical settings as biomarker.
a. Biomarkers are very important tools for "translational medicine".
c. Predictive biomarker estimates how well a given treatment will be successful for a given patient.
26
Biomarkers are called laboratory, visual, electrical (e.g. EEG) etc. the parameters obtained from
measurements, and they are:
Select one or more:
a. correlate with the presence or severity of the disease.
b. can be used to characterize the time course of a therapeutic intervention.
c. can predictive for success of a therapeutic intervention.
d. previously they were called as soft clinical endpoint.
a. correlate with the presence or severity of the disease.
b. can be used to characterize the time course of a therapeutic intervention.
c. can predictive for success of a therapeutic intervention.
27
What type would you choose to examine a rare exposition?
Select one:
a. cohort study
b. case control study
a. cohort study
28
```
Blood pressure of the cases is measured by an experienced nurse, while blood pressure of
controls is measured by a beginner.
Options:
Select one:
a. selection bias
b. recall bias
c. random error
d. information bias
```
d. information bias
29
```
We examine the methods of catching up of disadvantageous children with a cohort study. The
best pupils are leaving the cohort.
Options:
Select one:
a. response bias
b. selection bias
c. instrumential bias
d. random error
```
b. selection bias
30
```
What are the properties of a confounder?
Select one or more:
a. associated with the exposure
b. independent risk factor of the disease
c. an effect of the exposure
d. not an effect of the exposure
```
a. associated with the exposure
b. independent risk factor of the disease
d. not an effect of the exposure
31
Select one or more:
a. detailed description of the symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of one/more patients
b. Observation of effect the average level of an exposure to a population level end point
c. strong evidence
d. has no control group
a. detailed description of the symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of one/more patients
d. has no control group
32
```
Can a casual relationship determined from ecological studies?
Select one:
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only in special cases
```
c. Only in special cases
33
```
In which type of study can we expect to the highest number of uncontrolled confounders and biases?
Select one:
a. cross sectional study
b. cohort study
c. case control study
d. case report
```
d. case report
34
Which factor determines a study to be observational or interventional?
Select one:
a. decision of the researcher
b. who determines the group for a subject (control or exposed): the researcher or the subject
c. number of enrolled subjects
d. number of groups in the study
b. who determines the group for a subject (control or exposed): the researcher or the subject
35
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Statistics is a branch of science.
b. The word "statistics" has more than one meaning. It means a computed (derived) data. For example,
the average is a „statistic”.
c. The objective of statistical inference is to estimate the uncertainties due to sampling.
d. Statistics means collection of data published in yearbooks by health authorities like WHO.
a. Statistics is a branch of science.
b. The word "statistics" has more than one meaning. It means a computed (derived) data. For example,
the average is a „statistic”.
c. The objective of statistical inference is to estimate the uncertainties due to sampling.
d. Statistics means collection of data published in yearbooks by health authorities like WHO
36
When recording data in a table,
Select one or more:
a. Qualitative properties (healthy or sick) are often encoded by numbers. For example, being in the
control group is typically denoted with 0.
b. Statistical programs denote missing data with special characters.
c. We recommend using Microsoft Excel because it treats foreign (Hungarian) characters well.
d. Statistical variables have what is called “type” like binary, continuous and so on.
a. Qualitative properties (healthy or sick) are often encoded by numbers. For example, being in the
control group is typically denoted with 0.
b. Statistical programs denote missing data with special characters.
d. Statistical variables have what is called “type” like binary, continuous and so on.
37
By type of variables:
Select one or more:
a. Age is a binary variable.
b. The patient's weight is a continuous variable.
c. Drugs that a patient is taking is a nominal variable.
d. Severity of the disease (like Stage 1, 2, 3 and 4) is a continuous variable.
b. The patient's weight is a continuous variable.
| c. Drugs that a patient is taking is a nominal variable.
38
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Pain score (none, mild, severe) is an example for an ordinal variable.
b. Binary data is often transformed logarithmically to have a normal distribution.
c. Binary transformation of continuous data (e.g. blood pressure) (high, low) leads to information loss.
d. Typing of variables is based on the possible values a variable can take.
a. Pain score (none, mild, severe) is an example for an ordinal variable.
c. Binary transformation of continuous data (e.g. blood pressure) (high, low) leads to information loss.
d. Typing of variables is based on the possible values a variable can take.
39
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. The geometric mean should be used when the distribution is right skewed.
b. The median of data is sensitive to outlier data.
c. The average is sensitive to the symmetry of the distribution.
d. The mean or the median should be published, giving both at same time is unnecessary.
a. The geometric mean should be used when the distribution is right skewed.
c. The average is sensitive to the symmetry of the distribution.
40
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Twenty-five percent of the sample elements are smaller than Q1.
b. The Quartiles (Q1, Q2, Q3) give three-point summaries of the data.
c. Q2 is known otherwise as a median.
d. Twenty-five percent of the sample elements are higher than Q3.
a. Twenty-five percent of the sample elements are smaller than Q1.
b. The Quartiles (Q1, Q2, Q3) give three-point summaries of the data.
c. Q2 is known otherwise as a median.
d. Twenty-five percent of the sample elements are higher than Q3.
41
Please select the correct answer!
Select one:
a. The standard deviation is a scale independent parameter.
b. The standard deviation is also called as variance.
c. The mean can computed only for normally distributed data.
d. The coefficient of variation is a scale independent parameter.
d. The coefficient of variation is a scale independent parameter.
42
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. If we collect enough data then the distribution of our data will be bell-shape like ("normal")
distribution.
b. The calculated confidence interval is a "random" interval which varies from between samples.
c. The width of the confidence interval of mean depends on the sample size.
d. The 90% confidence interval of the mean covers the population with a probability of 90%.
b. The calculated confidence interval is a "random" interval which varies from between samples.
c. The width of the confidence interval of mean depends on the sample size.
43
```
The good estimation is:
Select one or more:
a. Relevant
b. Unbiased
c. Consistent
d. Significant
e. Effective
f. Biased
```
b. Unbiased
c. Consistent
e. Effective
44
Which statement(s) are true regarding to the power of a statistical test?
Select one or more:
a. The power of a statistical test is the probability of having a corresponding (to the sample) or more extreme value if the null hypothesis is true.
b. It depends on the p-value calculated on a sample.
c. It depends on the effect size and sample size.
d. The power of a statistical test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis if the alternative hypothesis is true.
c. It depends on the effect size and sample size.
d. The power of a statistical test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis if the alternative hypothesis is true.
45
Give the meaning of unbiased estimation.
Select one:
a. The standard error of the estimation (the variability of the estimates) is small.
b. The expected value of the estimates in different samples is equal with the estimand.
c. The estimation contains the same amount of information as thewhole sample
d. The variability of estimates decreases with increased sample size.
b. The expected value of the estimates in different samples is equal with the estimand.
46
Select the correct statements about ’incidence rate’.
Select one or more:
a. Its application in epidemiology is limited, because its interpretation is highly influenced by the loss to follow-up.
b. Incidence rate is the instantaneous risk for developing the disease at any point in time.
c. Incidence rate can be calculated as the number of new diseases developing during the follow-up period divided by the total person-time.
d. Cumulative incidence is a synonym for incidence rate.
b. Incidence rate is the instantaneous risk for developing the disease at any point in time.
c. Incidence rate can be calculated as the number of new diseases developing during the follow-up period divided by the total person-time.
47
```
The Year of Nuremberg Code
Select one:
a. 1947
b. 1936
c. 2013
d. 1960
```
a. 1947
48
```
Role of the Ethical Committee
Select one:
a. implementation
b. licensing
c. reviewing
d. design
```
c. reviewing
49
```
Which is not necessary in a good inform consent?
Select one:
a. the end day of the study
b. the experimental character
c. insurance
d. the number of enrolled patients
```
a. the end day of the study
50
The Milgram experiment:
Select one:
a. there is no such experiment, I haven't heard about it
b. is a famous experiment on the withdrawal of drinks containing vitamin C
c. is the social psychology’s obedience test
d. is an experiment on psychological burden of medical students
c. is the social psychology’s obedience test
51
Which is not the researcher’s task?
Select one:
a. adherence to and compliance with scientific principles
b. best knowledge of the scientific field
c. protection of personal data
d. representation of the interests of individual patients
d. representation of the interests of individual patients
52
```
The main role of ethical comittee regarding the trial protocoll is
Select one:
a. licensing
b. to inspect
c. the ethical review
d. to define
```
c. the ethical review
53
```
Which is not true for observational clinical trials?
Select one:
a. there is no active intervention
b. can be defined well legally
c. data protection is important
d. no need to notificate or licence
```
d. no need to notificate or licence
54
The retrospective use of medical data
Select one:
a. is retrospective data collection, so it is not an observational study
b. can be done at any time without licensing
c. is not a real research, the Declaration of Helsinki does not name it
d. is research, the Declaration of Helsinki does name it
d. is research, the Declaration of Helsinki does name it
55
The Declaration of Helsinki
Select one:
a. is the legal regulation of clinical trials
b. is the legal regulation of medical staff
c. is the revelation of the principles of GCP
d. is the international standard of clinical trials
d. is the international standard of clinical trials
56
```
Oviedo Convention in 1998 involves
Select one:
a. the ban on cloning
b. the regulation of researchers
c. data protection
d. the costs of the research
```
a. the ban on cloning
57
Which is not part of Good Clinical Practice?
Select one:
a. ensuring that data are accurate
b. ensuring that results are believable
c. ensuring that results are accurate
d. guiding for clinical trials of medical devices
d. guiding for clinical trials of medical devices
58
```
What has to be true at the same time for confounding to occur? The confounder…
Select one or more:
a. Has an effect on the endpoint
b. Has an effect on the exposure
c. Is associated with the endpoint
d. Is associated with the exposure
```
a. Has an effect on the endpoint
| d. Is associated with the exposure
59
What does model estimation mean?
Select one:
a. To determine the uncertain value of a parameter of the sample based on the population
b. The determine the certain value of a population parameter based on a sample
c. To determine the certain value of a parameter of the sample based on the population
d. To determine the uncertain value of a population parameter based on a sample
d. To determine the uncertain value of a population parameter based on a sample
60
What is the advantage of stratification?
Select one:
a. Universal (does not require any further assumptions)
b. Gives easily interpretable results
c. Continuous confounders can be easily handled
d. Provides one single result
a. Universal (does not require any further assumptions)
61
What does additivity mean?
Select one:
a. The impact of a variable on the endpoint does not depend on the impact of another variable
on the endpoint
b. The value of a variable doesn’t depend on another variable’s impact on the endpoint
c. The impact of a variable on the endpoint does not depend on another variable’s value
d. The value of one variable doesn’t depend on the value of another variable
c. The impact of a variable on the endpoint does not depend on another variable’s value
62
If two variables’ effect is not additive, we can also say that…
Select one:
a. There is no interaction between them
b. There is an interaction between them
c. They are independent from each other
d. They are not independent from each other
b. There is an interaction between them
63
```
A variable has 4 possible outcomes. How many dummy variables do we need to enter it into a
model?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 1
c. 4
d. 2
```
A variable has 4 possible outcomes. How many dummy variables do we need to enter it into a
model?
Select one:
a. 3
64
```
If we enter a continuous variable into the linear regression model as-is, what do we assume of its impact on the
endpoint? It is…
Select one:
a. Linear
b. Additive
c. Quadratic
d. Non-linear
```
a. Linear
65
What is multicollinearity?
Select one:
a. If explanatory variables explain each other
b. If explanatory variables explain the response variable
c. If the response variable explains itself
d. If the response variable explains the explanatory variables
a. If explanatory variables explain each other
66
```
Which of the following is a property of an estimator?
Select one or more:
a. Monotone
b. Unbiased
c. Consistent
d. Efficient
```
b. Unbiased
c. Consistent
d. Efficient
67
```
Which of the following is the type of the test that tests the significance of a group (possibly
including all) of variables?
Select one:
a. F-test
b. χ2 -test
c. z-test
d. t-test
```
d. t-test
68
```
Confounding violates which of the following model assumptions?
Select one:
a. Error normality
b. Linearity
c. Lack of autocorrelation
d. Exogeneity
```
d. Exogeneity
69
```
Which is the most widely used metric to measure the goodness-of-fit of a model?
Select one:
a. K2
b. H2
c. A2
d. R2
```
d. R2
70
What are the possible applications of a statistical model?
Select one or more:
a. Interpretation (with numerical results)
b. Interpretation (with visualization)
c. Prediction
d. Clairvoyance
a. Interpretation (with numerical results)
b. Interpretation (with visualization)
c. Prediction
71
What can cause overfitting?
Select one or more:
a. Apparently non-complex model, but one that was reached through many fine-tuning steps
b. A model assumption is violated
c. Too large sample size
d. Too complex model, e.g. too many variables are included
a. Apparently non-complex model, but one that was reached through many fine-tuning steps
d. Too complex model, e.g. too many variables are included
72
What should we do if we have to select from candidate explanatory variables?
Select one or more:
a. Filter them based on redundancy
b. Filter them based on medical considerations
c. Use automatic model selection methods without validation
d. Do not filter them, but use special estimation methods
a. Filter them based on redundancy
b. Filter them based on medical considerations
d. Do not filter them, but use special estimation methods
73
```
The odds …
Select one:
a. can be an arbitrary number.
b. is an integer,
c. is a number between 0 and 1,
d. is a non-negative number,
```
d. is a non-negative number,
74
Which statement is true?
Select one or more:
a. Let us suppose that for comparison of an exposed group with another one we calculate an
odds ratio concerning the occurrence of a disease. The estimation of the odds ratio
generally becomes different if we take into consideration also the sex and the age of the
subjects.
b. Interaction between predictors are not allowable in the logistic regression models.
c. We can choose any value of a categorical variable for reference value (i.e. any of the
groups determined by the variable can be the reference category).
d. If there are several predictors in a logistic regression model then also a negative value can
appear among the odds ratios estimated from this model.
a. Let us suppose that for comparison of an exposed group with another one we calculate an
odds ratio concerning the occurrence of a disease. The estimation of the odds ratio
generally becomes different if we take into consideration also the sex and the age of the
subjects.
c. We can choose any value of a categorical variable for reference value (i.e. any of the
groups determined by the variable can be the reference category).
75
If we investigate the occurrence of a disease among people with high blood pressure and people with
low blood pressure and we get an odds ratio equal to 2, then
Select one or more:
a. the odds of the occurrence of the disease among people with low blood pressure is half as
big than in the group of the people with high blood pressure.
b. the probability of the occurrence of the disease among people with low blood pressure is
half as big than in the group of the people with high blood pressure,
c. the odds of the occurrence of the disease among people with high blood pressure is two
times greater than in the other group,
d. the probability of the occurrence of the disease among people with high blood pressure is
two times greater than in the other group,
a. the odds of the occurrence of the disease among people with low blood pressure is half as
big than in the group of the people with high blood pressure.
c. the odds of the occurrence of the disease among people with high blood pressure is two
times greater than in the other group,
76
By a statistical test it is worth investigating whether an odds ratio
Select one:
a. is significantly different from 1,
b. is positive,
c. correlates significantly with the probabilities.
d. is significantly different from 0,
a. is significantly different from 1,
77
In the logistic regression models
Select one:
a. the estimated coefficients can be interpreted as odds,
b. the estimated coefficients can be interpreted as odds ratios,
c. the estimated coefficients can be interpreted as probabilities.
d. odds ratios can be calculated from the estimated coefficients,
d. odds ratios can be calculated from the estimated coefficients,
78
```
In the logistic regression models if we interpret the odds ratio belonging to a value of the categorical
predictor, the point of reference is
Select one:
a. the reference category,
b. the previous category,
c. the dependent variable.
d. the previous predictor,
```
a. the reference category,
79
In the logistic regression models the odds ratio belonging to a continuous predictor
Select one or more:
a. cannot be less than 1.
b. can be interpreted so that the odds of the occurrence of the examined outcome will be
multiplied by this number if the value of the predictor increases with one unit,
c. depends on the measure unit of the predictor,
d. can be interpreted so that the odds of the occurrence of the examined outcome will be
multiplied by this number if the value of the dependent variable increases with one unit,
b. can be interpreted so that the odds of the occurrence of the examined outcome will be
multiplied by this number if the value of the predictor increases with one unit,
c. depends on the measure unit of the predictor,
80
Please select the correct answer!
Select one:
a. The clustering algorithms can be used to specify the group's FDR value.
b. The hierarchical clustering algorithm combines groups that are not significantly different from each
other.
c. The result of hierarchical clustering is presented with the so-called heatmap.
d. In a microarray experiment clustering helps to find genes which expression is increased due to
treatment.
c. The result of hierarchical clustering is presented with the so-called heatmap.
81
```
The following data are from a screening test result. Calculate the sensitivity!
Screening result
Confirmed
Not confirmed
Positive
2100
800
Negative
145
15400
```
Select one:
a. 93,5%
b. 72,4%
c. 57,9%
d. 87,6%
e. 99,1%
a. 93,5%
82
The researcher decides to use values under 20 µg/dl as normal limits for a screening test and the test becomes commercially available. One of Your patients has a test result of 27 µg/dl . You conclude that…
Select one:
a. A confirmation test will be needed as she may or may not have cancer
b. The patient does not have cancer of the ovary
c. This is a false-negative test
d. This test is not sensitive enough to detect cancer
e. The patient has cancer of the ovary
a. A confirmation test will be needed as she may or may not have cancer
83
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Bonferroni correction is a statistical procedure that reduces the chance of making false statements
when more than one statistical hypothesis tests are carried out.
b. Bonferroni correction means that the FDR value cannot be more than 50%.
c. The "omics" technology is characterized by measuring several even 1000000 parameters
simultaneously.
d. The Bonferroni correction is recommended to evaluate „. OMICS” data.
a. Bonferroni correction is a statistical procedure that reduces the chance of making false statements
when more than one statistical hypothesis tests are carried out.
c. The "omics" technology is characterized by measuring several even 1000000 parameters
simultaneously.
84
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. Blood pressure is a surrogate marker for antihypertensive drugs.
b. Stroke risk is a commonly used biomarker.
c. Every biomarker is a surrogate endpoint.
d. The "surrogate endpoint" is an endpoint which is accepted by the authorities instead of the usual
clinical endpoint.
a. Blood pressure is a surrogate marker for antihypertensive drugs.
d. The "surrogate endpoint" is an endpoint which is accepted by the authorities instead of the usual
clinical endpoint.
85
If the researcher chooses values under 25 µg/dl as normal limits for the test, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. The test will be 100% specific
b. The test will be 100% sensitive
c. All persons with cancer will have a positive test
d. No false-negative tests will occur
e. There will be some false positive tests
e. There will be some false positive tests
86
Please select the correct answer!
Select one or more:
a. The microarray technology cannot be used in clinical settings as biomarker.
b. The disadvantage of biomarkers is that provide information about the course of the disease only
following the standard clinical diagnostics.
c. Biomarkers are very important tools for "translational medicine".
d. Predictive biomarker estimates how well a given treatment will be successful for a given patient.
c. Biomarkers are very important tools for "translational medicine".
d. Predictive biomarker estimates how well a given treatment will be successful for a given patient.
87
If the researcher chooses values under 30 µg/dl as normal limits for the test, which of the following statement is true?
Select one:
a. The test will be 100% sensitive
b. Some persons without cancer will test positive
c. The test will be 100% specific
d. All persons with cancer will have a positive test
e. There will be some false positive tests
c. The test will be 100% specific
