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Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

An accident occurred because the driver/operator of a city or personal vehicle missed judge clearance for failed to drive defensively.

A

Category 1

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2
Q

An accident occurred because the driver/operator of a city or personal vehicle is negligent and or violated city or department rules, policies and procedures or violated any section of the California vehicle code.

A

Category 2

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3
Q

An accident occurred because the driver/operator Of a city or personal vehicle was under the influence of alcohol or drugs to any degree or who flagrantly willfully deliberately disregarded safety.

A

Category 3

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4
Q

How many people sit on the ARC accident review committee?

A

5

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5
Q

How long do you have to turn in the accident packet after an accident?

A

Until the end of that shift

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6
Q

What is the penalty for driving without a DMV license?

A

24 hour suspension

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7
Q

An accident in which an employee is at fault for the accident could have been avoided by using defensive driving techniques

A

Preventable accident

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8
Q

What is the maximum number of feet a foam inductor can be from the apparatus

A

Unlimited

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9
Q

What is the OOS tire tread depth for front and rear tires?

A

4/32 Front

2/32 rear.

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10
Q

What is the discipline penalty for not wearing a seatbelt on the apparatus?

A

24 hours suspension

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11
Q

What form number is the delayed discrepancy form?

A

FDM 8A

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12
Q

What day is the tire tread depth day?

A

The 27th of the month.

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13
Q

What number is the BA maintenance form.

A

FDM 16

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14
Q

What form number is the allied equipment form?

A

FDM 11

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15
Q

How far apart should standpipes be placed in a building?

A

Stan pipes should be placed every 100 feet of hose with a 30 foot stream reach

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16
Q

Compressed air phone wet application is used for?

A

Direct attack and overhaul

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17
Q

Compressed air foam dry application is used for?

A

Pre-treating an exposure protection

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18
Q

What percentage of compressed air foam is used for wet application?

A

.3%

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19
Q

What percentage of compressed air foam is used for dry application?

A

.5% to 1%

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20
Q

What type of fire pump does Sdfd use?

A

Centrifugal pump’s

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21
Q

Where is the Hale relief dump valve located?

A

On the discharge side of the pump

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22
Q

What is the initial pump pressure for exterior fires?

A

200 psi

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23
Q

What is the service test pressure for red booster line?

A

400 psi

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24
Q

What are the equivalent flow rates for 3/4”, 1”, 1 1/2”, 1 3/4”, 3”, 3 1/2”, 4”?

A 
25
9
3.6
2
.67
.4
.25
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25
Q

What is the initial pump pressure for standpipe systems?

A

150 psi

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26
Q

How is the initial pump pressure for a handheld line calculated?

A

Pp= NP+/-GG/GL

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27
Q

How do you calculate Siamese lines?

A

Add the length of the lines and then average them

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28
Q

When relay pumping where is the strongest pump placed?

A

At the water source

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29
Q

What position should be aerial ladder be in when hydraulic oil is added?

A

In the bedded position

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30
Q

What is the formula to calculate the capacity of a tank in gallons?

A

LxHxWx7.5

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31
Q

What is the minimum intake pressure you need to maintain?

A

20psi

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32
Q

What is the max speed for driving in oncoming traffic?

A

15 mph

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33
Q

What vehicle weight requires a class B license?

A

26,001 pounds or more

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34
Q

What does the DMV 64 restriction cover?

A

Automatic transmissions only, no manual

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35
Q

What is the max speed for driving code 3 on the freeway?

A

10 mph over the speed limit if conditions are good.

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36
Q

How long is an employee allowed to OCA?

A

Eight hours

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37
Q

We are blocks must be used at all times except for?

A

When parked in the station in an approved cradle.

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38
Q

On the foam pro gauge what does total foam referred to?

A

Total foam used in gallons

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39
Q

What day is tire pressure day?

A

Mondays

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40
Q

What is the FDM 118?

A

Regen record.

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41
Q

What does the indicator show on a level 1 regen?

A

Steady yellow light

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42
Q

What should be done while driving in a level 4 regen required?

A

Stop the vehicle immediately and place out of service

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43
Q

What is the ratio for DEF to fuel on the apparatus?

A

1 gallon of DEF for every 50 gallons of fuel

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44
Q

What is the max reading for the life hoist pulley system?

A

500 lbs

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45
Q

When is the differential lock used on an aerial apparatus?

A

Soft or Sandy Roads.

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46
Q

Where are the water thieves located on the Sdfd I zone packs?

A

On the first and third stick of hose or every 200 feet

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47
Q

How long do you hold the emergency reset for 800 mobile?

A

Four seconds

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48
Q

What letter is designated as the RIC channel?

A

L

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49
Q

A reasonably careful person performing similar duties in under similar circumstances would act in the same manner?

A

Due regard.

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50
Q

Legal liability placed on one person for the acts committed by another person.

A

Vicarious liability

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51
Q

A red light, yellow light, stop sign or yield sign are examples of this.

A

Controlled intersection

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52
Q

When approaching a school bus code 3 and the bus is displaying red light or stop sign clipboard what should you do?

A

Come to a complete stop and proceed at 15 miles an hour when it is safe to do so

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53
Q

What is the minimum break show thickness?

A

1/4”

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54
Q

What is a level two regen indicator?

A

Flashing triangle.

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55
Q

What is a level III REGEN indicator?

A

Check engine light and flashing triangle

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56
Q

How much lighter is hose with CAFS than normal water?

A

1/3 lighter

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57
Q

What is the pump pressure for an iZone pack?

A

Initial 100 psi + 2 psi per stick.

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58
Q

What are the four basic methods for extinguishing fires?

A

Cooling, smothering, saponification, breaking the chemical chain reaction

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59
Q

True or false Halon 1211 Causes ozone depletion?

A

True

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60
Q

What agent is used in class D extinguishers?

A

Met-l-x

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61
Q

A fire extinguisher with a 1A rating is equivalent to how many gallons of water?

A

1 1/4 gallons.

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62
Q

A fire extinguisher with a 1B rating can extinguish how many square feet of fire?

A

2 1/2 ft.²

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63
Q

What are the three applications for applying the foam?

A

Bounce off, rain down, direct attack/rolling

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64
Q

Fire hydrants are spaced approximately how many feet apart?

A

600’

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65
Q

Fire hydrants are positioned with what outlet facing the street?

A

4”

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66
Q

What are the requirements for clearance around a hydrant?

A

Lowest outlet a minimum of 18 inches above the ground. No obstructions within 3 feet. No parking within 15 feet

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67
Q

A class one standpipe is required and buildings more than how many stories above or below ground?

A

3

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68
Q

Class one standpipes have a minimum of how many FDC’s at the street level?

A

2

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69
Q

How many psi is required at the most remote outlet of a stand pipe system?

A

Pre 1993 65psi

Post 1993 100psi

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70
Q

What stand pipe system utilizes 100 feet of hose in a 50 GPM nozzle for occupant use?

A

Class 2

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71
Q

Class III standpipe systems are required to deliver how many psi pre-/post 1993 per NFPA 14?

A

100psi pre

175 psi post

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72
Q

What stand pipe system is filled with pressurized air connected to a water supply to flow water once hose valve is open?

A

Automatic dry systems.

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73
Q

Which stand pipe system utilizes a deluge valve?

A

Semiautomatic dry systems.

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74
Q

What are the three basic components of hose?

A

Hose jacket, Hose liner, couplings.

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75
Q

What are the filler strands and what percentage of pressure do they absorb?

A

Fibers woven around the hose and they absorb 75%

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76
Q

What are the six markings found on hose?

A

Manufactures name, manufacture date, service test pressure, Sdfd, unit number, meets NF PA 1962

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77
Q

What are the four markings on a coupling?

A

Manufactures name or trademark, inventory number on female, Sdfd barcode on male, higby indicator

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78
Q

How many feet high pressure hose is carried on specific engines?

A

400 feet

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79
Q

What is the average life expectancy a fire hose?

A

12 to 15 years

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80
Q

What is the acceptance pressure for triple jacket hose?

A

1200 psi

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81
Q

What are the combined elements that comprise weather?

A

Temperature, wind, relative humidity, atmospheric stability, and precipitation

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82
Q

What reflect the changes in fine fuel moisture content and wind speed?

A

The burn index

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83
Q

What is the divider for the two San Diego microclimates?

A

805 freeway

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84
Q

What are the three categories of wild land fuels?

A

Light 0’-3’
Medium 3’-6’
Heavy 6’+

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85
Q

What is the direction in which a slope faces?

A

Aspect

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86
Q

What degree of slope will spread twice as fast as a fire burning on flat ground?

A

10°

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87
Q

What is defined as a safety zone?

A

An area that can be survived without a shelter

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88
Q

As a general rule what is the size of determining the size of the safety zone?

A

Four times the maximum continuous flame height

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89
Q

When sizing at the building, what are the four building statuses?

A

Vacant, occupied, unoccupied, adandoned

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90
Q

A human will not survive after one minute exposure to what temperature for airway and for skin?

A

Airway 195° or higher and skin 300° or higher

91
Q

What are the four search area priorities for a single story structure fire?

A
  1. IDLH area
  2. Area with the most victims
  3. Remaining area of structure working from most severe to least severe
  4. Exposures
92
Q

What are the fourth search area priorities for a multi story structure fire

A

1) Stairwells
2) Fire floor, and three floors above the fire.
3) top 3 floors working down.
4) 3 floors below fire.

93
Q

When rescuing a victim from a structure, how far should They be moved away from the building?

A

10 ft

94
Q

When metal ladders are exposed to heat or flame they lose how much strength?

A

50%

95
Q

At what temperature do heat sensor stickers change color?

A

300°F

96
Q

Per NFPA, How many heat sensors are required per section?

A

4

97
Q

What are the ladder weight capacity is for wall/roof and extension ladders?

A

750 pounds

98
Q

Ladder personnel capacities for a 28 to 39 foot ladder?

A

Three people

99
Q

What is the optimal climbing angle for a ladder?

A

75°

100
Q

What is the formula for obtaining a climbing angle?

A

1/5 of the used portion of the ladder +2 to 3 feet

101
Q

Is a heat hole a defensive or offensive tactic?

A

Offensive

102
Q

True or false strip ventilation must be done in conjunction with the heat hole?

A

True.

103
Q

How far should a roof ladder be extended past a roofline?

A

Minimum two rungs max 6-8 rungs

104
Q

What are the four diagnostic roof cuts?

A

Kerf, Smoke indicator, inspection, plug cut

105
Q

When working on a pitched roof at what angle would you consider using a roof ladder?

A

Greater than 30°

106
Q

In penalized construction how far apart are beams spaced?

A

12 to 40 feet

107
Q

How far apart are purlins spaced?

A

8 feet perpendicular to the beam

108
Q

How far apart are sub purlins placed?

A

24 inches on center

109
Q

True or false the Leeward side of a building is opened first for natural ventilation?

A

False

110
Q

At what distance are blowers placed in front of the entry?

A

6 to 8 feet

111
Q

What size is the exhaust hole when using positive pressure techniques?

A

Three-quarter the size of the opening

112
Q

True or false blowers placed in a V pattern rather than in series are more effective?

A

True

113
Q

What would be an example of DC power?

A

Batteries

114
Q

If relating electricity to water, voltage would be the same as?

A

Force

115
Q

If relating electricity and water, amperes would be the same as?

A

Flow

116
Q

If relating electricity or water, watts would be the same as?

A

Amount

117
Q

If relating electricity or water, ohms Would be the same as?

A

Resistance

118
Q

Long distance transmission voltages range from what volts?

A

155,000 to 765,000 Volts.

119
Q

Transformers step down voltages to what?

A

Less than 10 K

120
Q

How many volts in a terminator box?

A

4 KV to 12 KV

121
Q

When dealing with pole fires what is the minimum distance?

A

Two pole spans

122
Q

Only extinguish the fire when it is how far from a capacitor?

A

2 feet

123
Q

Pressure is kept at what psi for distribution in residential areas?

A

60 PSI

124
Q

Propane is how many times heavier than air?

A

1.5

125
Q

What is the explosive range of CO?

A

12.5% to 74%

126
Q

What is the distance personnel shall stay away with a propane tank is involved?

A

Half a mile

127
Q

What is the gas pressure in most homes?

A

1/4 psi

128
Q

What is the gas pressure in hotels, larger complexes and small commercial buildings?

A

Five psi

129
Q

Water shut off valve is located how far away from the hydrant?

A

5 to 10 feet

130
Q

What is the estimated total fire loss during extinguishing operations?

A

75%

131
Q

What are the sizes of salvage covers?

A

12 x 14, 12 x 18, 14 x 18

132
Q

What are the sizes of Hall runners?

A

3 x 18

133
Q

The Kern refers to what part of the rope?

A

Inner core

134
Q

The mantle refers to what part of the rope?

A

Outer shell

135
Q

What part of the rope comprises approximately 75% of the rope strength?

A

Kern

136
Q

Static ropes are designed to keep stretching to a minimum of what?

A

Less than 2% stretch factor under normal loads

137
Q

It is estimated that static lifelines will break when?

A

Elongated to 20% more than normal length

138
Q

Temperature that static line can perform effectively?

A

350°F

139
Q

Temperature at which static lines will begin to melt?

A

480°F

140
Q

Years of service life for life lines?

A

Five years

141
Q

Service life of utility rope?

A

5 to 15 years

142
Q

A kilonewton is equivalent to how many pounds?

A

225 pounds

143
Q

1 inch nylon tubular wedding has a tensile strength of how many pounds?

A

4000 pounds

144
Q

What is the maximum working load for 1 inch nylon webbing?

A

800 pounds

145
Q

What is the length of the green Prusik.?

A

57 inches

146
Q

Premade load release devices have a breaking strength of?

A

18,000 pounds

147
Q

If a carabiner is dropped from what height it is considered out of service?

A

Shoulder height

148
Q

If a carabiner is sideloaded it will decrease the strength, capability how much?

A

50%

149
Q

What is the breaking strength of the brake bar rack?

A

6900 pounds

150
Q

The figure 8 family of knots allow retention of how much strength?

A

80%

151
Q

Sdfd working rating for half-inch nylon static rope?

A

640 pounds

152
Q

Sdfd working rating for half inch poly propylene rope?

A

260 pounds

153
Q

What is the propellant used in airbags?

A

Sodium azide

154
Q

At what degree or angle well A passive roll bar deploy?

A

51°

155
Q

How much weight can 4 x 4 cribbing support?

A

6000 pounds at each contact point

156
Q

When setting up a crib bed how much should they overlap?

A

4 inches on all sides

157
Q

How far do you want to remove smart keys from vehicles?

A

More than 20 feet

158
Q

How many volts does the San Diego trolley operate on?

A

600 to 700 V of DC current

159
Q

List three times mast is contacted?

A

Arson or suspicious fires, fire fatality, accidental fire with greater than $50,000 damage

160
Q

What is the California penal code for crime of arson?

A

451

161
Q

What are the 4 fire cause classifications?

A

Accidental, natural, incendiary, undetermined

162
Q

What is annealing?

A

The loss of temper from steel

163
Q

In arson investigation what does the V-pattern indicate?

A

The origin of the fire

164
Q

What is the flashpoint for a flammable liquid?

A

Less than 100°F

165
Q

What is the flashpoint for a combustible liquid?

A

Greater than 100°F

166
Q

How far away should crowds be kept when dealing with an explosive incident?

A

900 feet for unexploded devices and 300 feet from the furthest fragment of an exploded device

167
Q

What form is used for the juvenile fire Setter program?

A

FD-371

168
Q

What Cal OSHA regulation relates to firefighters safety and health?

A

Cal OSHA title 8

169
Q

How often is PPE inspected and how long shall the inspection form be kept?

A

March and October of each year, kept for one year

170
Q

Initial attack cannot enter the Fire until the engineer has done what?

A

Charged attack lines, set the pump, throttle relief valves and discharge gates

171
Q

Accountability should be established where?

A

At the point of entry

172
Q

What is the minimum GPM setting for a direct attack for interior fire fighting?

A

150gpm

173
Q

What is the difference between an MPI in a MCI?

A

MPI has fewer than nine patients MCI has greater than 10 patients

174
Q

What are the five positions for an MCI?

A
  1. Medical group supervisor
  2. Transportation group supervisor
  3. Triage unit leader
  4. Med. COM
  5. Ambulance staging manager
175
Q

What are the four patient triage categories?

A

Immediate, delayed, minor, deceased

176
Q

What is a strike team?

A

A team of multiple units (5) of the same kind and type.

177
Q

What is a task force?

A

Combination of single resources but typically two or more to meet a specific tactical need

178
Q

What is the alphabet designator to defined the apparatus type for a strike team?

A

Type 1: A

Type 3: C

179
Q

How many engines respond to a vegetation fire in the “no vegetation special response area”?

A

2 engines

180
Q

What units respond to a vegetation special response area first alarm?

A

4 engines, 2 brush rigs, 2 BC rigs, 2 Sdfd helicopters, one SDG&E hell a tanker if available

181
Q

Where are the water tenders and how many gallons do they carry?

A

FS 19 and FS 40

2,950 gallons

182
Q

What station is responsible for pre-fire plans?

A

FS16

183
Q

Who is responsible for approving tuition reimbursement?

A

Shift commander or senior staff after the employee has completed an educational plan form

184
Q

What is the progressive discipline for repeated tardiness?

A
  1. Written
  2. 8 hr suspension
  3. 24 hr suspension
  4. 80 hr suspension
  5. Termination
185
Q

An unplanned or unsought event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness or damage to, or loss of equipment or property is a what?

A

Accident.

186
Q

What are the 3 M ‘s?

A

Man, machine, media (environment)

187
Q

List the color coded accountability tags?

A 
Red- Engine
Black- Truck
Purple- BC
Green- Specialty
Blue- ems
188
Q

What is the FD-9 packet?

A

Blue injury report

189
Q

In regards to PPE what is TPP and what does it measure?

A

Thermal protection performance, measurement of the time between flashover and second-degree burns. Our turn outs have a TPP of 35

190
Q

What are the three apparatus readiness levels?

A

Front line, ready reserve, stripped reserve

191
Q

What is the hose inventory on a type one apparatus?

A

900 feet of 4 inch, 800 feet of 2 1/2, 450 feet of inch 1 3/4, 200 feet of 1 inch

192
Q

List three fire scope apparatus safety features?

A

Hose bed covers with straps, Chevron stripes, roll stability, cabinet alarms, airbags, speed governors

193
Q

What is the hose inventory and water tank/pump specs on a type III apparatus?

A

2000 feet of 1 1/2, 400 feet of 1 inch, 600 gallon tank, 500 GPM pump

194
Q

How many gallons do Sdfd copter 1 and 2 hold?

A

375

195
Q

How long is the hoist cable on the copter and what is the weight capacity?

A

250’ and 600lb max

196
Q

Class a foam is what percent better at cooling fire?

A

300%

197
Q

Class a foam is how many times better at penetrating fuels than water?

A

1000x

198
Q

.1% foam is used for what?

A

Overhaul

199
Q

.3% foam is used for what?

A

Direct attack and pretreating brush

200
Q

.7% foam is used for what?

A

Pre-treating structures

201
Q

1% foam is used for what?

A

Pre-treating structures in high wind

202
Q

Compressed air foam systems are considered how many times more effective than water?

A

10x

203
Q

What rigs have compressed air foam systems?

A

Brush rigs

204
Q

(COALS) Cut-in must occur before what psi?

A

100psi

205
Q

(COALS) Cut-out Must occur at what psi?

A

140 psi

206
Q

(COALS) Applied air leakage must not drop more than how many psi for an engine or a truck and what psi for a tiller?

A

3 psi for engine or truck and 4 psi for tiller

207
Q

(COALS) Low pressure must occur between ___ and ___ psi?

A

55 and 75 PSI

208
Q

(COALS) Spring break must occur between___and___psi?

A

45 and 20 psi

209
Q

Air pressure buildup test; Compressor must build air from 85 to 100 psi within?

A

45 seconds

210
Q

Riggs utilize a ___volt system?

A

12V

211
Q

Engine belts should have __ to __ inches of play in the center.

A

1/2 to 3/4”

212
Q

Battery volt reading should read__with engine off and no loads on it?

A

12.6 V

213
Q

Voltmeter should read__to__volts with engine running?

A

13 to 14.8 V

214
Q

What shows how much electricity is going to or from the engine batteries?

A

Ammeter

215
Q

The function of the___is to prevent the batteries from being excessively discharged

A

Load manager

216
Q

The slack adjuster is most efficient at what degree?

A

90 degrees

217
Q

At what brake pad thickness do we notify the shop and what thickness is considered out of service?

A

Notify 1/4”

OOS 1/16”

218
Q

On the arrow XT visual wear indicator we notify the shop when how many inches are exposed?

A

1/8”

OOS when flush

219
Q

Drum and rotor cracks greater than how many inches are out of service?

A

Greater than 1 1/8”

220
Q

CVC 35002 states any fire apparatus exceeding how many pounds shall be equipped with a retarder?

A

31,000 pounds

221
Q

During wet weather conditions what retarder should be turned off?

A

Jake Brake

222
Q

The Telma will disengage at__to__miles per hour depending on the programming

A

3 and 14 mph

223
Q

For the Telma each light indicates what percentage increase to the Telma?

A

25%

Test Questions (1 decks)

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