Quiz 9 Flashcards

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1
Q

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to

a) insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid.
b) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme Y into the plasmid.
c) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme.
d) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X.

A

c) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme.

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2
Q

In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?

a) The probe must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
b) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the probe must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
c) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
d) The probe must be separated by electrophoresis, the probe must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.

A

c) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.

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3
Q

Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?
a) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
b) use of nuclear DNA as well as mitochondrial DNA
c) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation
d) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells

A

c) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation

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4
Q

One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?

a) prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients
b) prevention of vacciine-containing plants being consumed by insects
c) use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA
d) inability of the human digestive system to accept plant-derived protein

A

a) prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients

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5
Q

What is bioinformatics?

a) a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information
b) a software program available from NIH to design genes
c) a series of search programs that allow a student to identify who in the world is trying to sequence a given species
d) a procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable ways

A

a) a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information

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6
Q

Which of the following studies would NOT likely be characterized as eco-devo?

a) a study of the assortment of homeotic genes in the zebra
b) a comparison of the functions of a particular homeotic gene among four species of reptiles
c) studying the environmental pressures on developmental stages such as the tadpole
d) a fossil comparison of organisms from the Devonian era.

A

b) a comparison of the functions of a particular homeotic gene among four species of reptiles

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7
Q

In DNA technology, the term vector can refer to

a) the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
b) the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
c) a SNP marker.
d) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.

A

d) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.

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8
Q

Which of the following tools of DNA technology is INCORRECTLY paired with its use?

a) electrophoresis-separation of DNA fragments
b) DNA ligase-cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
c) DNA polymerase-polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
d) reverse transcriptase-production of cDNA from mRNA

A

b) DNA ligase-cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments

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9
Q

Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because

a) plant genes do not contain introns.
b) more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells.
c) a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.
d) plant cells have larger nuclei.

A

c) a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.

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10
Q

A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from a sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing?

a) SNP analysis
b) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c) electroporation
d) gel electrophoresis

A

b) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

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11
Q

DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is NOT done routinely at present?

a) production of hormones for treating diabetes and dwarfism
b) production of microbes that can metabolize toxins
c) introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes
d) prenatal identification of genetic disease alleles

A

c) introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes

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12
Q

Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material?

a) It could be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction.
b) It was produced from pre-mRNA using reverse transcriptase.
c) It could be labelled and used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain.
d) It lacks the introns of the pre-mRNA.

A

b) It was produced from pre-mRNA using reverse transcriptase.

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13
Q

Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of

a) post-transcriptional processing.
b) post-translational processing.
c) nucleic acid hybridization.
d) restriction fragment ligation.

A

a) post-transcriptional processing.

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14
Q

Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?

a) AAGG
TTCC
b) GGCC
CCGG
c) ACCA
TGGT
d) AAAA
TTT

A

b) GGCC
CCGG

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15
Q

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.

A

III, II, IV, V, I

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16
Q

Genetically engineered plants

a) are able to fix nitrogen themselves.
b) are banned throughout the world.
c) are more difficult to engineer than animals.
d) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.
e) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.

A

e) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.

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17
Q

Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?

a) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
b) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
c) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
d) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
e) Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.

A

c) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR?

  1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA.
  2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA.
  3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added.
  4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA.
A

2, 1, 4

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19
Q

Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?

a) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned.
b) Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply.
c) Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize.
d) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
e) Recombinant plasmids cannot be replicated.

A

d) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.

20
Q

Gene sequences that remain very similar over many species are said to be

a) noncoding regions.
b) the same.
c) highly conserved.
d) resistant to mutation.
e) of the same family.

A

c) highly conserved.

21
Q

Which of the following can be duplicated in a genome?

a) entire sets of chromosomes only
b) sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
c) DNA sequences above a minimum size only
d) entire chromosomes only
e) DNA sequences below a minimum size only

A

b) sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes

22
Q

What is proteomics?

a) the totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
b) the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome
c) the study of how a single gene activates many proteins
d) the linkage of each gene to a particular protein
e) the study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein

A

b) the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome

23
Q

What is gene annotation in bioinformatics?

a) matching the corresponding phenotypes of different species
b) describing the functions of noncoding regions of the genome
c) describing the functions of protein-coding genes
d) identifying protein coding regions within a sequence
e) comparing the protein sequences within a single phylum

A

d) identifying protein coding regions within a sequence

24
Q

You have isolated a gene sequence from the mustard plant Arabidopsis and have BLAST searched the NCBI database. Your sequence hit several EST sequences that were identified as transcription factors. These sequences were found in E.coli, Chlamydomonas (a green algae), yeast, mice, and humans and only had a few base pair differences.

What can be surmised about your transcription factor?

a) It is unique to Arabidopsis.
b) It is likely involved in a universal metabolic function.
c) It is a transgene.
d) There is not enough information to conclude anything.
e) It is part of a large gene family.

A

b) It is likely involved in a universal metabolic function.

25
Q

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism’s survival in which of the following ways?

a) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order
b) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
c) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote’s genome
d) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms
e) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions

A

e) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions

26
Q

An animal that has genes from another species is said to be

a) transgenic.
b) a mutant.
c) an abomination.
d) transposed.

A

a) transgenic.

27
Q

Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?

a) A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone.
b) It is important to have multiple copies of DNA in the case of laboratory error.
c) A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell’s DNA.
d) DNA fragments are too small to use individually.
e) Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small.

A

c) A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell’s DNA.

28
Q

A project initiated at the University of Guelph is attempting to catalogue the differences of a short sequence within the mitochondrial DNA in all animal species. This ________ should allow the quick identification of a species.

a) DNA barcoding
b) microarray
c) STR DNA

A

a) DNA barcoding

29
Q

A recent report has indicated several conclusions about comparisons of our genome with that of Neanderthals. This report concludes, in part, that, at some period in evolutionary history, there was an admixture of the two genomes. This is evidenced by

a) some Neanderthal sequences not found in humans.
b) Neanderthal Y chromosomes preserved in the modern population of males.
d) a small number of modern H. sapiens with Neanderthal sequences.
e) mitochondrial sequences common to both groups.

A

d) a small number of modern H. sapiens with Neanderthal sequences.

30
Q

Fragments of DNA have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. These can now be used to

a) appreciate the reasons why mammoths went extinct.
b) understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related taxa.
c) study the relationships among woolly mammoths and other wool-producers.
d) introduce into relatives, such as elephants, certain mammoth traits.
e) clone live woolly mammoths.

A

b) understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related taxa.

31
Q

In order to determine the probable function of a particular sequence of DNA in humans, what might be the most reasonable approach?

a) Genetically engineer a mouse with a copy of this sequence and examine its phenotype.
b) Prepare a knockout mouse without a copy of this sequence and examine the mouse phenotype.
c) Look for a reasonably identical sequence in another species, prepare a knockout of this sequence in that species, and look for the consequences.
d) Prepare a genetically engineered bacterial culture with the sequence inserted and assess which new protein is synthesized.
e) Mate two individuals heterozygous for the normal and mutated sequences

A

c) Look for a reasonably identical sequence in another species, prepare a knockout of this sequence in that species, and look for the consequences.

32
Q

If a nucleotide substitution switched an A for a U, such that the codon was read as UAA instead of AAA, what would the effect be?

a) a nonsense mutation
b) a missense mutation
c) it would initiate a tumour
d) a silent mutation

A

a) a nonsense mutation

33
Q

Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon?

a) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid
b) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid
c) a sequence in tRNA at the 3’ end
d) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets
e) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG

A

e) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG

34
Q

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the operator to the far end of the lac operon (past the terminator sequence), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose?

a) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor.
b) The repressor protein will no longer be produced.
c) The genes will be transcribed continuously.
d) The operon will never be transcribed.
e) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.

A

c) The genes will be transcribed continuously.

35
Q

Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?

a) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine.
b) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
c) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA.
d) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.
e) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

A

e) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

36
Q

Bioinformatics includes all of the following except

a) using computer programs to align DNA sequences.
b) using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube.
c) developing computer-based tools for genome analysis.
d) using mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems.

A

b) using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube.

37
Q

Homeotic genes..?

a) encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures.
b) are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods.
c) are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain.
d) encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly.

A

a) encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures.

38
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true about restriction enzymes?
I. They are used by bacteria to cut up foreign DNA.
II. They cut DNA unevenly to produce “sticky ends.”
III. They are non-specific and cut anywhere along a sequence.
IV. They are involved with heterochromatin production.

A

I and II

39
Q

The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that

a) it is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler.
b) it has regions that are complementary to primers.
c) it binds more readily than other polymerases to primer.
d) only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR.
e) All of these are correct.

A

a) it is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler.

40
Q

Homeotic genes contain a homeobox sequence that is highly conserved among very diverse species. The homeobox is the code for that domain of a protein that binds to DNA in a regulatory developmental process. Which of the following would you then expect?

a) that all organisms must have homeobox-containing genes
b) that a homeobox-containing gene has to be a developmental regulator
c) that homeotic genes are selectively expressed over developmental time
d) that homeoboxes cannot be expressed in nonhomeotic genes
e) that all organisms must have homeotic genes

A

c) that homeotic genes are selectively expressed over developmental time

41
Q

Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?

a) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
b) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
c) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
d) increasing the length of the DNA fragment

A

b) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment

42
Q

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication?

a) The process is extremely fast once it is initiated.
b) The process occurs in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
c) It uses RNA polymerase.
d) The entire template molecule is represented in the product.
e) It makes a new molecule from its 5’ end to its 3’ end.

A

d) The entire template molecule is represented in the product.

43
Q

A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that

a) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.
b) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
c) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
d) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.

A

a) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.

44
Q

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following?

a) side groups of nitrogenous bases
b) sequence of bases
c) complementary pairing of bases
d) phosphate-sugar backbones
e) different five-carbon sugars

A

b) sequence of bases

45
Q

How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?

a) by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds
b) by forming “sticky ends” of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
c) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
d) by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
e) by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle

A

c) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines

46
Q

An unspecialized cell that can reproduce and differentiate is a(n) ________ cell.

a) stem
b) mutant
c) tumour
d) zygote
e) pluripotent

A

a) stem

47
Q

Spider silk is one of the strongest biomolecules known. It has a tensile strength greater than Kevlar and elasticity greater than rubber. Attempts to “farm” spiders have met with little success (they tend to eat each other). Researchers have identified the gene responsible for the formation of the silk.

What would be a plausible suggestion to produce this protein for human use?

a) Never mind—it’s too difficult and too small a product to try.
b) Identify the protein and synthesize it using other materials.
c) There is nothing that can be done at this stage in our understanding but in time there may be a solution.
d) Insert the gene into another organism that is easier to culture and have it produce the silk protein.
e) Breed less aggressive spiders until they are “domesticated.”

A

d) Insert the gene into another organism that is easier to culture and have it produce the silk protein.